Perioperative Nursing Test Questions
Course Introduction
Perioperative Nursing focuses on the essential principles and practices involved in providing care to patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. The course covers topics such as patient assessment and preparation, infection control, surgical asepsis, the roles and responsibilities of the perioperative nurse, intraoperative and postoperative care, pain management, and the collaboration required within the multidisciplinary surgical team. Emphasizing patient safety, communication, and critical thinking, this course prepares students to deliver high-quality, evidence-based care throughout the surgical experience, addressing both routine and emergency situations in the perioperative environment.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25509
Sample Questions
Q1) Entry-level education for perioperative practice prepares nurses to be A)urologists.
B)orthopedists.
C)neurologists.
D)generalists.
Answer: D
Q2) The term educator refers to the person responsible for planning,implementing,and evaluating the learner's experiences in the classroom and clinical setting.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Not everyone learns at the same speed or attains information in the same manner.Knowing how a student learns will help the educator come up with the right
A)answer
B)environment
C)teaching methods
D)learning styles
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who is responsible for documenting the final counts at the end of the case as correct or incorrect?
A)Scrub person
B)Surgeon
C)Anesthesiologist
D)Circulating nurse
Answer: D
Q2) What documentation goes into the patient's chart and becomes part of the permanent record?
A)Specimen results
B)Intraoperative notes only
C)All routine and individualized care
D)Physical changes
Answer: C
Q3) Failure of a caregiver to provide accountability is considered negligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Professional associations do not recommend that health care workers carry professional liability insurance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A)Identify with the loss
B)Identify those responsible for the patient death
C)Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis
D)Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team
Answer: A
Q3) When a mishap occurs in patient care,the cause of the event is compared with other cases similar to that one.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional
Credentialing
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A perioperative nurse may initially obtain a CNOR certification
A)after being in clinical preoperative practice for 1 year.
B)after working 5 years in the intensive care unit setting.
C)once he or she has passed a national exam set forth by CCI.
D)after reading five AORN journal articles and precepting five new perioperative employees.
Q2) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
Q3) The term anesthetist refers to a qualified RN,anesthesiologist assistant (AA),dentist,or physician who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Directing the activities of all learners is the role of the A)surgeon.
B)first assistant.
C)anesthesiologist.
D)circulating nurse.
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a type of surgical hazard?
A)Biologic
B)Psychological
C)Social
D)Biomedical
Q2) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the
A)one-handed tie.
B)freehanded tie.
C)stapling
D)backhanded tie.
Q3) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q4) It is in the scope of the surgical technologists practice to hold retractors if asked by the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which communication tool involves being continually vigilant for progress or regression of goals?
A)SBAR
B)Team STEPPS
C)Hands-free communication
D)STEP
Q2) Which is the responsibility of the central processing department?
A)Biomedical testing
B)Biohazard material transport
C)Distributing supplies
D)Linen storage
Q3) An advanced practice nurse uses specialized ________________ and _____________ to make decisions relative to direct and indirect patient care in the perioperative environment.
Q4) The perioperative nurse manager must have a strong knowledge of the OR,management,nursing theory,and practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A)Caring
B)Self-care
C)Adaptation
D)Transition
Q2) The body of a patient who dies in the OR or dies as a result of a crime becomes the property of the
A)hospital.
B)police department.
C)patient's family.
D)coroner.
Q3) What is one step a circulator can take when treating a patient who does not speak the same language being used in the operating room?
A)Speak loud and slow to the patient
B)Write all instructions on paper for patient or family to read
C)Use an interpreter to share information
D)Insist that the patient understands basic instructions before entering the OR
Q4) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shunt is placed when attempting to drain fluid from the ventricles to the right atrium of the heart?
A)Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
B)Ventriculoamniotic shunt
C)Ventriculoatrial shunt
D)Ventriculocoronary shunt
Q2) In the school-aged child,the most common cause for an abdominal surgical procedure is
A)obstructive stomach lesion.
B)bezoars.
C)appendicitis.
D)intussusception.
Q3) Neonates,infants,and children have a wider average body temperature than adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Anorectal malformation occurs during what weeks of fetal development?
A)13th to 16th weeks
B)4th to 12th weeks
C)3rd to 6th weeks
D)17th to 20th weeks
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is important to assess for multiple vaginal births in an older adult female patient because that data could indicate
A)uterine and bladder prolapse.
B)ovarian cancer.
C)number of children.
D)presence of a pessary.
Q2) The perioperative nurse should asses the activity level of the patient.What should be considered?
A)Improved memory
B)Improved hearing ability
C)Age
D)Activities of daily living (ADLs)
Q3) What does the term geriatric mean?
A)Not independent anymore
B)Over the age of 80
C)Living in a nursing home
D)Older than 65
Q4) Subcutaneous fat deposits increase with age.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what room might a laparoscopic cholecystectomy be performed?
A)Endoscopy room
B)Interventional radiography room
C)Minimally invasive surgery room
D)Cystoscopy room
Q2) Which is an equipment item commonly found in each OR?
A)PYXIS medication machine
B)Mayo stand
C)Crash cart
D)Scrub sink
Q3) How many clocks should be in each OR?
A)At least three
B)One
C)Two
D)None
Q4) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The OR temperature should be maintained within a range of _________________ to___ ° F and _________________to_____% humidity.(Insert numbers only.)
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area would NOT be found in an ambulatory surgery setting?
A)Preprocedural testing and assessment area
B)Preoperative holding area
C)Intensive care unit
D)Waiting room
Q2) Patients should receive preoperative instructions only when at their preadmission visit to the ASC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is one reason a patient might be admitted to a hospital after undergoing a procedure at an ambulatory surgical center (ASC)?
A)Severe complications such as anesthetic or cardiac changes.
B)The patient does not have proper transportation to the home setting.
C)The patient might experience nausea and vomiting.
D)The patient wants to utilize their insurance benefits efficiently.
Q4) Emergency equipment is not kept at the ASC; an outside facility would have to be called to perform CPR.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Turnover time is the time it takes to complete the surgery schedule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If sterile supplies for a case were opened at 1:00 PM with the room under surveillance,and the case did not begin until 3:30 PM,the sterile items would be contaminated because of the 2-hour delay of the case.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Knife blades should be removed using a heavy hemostat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which activity is incorrect for the scrub person to perform?
A)Discarding contaminated waste
B)Disposing of sharps safely
C)Pulling drapes off patient
D)Removing tissue and blood from instruments
Q5) Patients with known respiratory-borne diseases are treated the same as all other patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is all right to use the electrosurgical unit (ESU)near the rectum after the rectum has been packed with a moist sponge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which chemical sterilizing agent is the least toxic but has fumes that can be irritating to the eyes,nose,and throat?
A)Formaldehyde
B)Ethylene oxide
C)Glutaraldehyde
D)Phenol
Q3) Which agency sets standards for the disposal of infectious and hazardous waste in the OR setting?
A)Association of periOperative Registered Nurses (AORN)
B)The Joint Commission (TJC)
C)U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D)Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Resident flora aid in the synthesis of vitamins and folic acid while in the large intestine but may cause an infection if relocated to a surgical incision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is an example of a helminthic disease?
A)Parasites
B)Blood-borne flukes
C)Influenza
D)Iatrogenic Creutzfeldt-Jakob
Q3) Why would a broad-spectrum antibiotic drug be given before a surgical procedure?
A)To allow development of a super-resistant bacteria
B)To cover any potential surgical contamination
C)For procedures associated with high risk of infection
D)To assess for any sensitivity or allergic reaction
Q4) Stomach acid provides what line of defense?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the margin of safety regarding the inside of a sterile package?
A)The inside is considered sterile to within 1 inch of the edges.
B)The inside is considered sterile to within 11/2 inches of the edges.
C)The inside is considered sterile to within 2 inches of the edges.
D)The inside is sterile to the edge of the package.
Q2) If a sterile package wrapped in an absorbent material barrier becomes wet or damp,what should you do?
A)Wipe it off, and then open it when the outer package is completely dry.
B)Use it as is because it was sterilized at one time.
C)Do not use because of the moisture that may have seeped into the package and contaminated it.
D)If it was sterilized less than 2 weeks ago, it is acceptable to use it.
Q3) The facility recommends that each caregiver only use one mask per day to save money.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is important to wash hands before entering the OR and after every patient contact.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a type of personal protective equipment (PPE)used in the OR setting?
A)Scrub jacket
B)Eyeglasses
C)Gloves
D)Scrub top
Q2) What is one reason sterile gloves must cover the knitted cuffs on a sterile gown?
A)It is aesthetically pleasing to see only the glove and not the cuff.
B)The cuff is very likely going to tear and expose the bare wrist.
C)The cuffs are not fluid impervious.
D)The cuffs of a sterile gown are never long enough to cover the wrist adequately.
Q3) A glove-to-glove then skin-to-skin technique is used to remove gloves and protect hands from the outer surface of the contaminated gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The purpose of wearing OR attire is to maintain uniformity among the operative team.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The surgical services central processing department (CPD or SPD)is usually located close to the main OR to minimize the potential for cross-contamination of soiled and clean instruments and supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For a chemical disinfectant to be labeled for use in a hospital,it should be effective against which organisms?
A)Viruses
B)Pseudomonas
C)Pseudomonas, Staphylococcus aureus, and salmonella
D)Gram negative bacteria only
Q3) Which is a disadvantage of using ultraviolet (UV)irradiation as a means of disinfection?
A)The rays can kill selective vegetative bacteria, fungi, and lipoprotein viruses.
B)UV rays may cause skin burns.
C)UV rays produce nonionizing radiant energy.
D)Pathogens have effective contact with the UV rays for destruction.
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19
Chapter 18: Sterilization
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does Sterrad sterilization work?
A)Items don't need to be thoroughly rinsed before use.
B)They have low volatility.
C)It works by a strong vacuum.
D)Aeration is needed.
Q2) ______ sterilization is the type of sterilization used when instruments are needed for immediate use.
A)Flash
B)Terminal
C)Aeration
D)Hydrogen peroxide
Q3) Which is a disadvantage of steam sterilization?
A)Steam leaves a harmful residue on instruments.
B)Items need to be clean and free of grease.
C)Steam is expensive and not easily supplied.
D)Steam's total time cycle is the longest of all methods.
Q4) A closed-container system with moisture in the closed tray is considered unsterile and contaminated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A number 10,11,or 15 blade is the most commonly used blade to make initial skin incisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At the end of the surgical procedure,in what solution should the instruments be soaked?
A)Hydrogen peroxide
B)Sterile distilled water
C)Saline solution
D)Tap water
Q3) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
Q4) Wait until the end of the procedure to wipe and clean instruments of blood or bodily fluids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Instruments used in or near the laser beam should be reflective to enhance the laser's effect on the tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a responsibility of the biomedical laser technician?
A)Prepare and teach the patient intraoperatively.
B)Check the laser equipment brought into the OR.
C)Cover windows and provide appropriate eyewear.
D)Provide preventive maintenance of the laser periodically.
Q3) Which part of the body must be protected when using lasers?
A)The patient's eyes
B)The laser has minimal effect on tissue.
C)The caregiver's eyes
D)The caregiver's eyes and the patient's eyes, skin, and respiratory tract
Q4) Why should laser plume be suctioned and evacuated during a surgical procedure?
A)Laser plume increases the temperature in the OR.
B)The smoke may cause blindness.
C)Laser plume reduces visibility at the surgical site.
D)The electromagnetic waves created by plume may cause brain death.
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a level of preoperative teaching?
A)Psychosocial support
B)Nursing diagnosis
C)Preoperative class
D)Empathy
Q2) Once the patient has entered the OR,he or she is sedated enough so as not to be cognizant of what is happening,so it is acceptable for the circulating nurse to remain on the other side of the room attending to paperwork and staying away from the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Today,patients are usually admitted on the same day of their surgery and are given preoperative instructions on an outpatient basis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient may be instructed not to eat any solid food or drink liquids after midnight. A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a secondary small bowel tumor is removed and positive lymph nodes and signs of metastases in the liver are found,how would the tumor be identified?
A)T N M
B)T N M
C)T N M
D)T N M
Q2) What form of nuclear imaging emits positrons,causing gamma rays to be discharged?
A)MRI
B)PET
C)Ultrasound
D)Fluoroscopy
Q3) What type of infusion device has a reservoir that is implanted within a subcutaneous pocket?
A)Intraperitoneal catheter
B)Hickman catheter
C)Groshong catheter
D)Subcutaneous infusion port
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are sources of drugs derived from?
A)Plant sources
B)Mineral sources
C)Biological sources
D)All of the above
Q2) Herbal supplements are not regulated by the FDA and may cause serious problems if medical and anesthesia providers do not know a patient is taking these products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of vial or container requires the use of a filter needle when withdrawing the medication from it?
A)Peel-pack
B)Unit dose tube of cream or ointment
C)Glass ampule
D)Multidose tube of cream or ointment
Q4) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an inhalation agent that is administered via facemask for a comfortable,rapid induction?
A)Desflurane
B)Nitrous oxide
C)Thiopental sodium
D)Propofol
Q2) Which drug may be added to local anesthetic agents to lower pH?
A)Bupivacaine
B)Sodium bicarbonate
C)Antihistamines
D)Isuprel
Q3) Which is a drug used to produce hypotension?
A)Nitroglycerin
B)Lactated Ringer's solution
C)Epinephrine
D)Vasopressin
Q4) A spinal headache is caused by persistent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)leaking through the dura.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a surgeon is working deep within the peritoneal cavity,what is the best choice of sponge to hand up?
A)A Ray-Tec sponge
B)A laparotomy tape
C)A pattie
D)2 ´ 2 gauze sponge
Q2) What instrument should be immediately handed up after a suture ligature is passed to the surgeon?
A)A Kelly clamp
B)ESU pencil
C)Scissors
D)Mahoney dilator
Q3) It is acceptable to open sterile supplies into a rigid container because all the edges are sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nurse should anticipate the needs of the surgeon and try to stay one step ahead.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is in the lateral position,what positioning aid is used to prevent pressure on the bony prominences,blood vessels,and nerves?
A)IV bag
B)Sand bags
C)Pillow
D)Antiembolic stocking
Q2) What normal capillary interface pressure should be maintained to prevent pressure injuries?
A)10-15 mm Hg
B)15-20 mm Hg
C)23-32 mm Hg
D)35-40 mm Hg
Q3) What piece of equipment will assist in hyperextending the neck during a procedure on the face or neck?
A)Donut head rest
B)Surgical head light
C)Stockinette roll
D)Shoulder roll
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28
Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When sending an arterial blood gas sample to the laboratory for analysis,never place the specimen on ice because that will cause the sample to coagulate and not be usable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the normal hourly urinary output?
A)5 to 10 mL/hr
B)10 to 20 mL/hr
C)30 to 60 mL/hr
D)Greater than 30 to 60 mL/hr
Q3) Cardiac output (CO)is measured to determine how many liters the right aorta pumps into the left ventricle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a type of data that can be obtained from pulmonary artery monitoring?
A)Urine pH
B)Pulse oximetry
C)Urine output
D)Right atrial pressure
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one necessary specification of all suture materials?
A)Must be sterile when placed in tissue
B)As large a diameter as possible must be used to ensure proper hold
C)Removal must occur within 7 to 10 days postoperatively
D)Must be greatly reactive to skin and tissue to be effective
Q2) What is another name for a suture ligature?
A)Tie on a passer
B)Stick tie
C)Free tie
D)Kittner
Q3) Which is the outermost,top layer of skin?
A)Stratus layer
B)Cuticular layer
C)Epidermis layer
D)Subcutaneous layer
Q4) Which statement is true regarding suture knot tying?
A)Place the knot in a noticeable spot.
B)Tie the knot toward a weak blood supply.
C)Tie the knot toward a vital structure.
D)Tie the knot away from a potential irritant such as the nares.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is a nasogastric tube inserted during an intraabdominal procedure?
A)To insert tube feeding contents
B)To insert air into esophagus
C)To aspirate stomach contents
D)To cauterize bleeding in stomach
Q2) Which layers of skin are cut into during the initial skin incision?
A)Glabrous and hairy
B)Epidermis and dermis
C)Fascia and epidermis
D)Adipose and fascia
Q3) What is the most important condition to promote wound healing?
A)Stop smoking
B)Young age
C)Nutritional status
D)Oxygenation of tissue
Q4) One main cause of wound dehiscence is
A)obesity.
B)wound infection.
C)overextended bladder.
D)perforated bowel.
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Report to the PACU nurse is given by
A)the circulating nurse.
B)the OR charge nurse.
C)the scrub person.
D)the OR scheduling office.
Q2) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q3) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When does the postoperative phase begin?
A)As soon as the surgery is over
B)When report is given
C)When the patient is admitted to the postoperative area
D)When the patient is home
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What may develop postoperatively if a patient cannot mobilize their secretions?
A)Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
B)Tuberculosis
C)COPD
D)Extreme pain
Q2) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the recommended IV dose of dantrolene to be given in a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)1 mg/kg every minute until temperature is within normal limits
B)2 to 3 mg/kg in an initial IV bolus and repeat every 5 to 10 minutes
C)10 mg/kg initially and every 5 minutes until muscles relax
D)10 to 20 mg/kg every 5 minutes until temperature stabilizes
Q4) Which is a way to cool a patient's body during a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)Pour frozen distilled water into surgical wound.
B)Decrease temperature of OR suite.
C)Administer iced normal saline intravenously.
D)Lavage the bladder with cooled fluids.
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which trocar has an exposed tip shaped like a pyramid or cone?
A)Blunt
B)Sharp
C)Shielded
D)Initial
Q2) A Veress needle is used to create access into the peritoneal cavity with the closed method.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fluid can be used as an expansion media for creating working space while using a scope.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For what reason may a hand-assisted access sleeve be used in a laparoscopic procedure?
A)To keep the surgeon's hands warm during the procedure
B)To allow insertion of the surgeon's hand to palpate or grasp an organ
C)To place pressure on a vessel that is bleeding
D)To lose the peritoneum and convert to an open procedure
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zenker's diverticula are pockets or pouches formed at the distal end of the esophagus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which two structures are ligated with hemostatic clips and divided during gallbladder surgery?
A)Common bile duct and hepatic duct
B)Hepatic duct and cystic artery
C)Cystic duct and cystic artery
D)Pancreatic duct and hepatic duct
Q3) Once the abdominal cavity is entered,all free 4 ´ 4 sponges should be removed from the field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is the most common site for a pancreatic tumor?
A)Fundus of pancreas
B)Head of pancreas
C)Islets of Langerhans
D)Acini
Q5) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anterior colporrhaphy or Kelly procedure is performed to prevent stress incontinence or urine leakage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a part of the female external genitalia that make up the vulva?
A)Labia majora
B)Fallopian tubes
C)Cervix
D)Bilateral ovaries
Q3) What procedure is a true obstetric-gynecologic emergency?
A)Cervical dysplasia
B)Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
C)Vaginal delivery
D)Planned C-section
Q4) The perineum forms the base of the pelvic floor and helps support the posterior vaginal wall.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What anatomic structure may be viewed through a cystoscopy?
A)Kidney
B)Renal vein
C)Renal pelvis
D)Bladder
Q2) Which is the working unit of the kidney?
A)Nephron
B)Renal pyramid
C)Ureter
D)Renin
Q3) What is created when both ureters are anastomosed to the terminal ileum?
A)Colostomy
B)Ileal conduit
C)Nephrostomy
D)Cutaneous ureterostomy
Q4) Which is a common postoperative complication after urologic surgery?
A)Joint pain
B)Wound dehiscence
C)Headache
D)Oliguria
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Displacement of a joint
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Cortex
H)Arthrodesis
I)Dislocation
J)Compartment syndrome
Q2) Laminar airflow is used to create an ultraclean environment for orthopedic surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of laser may be used via an arthroscope?
A)Diode
B)Argon
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Ruby
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a potential risk of placing a patient in a semi-Fowler's position?
A)Hearing loss
B)Air embolism
C)Urinary retention
D)Hypercapnia
Q2) Which is a reason for performing a thalamotomy?
A)To increase vision
B)To control hyperthermia
C)To relieve seizure activity
D)To repair a neural defect
Q3) Which is a layer of the meninges?
A)Cerebral mater
B)Frontal mater
C)Dura mater
D)Temporal mater
Q4) Mannitol is given to increase intracranial pressure (ICP)in patients with intracranial hemorrhage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure is necessary and urgent when pressure on the spinal cord causes symptoms?
A)Vertebral alignment
B)Lumpectomy
C)Decompression
D)Discectomy
Q2) Which of the following body systems can be affected by scoliosis?
A)Reproductive system
B)Respiratory system
C)Genitourinary system
D)Neurological system
Q3) Which type of cautery is commonly used during spine surgery?
A)Handheld cautery
B)Tripolar cautery
C)Bipolar cautery
D)Monopolar cautery
Q4) A hemangioblastoma is a vascular tumor more commonly found in the cervical or thoracic area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What procedure removes scar tissue from the cornea with an excimer laser?
A)Refractive keratoplasty
B)Phototherapeutic keratoplasty
C)Radial keratotomy
D)Keratophakia
Q2) The two segments of the eyeball include superior and inferior segments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What procedure removes a damaged cornea and replaces it with a human donor cornea?
A)Dacryocystorhinostomy
B)Keratoplasty
C)Evisceration
D)Vitrectomy
Q4) What type of retinal detachment occurs when a hole in the retina is present?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Tertiary
D)Quaternary
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an advantage to using a biologic dressing before a wound is ready for an autograft?
A)Decreases the amount of developing granulation tissue
B)Stimulates nerve endings and increases tactile sensation to wound
C)Increases and maintains the amount of serum created within the wound
D)Controls infection by covering denuded areas of the wound
Q2) Which cream helps make dressing removal less painful for the burn patient when applied directly to the area burned?
A)Sulfonamide acetate
B)Silver centrate
C)Silver sulfadiazine
D)Sulfa methotrexate
Q3) What necessary environmental controls must be considered when caring for a severe burn patient?
A)Know preexisting medical history
B)Keep skin exposed to air
C)Let family visit to distract them from pain
D)Increase room temperature and practice reverse isolation
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a diagnostic tool used to determine the extent of a craniofacial deformity?
A)MRI
B)CT scan
C)Manual sketches of the facial formations
D)PET scan
Q2) Primary hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by which lab result?
A)High potassium
B)High vitamin D
C)Hypercalcemia (high calcium)
D)Anemia
Q3) Which procedure removes the anterior frontal sinus wall through an external excision above the eye?
A)Osteoplastic flap procedure
B)Caldwell-Luc procedure
C)Killian procedure
D)Turbinectomy
Q4) Otorhinolaryngology is the surgical treatment of the ear,nose,and throat.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an effective treatment for a spontaneous pneumothorax?
A)Chest radiograph
B)Radiation followed by chemotherapy
C)Pleurodesis
D)Thymectomy
Q2) Which is a factor that influences the choice of incisions for thoracic surgery?
A)Patient age
B)Surgeon preference
C)Intrapleural pressure
D)Hemodynamic quality
Q3) Which lung has three lobes and a straighter bronchus?
A)Left
B)Right lower
C)Left lower
D)Right
Q4) Which is a reason for inserting an airway stent?
A)Alternative to endotracheal intubation
B)Palliative care for obstruction of neoplasm
C)To prevent postoperative bleeding
D)To assist with laser use in the thoracic cavity
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaporizes plaque or thrombus
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) What describes the use of solution delivered through a catheter during cardiac surgery?
A)MRI
B)Defibrillator
C)Argon beam coagulator
D)Cardioplegia
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serious immediate complication of peripheral vascular surgery requires an immediate return to the OR?
A)Pain
B)Hypertension
C)Thrombus
D)Hypotension
Q2) Which is a potential serious complication of a carotid endarterectomy?
A)Keloid scar formation
B)Brain injury due to embolized plaque
C)Inflammation due to scar formation
D)Anaphylactic reaction to thrombin
Q3) Which characteristic is true of the ideal vena cava filter?
A)Low filtration
B)Low cost
C)Large caliber insertion device
D)Magnetic
Q4) Veins are more difficult to anastomose and are more likely to occlude than arteries when used as a graft.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Donor is also the recipient of the tissue
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q2) Orthoclone OKT3 and cyclosporine are two types of immunosuppressive agents that do not affect the entire immune system when given to prevent and treat allograft rejection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) People with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)cannot receive a transplanted organ or tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A child awaiting a liver transplant requires a liver donated by a child because of patient size and surface area of the liver.
A)True
B)False
Page 47
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