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Perioperative Pharmacology introduces students to the principles of pharmacology as they apply to the surgical patient. The course covers the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of drugs commonly used before, during, and after surgical procedures, including anesthetics, analgesics, antibiotics, anticoagulants, and fluids. Emphasis is placed on understanding drug interactions, patient-specific variables, and the impact of pathophysiological changes that occur during the perioperative period. Through case-based learning and practical examples, students will develop the skills necessary to make informed decisions regarding medication administration and monitoring in the perioperative setting, ensuring patient safety and optimal outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for the Surgical Technologist 4th Edition by Katherine Snyder
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16 Chapters
738 Verified Questions
738 Flashcards
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malignant hyperthermia is a(n)_______________ effect to certain drugs.
A)idiosyncratic
B)adverse
C)local
D)side
Answer: A
Q2) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates its function is said to be a(n)_______________ drug.
A)agonist
B)antagonist
C)idiosyncratic
D)pharmacokinetic
Answer: A
Q3) The study of drugs derived from natural sources is called A)pharmacology.
B)biotechnology.
C)pharmacokinetics.
D)pharmacognosy.
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does a surgical technologist know if he or she can handle and administer medications in his or her state?
A)By asking the surgeon
B)By asking the facility's risk management
C)By researching the state's policy online
D)By contacting the AORN
Answer: C
Q2) Which federal action sets the standards for quality and requires proper medication labeling for preparations containing morphine?
A)Durham-Humphrey Amendments
B)Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
C)Pure Food and Drug Act
D)Controlled Substances Act
Answer: C
Q3) All of the following are on the "Do Not Use" list of abbreviations except A)U for unit.
B)the trailing zero.
C)QD for once daily.
D)zero before the decimal point.
Answer: D

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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is 25% of 50?
A)10
B)12.5
C)10.5
D)12
Answer: A
Q2) deci
A)1000 milliliters
B)1000
C)1 cubic centimeter
D)one tenth
E)2.54 centimeters
F)5 cubic centimeters
G)one millionth
H)1 kilogram
Answer: D
Q3) Drop _____
Answer: gtt
The accepted abbreviation for drop is gtt.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medication labels must contain all of the following information except
A)generic and trade names.
B)contraindications.
C)strength of medications.
D)amount of medication.
Q2) Without infection
A)Asepsis
B)Carpule
C)Contamination
D)Diluent
E)Reconstitute
Q3) Who is responsible for passing a medication to the surgeon for administration during the surgical procedure?
A)Anesthesiologist
B)Scrubbed surgical technologist
C)Circulating nurse
D)Another scrubbed surgeon
Q4) A 30-gauge hypodermic needle is larger in diameter than an 18-gauge needle.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) A way of distinguishing between two types of bacteria is called
A)culture and sensitivity.
B)morphology.
C)selective toxicity.
D)Gram staining.
Q2) To cause an infection,a pathogen must have which of the following?
A)A source
B)A bacteria
C)An unclean environment
D)An S. aureus
Q3) Which ointment is a naturally occurring antibiotic produced by fermentation and used as an intranasal packing?
A)Bactroban
B)Bacitracin
C)Synercid
D)Cleocin
Q4) Surgical instruments that are improperly cleaned prior to sterilization are an example of
A)endogenous source.
B)exogenous source.

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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true of contrast media except
A)they are sensitive to light.
B)they are clear in color.
C)most contain iodine.
D)most are radiotransparent.
Q2) Dyes can be administered by all of the following methods except
A)injected into the bloodstream.
B)ingested into the digestive system.
C)applied topically to tissue.
D)instilled into cavities.
Q3) If a surgical patient has a positive shellfish allergy and is undergoing a procedure that requires the use of a contrast media,what should the surgical technologist do?
A)Not use items containing latex in the sterile field
B)Have nonionic contrast agents available
C)Ask the surgical team to give Benadryl to the patient
D)Ask that the procedure be cancelled
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are electrolytes acquired?
A)Through supplements and food
B)Through food and water
C)Through fluids and supplements
D)Through hormones and food
Q2) Which one of the following medications is a loop diuretic?
A)HydroDIURIL
B)Aldactone
C)Lasix
D)Osmitrol
Q3) Potassium-sparing diuretics are commonly used to treat which one of the following conditions?
A)Edema
B)Congestive heart failure
C)Intracranial pressure
D)Intraocular pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreatic duct transports all of the following into the duodenum except A)insulin.
B)amylase.
C)lipase.
D)proteinase.
Q2) Epinephrine is combined with local anesthetics to A)prolong the effects of local anesthesia.
B)inhibit the postoperative inflammatory response.
C)induce amnesia.
D)prevent blood clot formation.
Q3) Which one of the following classifications of hormones is sympathomimetic?
A)Steroids
B)Nonsteroids
C)Catecholamines
D)Vasoconstrictors
Q4) Drugs that relieve symptoms of a condition but do not cure it are A)palliative.
B)recombinant.
C)androgen.
D)asymptomatic.

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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the onset of Coumadin?
A)2 or more days
B)8 to 12 days
C)16 to 24 hours
D)12 to 72 hours
Q2) Which one of the following agents is a chemical hemostatic?
A)Bone wax
B)Silver nitrate
C)Heparin
D)Vitamin K
Q3) Which form of anticoagulant is used for long-term management of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A)Parenteral
B)Oral
C)Thrombolytics
D)Factor XIII
Q4) If a blood clot is formed in an artery,which course of treatment is most likely?
A)Medical
B)Surgical
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is rarely used as a topical ophthalmic anesthetic agent?
A)Tetracaine
B)Cocaine
C)Proparacaine
D)Pontocaine
Q2) Which topical medication method is placed in the conjunctival cul-de-sac after the eye has been anesthetized?
A)Ocusert Pilo
B)Durasite
C)Ultracell Pledgets
D)BSS
Q3) Which one of the following drugs is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor?
A)Miochol
B)Osmitrol
C)Timoptic
D)Diamox
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four purposes for surgical irrigation.
Q2) Why is the secondary tubing hung higher than the primary tubing when establishing an IV on a surgical patient?
A)Because it is placed in an electronic infusion pump system
B)Because the secondary medication should infuse first
C)So that the medication can drip into the vein
D)So that the medication can move slower than the rest
Q3) What blood product is given when clotting factors are required?
A)Whole blood
B)Packed cells
C)Plasma
D)Erythrocytes
Q4) Another name for donor blood is which one of the following?
A)Homologous
B)Autologous
C)Autotransfusion
D)Synthetic
Q5) The process of collecting,processing,and reinfusing the patient's own blood is called
Q6) An example of a blood alternative is ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent recurrence of a pterygium eye growth,which agent would most likely be used?
A)Taxol
B)Toposar
C)Blenoxane
D)Mutamycin
Q2) Which of the following is not a use for antineoplastic agents?
A)Remission
B)Weight loss
C)Prolonging life
D)Palliative effects
Q3) Which newer alkylating agent can be used to treat brain tumors?
A)Cytoxan
B)Temodar
C)Folex
D)Methotrexate
Q4) Common side effects of chemotherapy are ________________.
Q5) The term that means harmful to cells is _______________.
Q6) An abnormal growth of body cells is called a _______________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ranitidine (Zantac)
A)Antacid
B)Anticholinergic
C)Antiemetic
D)Opioid analgesic
E)Sedative
Q2) Meperidine (Demerol)
A)Antacid
B)Anticholinergic
C)Antiemetic
D)Opioid analgesic
E)Sedative
Q3) Atropine (Atropine)
A)Antacid
B)Anticholinergic
C)Antiemetic
D)Opioid analgesic
E)Sedative
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brand name for bupivacaine is
A)Carbocaine.
B)Marcaine.
C)Novocaine.
D)Xylocaine.
Q2) Topical administration of 4% cocaine solution for a septoplasty is an example of a _______________ anesthetic.
A)block
B)general
C)local
D)regional
Q3) Which of the following patients would be the best candidate for monitoring by a registered nurse under local anesthesia?
A)Mentally challenged patient
B)10-month-old infant for circumcision
C)25 year old with pacemaker
D)82 year old for total knee repair
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Q1) Neostigmine (Prostigmin)
A)Barbiturate
B)Depolarizing muscle relaxant
C)Hypnotic agent
D)Inhalation anesthetic
E)Nondepolarizing muscle relaxant
F)Opioid analgesic
G)Reversal agent
H)Sedative
Q2) Which one of the following statements is not true of Pentothal?
A)It is the most commonly used barbiturate.
B)It is rapidly processed by the brain.
C)It is an effective analgesic.
D)The generic form is thiopental.
Q3) A surgical patient,who is morbidly obese and has a history of GERD,may be intubated by using
A)fiberoptic endotracheal intubation.
B)nasal intubation.
C)laryngeal masked airway.
D)endotracheal tube.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first-line medications used to treat cardiac arrest are
A)vasopressin and inotrope.
B)dopamine and vasopressin.
C)amiodarone and epinephrine.
D)epinephrine and inotrope.
Q2) Measurement of inspired and expired carbon dioxide concentrations is which one of the following terms?
A)Urticaria
B)Capnography
C)Pyrexia
D)Desaturation
Q3) Impaired breathing due to constriction and inflammation of the bronchi is known as A)bronchospasm.
B)laryngospasm.
C)anaphylaxis.
D)malignant hyperthermia.
Q4) List the six treatment steps for MH.
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