Course Introduction
Personality Assessment
Test Questions
Personality Assessment explores the theories, methods, and tools used to measure and understand individual differences in personality. The course covers both objective and projective assessment techniques, such as self-report inventories, observational methods, and structured interviews. Students examine the reliability and validity of various personality measures, ethical considerations, and cultural factors influencing assessment. Through practical exercises and case studies, students learn how to select, administer, score, and interpret personality assessments in clinical, counseling, and organizational settings.
Recommended Textbook
Psychological Testing and Assessment An Introduction to Tests and Measurement 8th Edition by
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Chapter 1: Psychological Testing and Assessment
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Q1) A handheld,biofeedback device designed to promote relaxation and relieve stress called the
A) Stresseraser.
B) Relaxometer.
C) Biopsychometer.
D) Tensionreliever.
Answer: A
Q2) A psychologist seeks to measure color blindness in a sample of university students.Which source of information about psychological tests would be the best place to start in search of a test to use for this population?
A) Psychological Review
B) Psychological Assessment
C) Tests in Print
D) Opthalmica
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Historical, cultural, and Legal Ethical
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Just listen to the cheers in the hall the next time grades are posted outside of your instructor's office.This is a parallel to the ancient Chinese practice of
A) celebrating the end of the academic school year.
B) screaming in pain from acupuncture.
C) "releasing the roll."
D) "unwrapping the foot."
Answer: C
Q2) Which legislation provided that employers,when making employment decisions with ability tests,cannot use different cutoff scores on the basis of race,religion,sex,or national origin?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
B) Civil Rights Act of 1964
C) Family Education Rights and Privacy Act of 1974
D) Education for All Handicapped Children Act of 1975
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: A Statistics Refresher
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Sample Questions
Q1) The DSM-IV classification "3.18 Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder" is an example of:
A) a nominal scale.
B) an ordinal scale.
C) an interval scale.
D) a ratio scale.
Answer: A
Q2) There are 100 scores in a distribution of test scores and the average deviation (AD)is 12.The AD of 12 tells us that the 100 scores in this distribution varied,on average
A) 12 points from the mean.
B) 12 points from each other.
C) 12 points from 100.
D) None of these
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Of Tests and Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the team of sports psychologist introduced in the Chapter 4 Meet An Assessment Professional,psychological information collected on professional athletes is used
A) to motivate players to do well.
B) in the process of press relations.
C) prepare players for an alternative career.
D) None of these
Q2) A test is considered standardized if the manual for the test includes
A) clearly specified procedures for administration.
B) clearly specified procedures for scoring.
C) normative data.
D) All of these
Q3) It's a group of people whose performance on a particular test is analyzed for reference in evaluating the performance of future testtakers.This group is called A) a normative sample.
B) a test validation group.
C) a stratified random sample.
D) a "back to the future" group.
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Chapter 5: Reliability
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would result in the LEAST appropriate estimate of reliability for a speed test?
A) test-retest
B) alternate-form
C) split-half from a single administration of the test
D) split-half from two independent testing sessions
Q2) If a student received a score of 50 on a math test with a standard error of measurement of 3,which of the following statements would be TRUE of the "true score"?
A) In 68% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between 44 and 56.
B) In 68% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between 47 and 53.
C) In 95% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between 47 and 53.
D) In 95% of the cases, the "true score" would be expected to be between 44 and 56.
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Chapter 6: Validity
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Q1) Issues of "fairness" as applied to tests
A) are seldom discussed in the popular media.
B) may be determined through mathematical procedures.
C) are generally agreed on.
D) are rooted in moral and philosophical issues.
Q2) Relating to Lawshe's Content Validity Ratio (CVR),if half of the panelists rated a given item on an employment test as representing an essential skill required on the job,the item's CVR would
A) be negative.
B) be zero.
C) be positive.
D) depend on how many panelists there are.
Q3) As the term is applied to a test,validity is a judgment or estimate of how well a test
A) measures what it purports to measure.
B) measures what it purports to measure in a particular context.
C) satisfies the deductions that could logically be made from inferences about it.
D) All of these
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Chapter 7: Utility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Costs associated with testing include all of the following EXCEPT
A) administrator time.
B) use of test facility.
C) return on investment.
D) test administrator's time.
Q2) Your text listed many frequently raised questions related to test utility.Which is NOT one of those questions:
A) Is the time it takes to administer this test worth it?
B) What is the practical value of using this test over another?
C) Is the cost of using this test worth the cost savings that may result?
D) Does this test measure what it purports to measure?
Q3) As noted by the Hansen et al.study cited in the text,the addition of two more x-ray views in addition to the conventional two is advisable because
A) it may make a more expensive procedure such as a CAT scan unnecessary.
B) the additional radiation exposure was shown to be insignificant.
C) it may be helpful in diagnosing whether physical abuse has occurred.
D) the procedure can do "double duty" as a drug screening tool.
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Chapter 8: Test Development
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Q1) One of the questions that the developer of a new test must answer is,"Should more than one form of the test be developed?" In answering this question,a primary consideration is
A) development costs.
B) test content.
C) test reliability.
D) item discrimination.
Q2) A test developer designs a test for the sole purpose of identifying the most highly skilled individuals among those tested.During the test revision stage of test development,the test developer will be particularly interested in A) item bias.
B) item discrimination.
C) item reliability.
D) item validity.
Q3) An ADVANTAGE of applying item response theory (IRT)in test development is that A) the principles underlying IRT make its application easy and appealing.
B) sample sizes used to test the utility of test items can be relatively small.
C) assumptions underlying IRT usage are weak.
D) item statistics are independent of the samples administered the test.
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Chapter 9: Intelligence and Its Measurement
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Q1) Which of the following is TRUE of the concept of mental age?
A) It is no longer a concept used in contemporary cognitive assessment.
B) It is equivalent to a total score on a test divided by chronological age.
C) Horn has advocated its reintroduction in the CHC model.
D) Both a and c
Q2) Public Law 95-561 defines giftedness with reference to
A) creativity.
B) leadership ability.
C) intellectual ability.
D) All of these
Q3) Cognitive abilities decline with age.According to Salthouse (2009),this decline
A) seems to correlate strongly with carbon monoxide intake.
B) can be postponed through cognitive stimulation.
C) may begin as early as one's twenties.
D) is accelerated as a result of teaching a course in psychological assessment.
Q4) Crystallized intelligence includes
A) application of general knowledge.
B) nonverbal abilities.
C) sensory abilities.
D) All of these
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Chapter 10: Tests of Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most major tests of cognitive ability can be analyzed and interpreted by means of A) only the method described in the test's manual.
B) various methods of profile analysis.
C) the step-by-step method devised by Robert Sternberg.
D) analysis of Gardner's multiple intelligences.
Q2) For David Wechsler,the term "W-B" had special significance because A) his work in intelligence testing was once profiled on this network.
B) these initials stood for his name and where he worked, respectively.
C) Warner Brothers successfully outbid Paramount to do a film of his life story.
D) None of these
Q3) The Picture Absurdities subtest of the SB5 was designed to measure A) nonverbal problem solving on matters not culturally bound.
B) ability to see patterns and relationships and spatial orientation.
C) sorting of information into short-term or long-term memory.
D) skills and knowledge acquired by formal and informal education.
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Chapter 11: Assessment for Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CBCL's 8-syndrome structure
A) is supported by a number of research studies conducted in inner-city Detroit.
B) has not been supported by research outside of the United States.
C) has been supported in research conducted in 30 societies throughout the world.
D) Both a and b
Q2) Evaluations of students using the peer appraisal method may be obtained by consulting
A) the student being evaluated, since this is a self-report measure.
B) the teacher, the parent, and family members of the student
C) individuals with whom the student attends classes with and socializes with.
D) Both b and c
Q3) According to the text,the chief concern expressed in many critical reviews of the KABC-II had to do with the test's
A) reliability.
B) validity.
C) dual theoretical model.
D) cultural fairness.
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Chapter 12: Personality Assessment: An Overview
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what age does acculturation begin?
A) at birth
B) when one enters elementary school (approximately 5 years old)
C) when one enters high school (approximately 14 years old)
D) when one becomes independent of one's family (whenever)
Q2) An example of a personality test that employed empirical criterion keying in its development is the A) 16 PF.
B) NEO-PI-R.
C) Rorschach.
D) MMPI.
Q3) The history of personality types dates at least as far back as the days of A) Hippocrates.
B) Jung.
C) Freud.
D) Thorndike.
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Chapter 13: Personality Assessment Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) B.F.Skinner devised an auditory projective test that he called
A) the tautophone.
B) the verbal summator.
C) the instrumental responder.
D) the audioblot.
Q2) A behaviorally-oriented clinician might use a variety of instruments in a clinical assessment.Which of the following is such a clinician LEAST likely to use?
A) case study material.
B) observation.
C) a standardized checklist.
D) a projective technique.
Q3) The use of words as projective stimuli is based on which assumption?
A) Words are inherently emotionally charged and therefore a good source of psychological data.
B) Associations to words are chance happenings.
C) Word associations are the result of the individual's life experiences and personality.
D) Word associations exhibit high test-retest reliability.
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Chapter 14: Clinical and Counseling Assessment
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Q1) A case history
A) is not appropriate for children under age 8.
B) may be found in hospital records.
C) is more important in clinical than counseling psychology.
D) is rarely utilized by behavioral psychologists.
Q2) Which of the following tools of assessment is MOST frequently used by clinicians in their daily work?
A) an interview
B) a rating scale
C) a picture-story projective test
D) reports from others
Q3) What impact has managed care had on clinical practice?
A) it has had little impact on demand for psychological testing
B) it has had the effect of reducing the number of psychological tests administered
C) it has increased the number of practitioners who wish to practice in a managed care environment
D) demand for assessment services has increased due to increased insurance reimbursement for such services
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Chapter 15: Neuropsychological Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most neuropsychologists prefer which of the following when conducting a neuropsychological evaluation?
A) a prepackaged neuropsychological battery
B) a flexible neuropsychological battery
C) the Halstead-Reitan
D) the Luria-Nebraska
Q2) The dominant brain hemisphere takes the lead in all of the following EXCEPT
A) spatial recognition
B) arithmetic calculations
C) writing
D) reading
Q3) Confrontation naming is a type of task presented on a test that entails A) a name-calling exchange with a spouse or other family member for a given period of time.
B) confronting a testtaker with a list of names-negative or positive-that the assessor feels aptly describe the testtaker.
C) naming items one is confronted with.
D) re-naming items one is confronted with.
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Chapter 16: Assessment, Careers, and Business References
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Q1) Productivity ratings made by peers tend to be
A) invalid due to factors such as jealousy.
B) more strict than ratings made by supervisors.
C) predictive of future job performance.
D) poorly correlated with self-ratings.
Q2) Scores on the Strong Interest Inventory provide information about a testtaker's interests relative to
A) the skills required for a particular job.
B) the educational level required for a particular job.
C) the probability of success at a particular job based on academic achievement.
D) the interests of people actually employed in various occupations.
Q3) Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate use of a physical measure for the purpose of employee screening?
A) testing an industrial worker's hearing
B) testing a police officer's speed and agility
C) measuring the height and weight of a telephone operator
D) using a polygraph test to assess a cashier's integrity and honesty
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