Personality Disorders
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of personality disorders, examining their clinical characteristics, etiology, classification, and diagnostic criteria as outlined in major diagnostic systems such as the DSM-5. Students will study the various types of personality disorders, including borderline, antisocial, narcissistic, and avoidant, considering the impact of biological, psychological, and social factors on their development and manifestation. Emphasis is placed on assessment, evidence-based treatment approaches, and the ethical and cultural considerations associated with diagnosing and working with individuals who have personality disorders. Case studies and contemporary research findings will facilitate the application of theoretical knowledge to real-world scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Abnormal Behavior 10th Edition by David Sue
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Chapter 1: Abnormal Behavior
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Q1) A researcher who investigates the onset or occurrence of a psychological disorder over specific periods of time is studying the ____ of the disorder.
A)incidence
B)prevalence
C)lifetime prevalence
D)criteria
Answer: A
Q2) One finding of the Merikangas et al.(2010)epidemiological study is that ____.
A)males and females tend to differ in the kinds of disorders they experience
B)adolescents have a lower rate of mood disorders than adults
C)almost 50 percent of adolescents meet criteria for at least one psychological disorder
D)people living in rural areas have a much higher incidence of mental disorders than do people living in urban areas
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Models of Abnormal Behavior
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Q1) The existential and humanistic approaches differ from one another in that the existentialists emphasize ____.
A)the need for society to control and restrict the antisocial impulses of individuals
B)responsibility to society as well as personal responsibility
C)the importance of the therapist's interpretation of the client's difficulties in life
D)optimism
Answer: B
Q2) Of the following, which client would be most likely to benefit from psychoanalysis?
A)a poor person with limited verbal skills
B)an older woman in immediate crisis
C)a well-educated anxious young man
D)a psychotic older man
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Assessment and Classification of Abnormal Behavior
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Q1) Which statement about the draw-a-person test is accurate?
A)Its purpose is to assess the individual's artistic skill.
B)It is considered a self-report inventory.
C)Research shows that it has very strong validity.
D)The size, position, and details of drawings are analyzed.
Answer: D
Q2) These tests require test-takers to answer specific written questions.They are scored in a predetermined way, and scores are easily compared with those from a standardization sample.Which of the following fits the above description?
A)self-report inventories
B)psychodiagnostic tests
C)neuropsychological tests
D)projective personality tests
Answer: A
Q3) After his stroke, Aaron's clinical psychologist is most likely to assess ____.
A)his interest in physical activities he previously enjoyed
B)cognitive impairment resulting from brain damage
C)his vocational interests
D)his unconscious needs and motivations
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Scientific Method in Abnormal Psychology
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Q1) Emily came to see her advisor about doing a research study for her Ph.D.dissertation.
"What are you going to investigate?" he asked.
"I believe that drinking orange juice before an IQ test will raise a person's score," she said.Emily's answer constitutes a(n)____.
A)idiographic orientation
B)hypothesis
C)operational definition
D)theory
Q2) Conclusions of the research conducted by Moos (2005)and Bootzin and Bailey (2005)suggests that ____.
A)some group-based prevention and treatment programs have resulted in increases in substance use and delinquent behaviors instead of decreases in these behaviors
B)all group-based prevention and treatment programs yield similar results in drug taking and delinquent behaviors
C)iatrogenic effects are the intended effects of therapy
D)memories are usually less accurate in depressed individuals
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Chapter 5: Anxiety and Obsessive Compulsive and Related Disorders
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Q1) Research indicates a genetic, psychological, social, and sociocultural components in the development of phobias.This statement suggests that ____.
A)the manifestations of phobias are complicated and thus poorly understood
B)there can be multiple pathways involved in the development of phobias
C)phobias develop from predispositions
D)defective genes are transmitted to offspring resulting in phobias
Q2) Judy is in therapy for her compulsive handwashing.Her therapist conjures up several images of filthy clothes and digging in dirt.Judy gets the feeling of being "contaminated" but is not allowed to resort to the usual ritual of handwashing.This therapy is called
A)desensitization and relapse prevention
B)exposure with response prevention
C)systematic desensitization
D)cognitive restructuring
Q3) David has been diagnosed with OCD.It is likely that David ____.
A)is overconfident about the accuracy of his memory and judgment
B)has no problems with his memory or his judgment
C)does not trust his memory or his judgment
D)trusts his memory, but not his judgment
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Stress Disorders
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Q1) In the study of Vietnam veterans and their twin brothers who had not been in combat, Gilbertson and colleagues (2006)found which relationship between cognitive functioning and PTSD?
A)They found no relationship.
B)They found that above average cognitive skills act as a protective factor against developing PTSD.
C)They found that higher cognitive functioning may serve as a vulnerability for developing PTSD.
D)They found that combat reduces cognitive functioning.
Q2) Lifetime prevalence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is highest among ____.
A)African Americans
B)Hispanic Americans
C)White Americans
D)Asian Americans
Q3) What is the most common type of headache?
A)migraine
B)tension
C)cluster
D)They are all equally common.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Somatic Symptom and Dissociative Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is indicative of a dissociative disorders?
A)motor or sensory symptoms that are incongruent with any neurological or medical disorder
B)a separation of part of a person's consciousness or identity
C)faking symptoms of amnesia
D)the ability to only remember certain details of an incident
Q2) Pedro has the most common form of dissociative amnesia.He was a witness to his father's murder but has no memory of the event.This illustrates ____.
A)depersonalization
B)fugue
C)localized amnesia
D)generalized amnesia
Q3) What form does the dissociation take in depersonalization disorder, dissociative amnesia, and dissociative identity disorder? What are the major differences in the symptoms and prospects for recovery in these three disorders?
Q4) Describe the features of complex somatic symptom disorder with somatization features (somatization disorder), factitious disorders, and malingering, delineating how the three can be differentiated from one another.
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders
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Q1) The affective symptoms of depression include ____.
A)slowed speech and action
B)thoughts of suicide
C)an inability to sleep
D)intense sadness and feelings of worthlessness
Q2) Compare and contrast Lewinsohn's explanation of major depression with Seligman's attribution-learned helplessness approach.
Q3) ____ are disturbances in emotions that cause subjective discomfort, hinder a person's ability to function, or both.
A)Personality disorders
B)Emotional disorders
C)Mood disorders
D)Anxiety disorders
Q4) Which of the following are key concepts in the behavioral explanation of depression?
A)incomplete mourning and unexpressed anger
B)irrational thinking and poor logic
C)few reinforcers and poor social skills
D)lack of imagination and self-absorption
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Chapter 9: Suicide
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Q1) Providing intensive short-term help to assist potential suicide victims in resolving a life crisis is the aim of ____.
A)traditional therapy
B)crisis intervention
C)suicide prevention
D)insight psychotherapy
Q2) Professor Jacobs is telling his class that suicide prevention centers are thought to be extremely helpful.He says, "Although they only evaluate suicidal potential, they typically operate twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week.Research shows that the phone counselors and these centers are effective." Which portion of the statement is accurate?
A)They typically operate twenty-four hours a day, seven days a week
B)Research shows that these centers are effective.
C)They only evaluate suicidal potential.
D)Research shows that the phone counselors are effective.
Q3) Which professional would be most likely to commit suicide?
A)A CPA
B)A pediatrician
C)A teacher
D)A psychiatrist
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Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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Q1) What treatment strategies are effective in the treatment of eating disorders?
Q2) Amy has just begun therapy for anorexia nervosa.She is in the hospital, where medical staff give her feedings to increase her weight.After she has gained sufficient weight, in order to maintain treatment gains achieved in the hospital, what will most likely be implemented as an outpatient?
A)family therapy
B)stimulant medication
C)systematic desensitization
D)aversive conditioning
Q3) Sands (1998)believes that in order for any treatment for eating disorders to be effective, it's necessary to acknowledge ____.
A)underlying psychological issues
B)family dynamics
C)hereditary factors
D)the social context
Q4) Define obesity and explain the reasons it is considered to be an epidemic in the United States.Discuss how, in a nation so obsessed with thinness, obesity has become such a problem.Explore the different treatment options and their effectiveness.
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Chapter 11: Substance Use Disorders
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Q1) Research conducted by Moss et al.(2010)suggests that among chronic heavy users of alcohol, ____ were most likely to remain dependent on alcohol.
A)individuals with psychiatric disorders and a family history of alcoholism
B)individuals who were heavy drinkers of alcohol in college
C)males
D)individuals who were divorced and unemployed
Q2) In support of the assertion that addiction is a disease, Wollschlaeger (2007)indicates that ____.
A)recovering alcoholics must completely abstain from drinking because any consumption will set off the disease process
B)under the right conditions, alcoholics can learn to limit their drinking to appropriate levels
C)controlled drinking may work for some alcohol abusers
D)alcoholics have the ability to control only some aspects of what causes the disease
Q3) Alcohol and narcotics are both depressants.Discuss how they have both similar and different effects on and consequences for those who are dependent.
Q4) Describe the Treatment for Alcohol Dependence.
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Chapter 12: Schizophrenia
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Q1) Which of the following is likely to produce diagnostic errors?
A)cultural similarities
B)cultural differences
C)assessment
D)clinicians lack of unawareness regarding possible reactions to medications
Q2) Which of the following is considered by most mental health professions to be the beginning of a new era in treating schizophrenia?
A)The introduction of the prefrontal lobotomy by Moniz in 1930
B)The deinstitutionalization movement that begin in the mid-1950s
C)The introduction of Thorazine in 1955
D)The incorporation of milieu therapy in the 1880s
Q3) Hagrid is in a hospital environment that operates as a community in which the patients exercise a wide range of responsibilities and help make decisions and manage the wards.He is receiving what type of therapy?
A)milieu
B)behavioral
C)cognitive behavioral
D)group home
Q4) Identify and describe the four symptom categories of schizophrenia.
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Chapter 13: Neurocognitive Disorders
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Q1) When a neurocognitive disorder is characterized by significant memory impairment and cognitive disturbances, or significant disturbances in planning and abstracting in thought processes, it is considered to be ____.
A)delirium
B)a major neurocognitive disorder
C)a minor neurocognitive disorder
D)a neurocognitive disorder, not otherwise specified
Q2) MRIs are superior to other neuroimaging techniques for which of the following reasons?
A)They can be used with patients who have metal in their heads.
B)They do not involve radiation exposure as with other imaging techniques.
C)They are cost-efficient.
D)They allow the patients to have mobility while the imaging is taking place.
Q3) In neurocognitive disorders, ____.
A)social and psychological factors play no role
B)brain dysfunctions cause problems with thinking processes, memory, consciousness, and perception
C)there may be symptoms of brain pathology, but no organic cause is assumed
D)psychological factors cause the brain to malfunction
Q4) What are some of the treatments for neurocognitive disorders?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Sexual Dysfunction and Gender Dysphoria Disorders
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Q1) Cynthia enters therapy because she is concerned about her inability to become sexually aroused.Which of the following is likely to be a reason to be explored by her therapist to help her learn why she experiences this disorder?
A)She has an expectation that she should be sexually satisfied when she has sex.
B)She was given information that was too realistic about sex when she was a child.
C)She has never been sexually assaulted or molested.
D)She has conflicts with her sexual partner.
Q2) Dr.Ward says, "Premature ejaculation is a relatively uncommon sexual dysfunction in which the inability to achieve an erection leads to ejaculating reflexively during instances of excessive sexual stimulation.It is a source of anguish for many males." What part of the statement is accurate?
A)It is accurate to say that premature ejaculation involves an inability to achieve an erection.
B)It is accurate to say that premature ejaculation is uncommon.
C)It is accurate to say that premature ejaculation involves excessive sexual stimulation.
D)It is accurate to say that premature ejaculation involves reflexive ejaculation.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Personality Psychopathology
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Q1) In the DSM-IV, one of the categorical approach issues in assessing personality psychopathology is diagnostic accuracy.Research indicates excellent reliability in diagnosing whether a person has a personality disorder; however, ____.
A)much lower reliability is demonstrated when classifying the precise type of personality disorder
B)a person diagnosed with one personality disorder rarely meets criteria for others as well
C)it is not known if classifying the precise type of personality disorder is clinically useful D)the validity of these findings is difficult to establish
Q2) Which approach to personality helps researchers and clinicians assess personality disorders as a particular set of personality characteristics and to compare different disorders?
A)the psychodynamic approach
B)the behavioral approach
C)the hybrid approach (personality types and personality traits)that combine categorical and dimensional characteristics to the diagnosis of personality disorders
D)the multipath approach
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Chapter 16: Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence
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Q1) Which appears to be most effective for treatment of conduct disorders?
A)Treatment for conduct disorder is most effective when it implements systematic desensitization for children and insight therapy for their parents.
B)Treatment for conduct disorder is most effective when implemented before patterns of disruptive behavior are firmly established.
C)Treatment for conduct disorder is most effective when it involves stimulant medication and social skills role playing.
D)Treatment for conduct disorder is most effective when it utilizes hypnosis and psychoanalysis.
Q2) Compare and contrast the symptoms involved in the externalizing disorders of childhood: temper dysregulation disorder with dysphoria, oppositional defiant disorder, and conduct disorder.
Q3) Which childhood disorder has the latest onset?
A)autism spectrum disorder
B)attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
C)pediatric bipolar disorder
D)enuresis
Q4) Describe the DSM-V diagnostic criteria for autism spectrum disorder.
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Chapter 17: Legal and Ethical Issues in Abnormal Psychology
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Q1) Dr.Jenkins has a client who is violent.Dr.Jenkins is concerned that his client may engage in dangerous acts against others.If the client does become violent, Dr.Jenkins could be held accountable for which of the following?
A)discussing the case with other experts
B)warning potential victims
C)due process
D)providing the least restrictive environment
Q2) May criminal defendants be forced to take medication that will make them competent to stand trial if doing so will likely result in their execution?
A)No.That would clearly violate their constitutional rights.
B)Yes.If medication is likely to improve the defendant's mental condition, both the state and the defendant should be entitled to have the case tried.
C)No.Such actions would not be in the best interests of the defendant.
D)Perhaps.In 2003 the Supreme Court put strict limits on involuntarily medicating mentally ill defendants to make them competent to stand trial, but guidelines are not well delineated.
Q3) Name and describe two rights of mental patients.
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