

Perioperative Nursing Test Bank
Course Introduction
Perioperative Nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice that focuses on providing comprehensive care to patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. This course covers the assessment and preparation of patients for surgery, intraoperative care including aseptic techniques and patient safety, and postoperative monitoring and management to prevent complications and promote recovery. Students will learn about surgical instruments, operating room protocols, pain management, infection control, and the critical role of interdisciplinary communication. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, patient advocacy, and evidence-based practices to ensure optimal surgical outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Surgical Procedures 1st Edition by Jane
C. Rothrock

Available Study Resources on Quizplus
18 Chapters
356 Verified Questions
356 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2110 Page 2

Chapter 1: Importance of the Surgical Technologist on the Surgical Team
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42048
Sample Questions
Q1) Which role of the surgical technologist would likely include making hospital rounds, first-assisting, and expanded patient interaction?
A)scrub surgical technologist
B)circulating surgical technologist
C)labor and delivery technologist
D)private scrub technologist
Answer: D
Q2) A set of guidelines for professional advancement and recognition within an institution or department through the use of an AST-established set of performance-based evaluation and advancement criteria is also known as:
A)clinical ladder
B)continuum of care
C)core curriculum
D)crew management model
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42049
Sample Questions
Q1) Exposure of intra-abdominal anatomy is crucial to safe surgery and employs varied instruments, applications of highly technical energy sources, patient manipulations, light, and imaging. What is unique to the laparoscopic approach that promotes exposure?
A)Self-retaining retractors
B)Automatic rod-lens fiberscope
C)Carbon dioxide pneumoperitoneum
D)Endoscopic fan blades
Answer: C
Q2) Which statement about the McBurney incision is most correct?
A)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the left lower quadrant.
B)It is the incision of choice to repair a direct inguinal hernia.
C)It is an oblique inguinal incision in the right lower quadrant.
D)The direction is more transverse than oblique.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas and Spleen
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42050
Sample Questions
Q1) Matthew Ryan, a 9-year-old boy, is admitted to the emergency department for a sledding accident, when he lost control of his sled and crashed into a tree. He is pale and in pain; his abdomen is tender and firm to palpation. The CT scan suggests rupture of the spleen with internal bleeding. Matthew's scheduled surgery will most probably be a(n):
A)laparoscopic splenic resection with sutured mesh overlay.
B)open splenic lobectomy with vascular ligation.
C)open total splenectomy.
D)open splenic repair with sutured anastomosis and argon plasma coagulation vessel sealing.
Answer: C
Q2) The functional units of the liver are the lobules. The functional cells of the liver are the ______________ and they manufacture _______________.
A)Kupffer cells; phagocytes
B)sinusoid cells; lymphocytes
C)hepatocytes; bile
D)portal triad cells; ductal epithelium
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Repair of Hernias
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42051
Sample Questions
Q1) Charles Wilkins had a laparoscopic hernia repair with good results and an uneventful recovery. Weeks later, as he reviewed his hospital bill, he noted that he had been charged for a very expensive preperitoneal distention balloon, polypropylene mesh, an endomechanical stapler, and three endosurgical trocars. What hernia repair technique was probably performed on Charles?
A)TAPP repair
B)Laparoscopic Bassini repair
C)TEP repair
D)Mesh-plug insertion repair
Q2) An example of a common postoperative complication related to inguinal hernia surgery is:
A)delayed return to activity.
B)delayed healing.
C)postoperative adhesions.
D)hernia recurrence.
Q3) What composes the lining of a herniated abdominal sac?
A)Fascia
B)Peritoneum
C)Muscularis
D)Rectus abdominis muscle
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Chapter 5: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42052
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the congenital anomaly that best reflects indications for fetal surgery.
A)Imperforate anus
B)Tracheoesophageal fistula
C)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
D)Nonobstructive uropathy
Q2) Ova travel through the fallopian tubes toward the uterus by which type of action?
A)Peristalsis
B)Gravity
C)Brownian motion
D)Intra-abdominal pressure
Q3) When catheterizing the female patient, the urethra must be located. The correct order of the external organs of the vulva listed anterior to posterior is:
A)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, urethra, clitoris, vaginal opening.
B)labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening, mons pubis.
C)mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, urethra, vaginal opening.
D)labia majora, labia minora, urethra, mons pubis, clitoris, vaginal opening.
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Chapter 6: Genitourinary Surgery
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42053
Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are highly vascular organs. Approximately how much of the entire circulating blood volume do the kidneys process at any one time?
A)One fifth
B)1 ml per kg body weight
C)One third
D)30 ml per hour
Q2) The renal artery and vein enter and exit the kidney on the medial side of the organ through a concave area known as the: A)calyces.
B)pedicle.
C)hilum.
D)renal pelvis.
Q3) Although each potential kidney transplant recipient is judged individually as a candidate, which condition from the list below would most likely eliminate a patient as a candidate for kidney transplant?
A)Systemic disease
B)Cardiovascular disease
C)Post-treatment cancer in remission
D)Active cancer
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42054
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient having a subtotal thyroidectomy for tracheal or esophageal obstruction is best served by a surgical team that recognizes and is prepared for patients who are at risk for difficult intubation. An example of a postoperative patient care management plan is:
A)monitor the patient closely for airway difficulty.
B)prevent coughing.
C)support the neck during movement.
D)prevent postoperative nausea and vomiting.
Q2) Thyroid surgery is considered surgery of the head and neck. There is a high risk for surgical fires because of the proximity of all three components of the fire triangle. Select the statement that best reflects an appropriate nursing action to prevent a surgical fire.
A)Include the fire risk score during the time-out briefing.
B)Prevent prep solution from pooling under the patient's head, neck, and shoulders.
C)Permit the prep solution to dry before draping.
D)All the options are risk reduction considerations.
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9

Chapter 8: Breast Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42055
Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that best describes fine needle aspiration of a suspicious breast mass.
A)The aspirate fluid is cytologically examined.
B)The aspirate fluid is histologically examined by frozen section.
C)The aspirate fluid is microscopically examined immediately by the procedural physician.
D)If the aspirate fluid is positive, the excisional biopsy can be done immediately.
Q2) Breast screening guidelines are developed and published by the American Cancer Society (ACS) for asymptomatic women of various age and risk groups. Select the statement that best reflects the ACS guidelines for women at high risk for breast cancer.
A)Biannual mammography with two views of each breast and clinical breast exam
B)An individualized screening plan
C)Biannual clinical breast exam, mammography, and bimonthly breast self-exam
D)Annual mammography, ultrasonography, and MRI with CT
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Chapter 9: Ophthalmic Surgery
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42056
Sample Questions
Q1) A wide range of equipment is used in ophthalmic surgery. The perioperative team's knowledge of proper operation should be confirmed through inservice education and training specific to new equipment, plus demonstrated competency. To ensure patient safety and appropriate function and application of surgical devices, which statement best reflects recommended practice when using complex biomedical equipment?
A)Use the device according to the manufacturer's directions and test for proper performance before the patient enters the OR.
B)Follow the policy and procedure of the facility and/or unit, and request biomedical support.
C)Request assistance and technical support from the appropriate vendor representative; encourage the vendor to operate the device or equipment, or request biomedical support.
D)Follow the explanation and demonstration as originally provided by the preceptor during orientation.
Q2) Evisceration
A)Removal of the eye contents with sclera and muscles left intact
B)Removal of the entire orbital contents, including the periosteum
C)Removal of the entire globe, severing muscular attachments and optic nerve
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Chapter 10: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42057
Sample Questions
Q1) Oral malignancies can be linked to specific carcinogens, the most important one being tobacco. Benign or malignant lesions of the tongue, floor of the mouth, alveolar ridge, buccal mucosa, or tonsillar area are excised depending on the extensiveness of disease, involvement of surrounding vessels and nerves, and candidacy for surgery. Benign or small malignant tumors of the oral cavity may be excised without a neck dissection. What indicator would prompt the surgeon to perform a neck dissection for benign or small malignant tumors?
A)Evidence of disease in the upper lymphatic chain
B)Suspicious metastatic disease
C)Presence of diagnosed malignancy
D)All of the options would be indications for neck dissection
Q2) The supraglottis, glottis, and the subglottis represent three portions of which structure of the throat?
A)Epiglottis
B)Tongue
C)Larynx
D)Pharynx
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Page 12

Chapter 11: Orthopedic Surgery
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42058
Sample Questions
Q1) Osteoporosis is one of the most common and serious of bone diseases and is responsible for more than 2 million fractures a year. Osteoporosis-related fractures most commonly occur in the hip, spine, and wrist, but any bone can be affected. The excessive reduction of total bone mass in osteoporosis is due to the loss of:
A)calcified matrix and collagenous fibers.
B)exercise and weight-bearing physical activity.
C)estrogen and testosterone.
D)calcium or vitamin D.
Q2) Layer of elastic, resilient supporting tissue found at the ends of the bones
A)Ligaments
B)Tendons
C)Cartilage
Q3) Fibrin network formation
Q4) The rotator cuff consists of which group of muscles?
A)Deltoid, teres major, and teres minor
B)Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis
C)Latissimus dorsi, deltoid, and teres major
D)Supraspinatus, subscapularis, pectoralis major, and deltoid
Q5) Remodeling
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Chapter 12: Neurosurgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42059
Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of paired spinal nerves is responsible for sensory functions?
A)Anterior root
B)Dermatomes
C)Posterior root
D)Pyramidal tracts
Q2) Which of the following represents an intractable pain condition of the fifth (V) cranial nerve, also called tic douloureux, often treated with gamma knife radiosurgery, percutaneous rhizotomy, radiosurgery, or posterior fossa microvascular decompression?
A)Bell's palsy
B)Sciatica
C)Trigeminal neuralgia
D)AV malformation
Q3) Which chemical hemostatic agent comes in compressed and noncompressed sheets and is often cut into various sizes soaked with topical thrombin and placed on oozing surfaces during neurosurgical procedures?
A)Bone wax
B)FloSeal
C)Gelfoam
D)Surgicel
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Chapter 13: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42060
Sample Questions
Q1) There are approximately 1 million reported cases of skin cancer per year with the majority being the highly curable basal or squamous cell cancers, accounting for more than 50% of all cancers. Not as common is the most serious skin cancer, malignant melanoma, with an estimated 68,720 cases per year. Select the individual who is at the highest risk for skin cancer.
A)An African-American outdoor sportsman and airline pilot
B)A fair-complected surfer and beach lifeguard who wears sunblock-protective clothing
C)A fair-complected person testing positive for exposure to human papillomavirus
D)A dark-complected person testing positive for human immunodeficiency virus
Q2) A variety of implantable devices are used in aesthetic and reconstructive plastic surgery procedures. Tracking of these devices is critical to patient safety. Institutions must report any incident of death or serious injury relating to the use of a medical device. What regulatory agency, commission, or act mandates this process when medical devices fail or cause injury?
A)The Joint Commission agency for sentinel events
B)Original Equipment Manufacturer Device Tracking Commission
C)Food and Drug Administration Device Failure and Recall Act
D)Safe Medical Device Act
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Chapter 14: Thoracic Surgery
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42061
Sample Questions
Q1) Direct visualization of the mucosa of the trachea, the main bronchi and their openings, and most of the segmental bronchi may also include the removal of material for microscopic study, and is an integral part of the examination of patients with pulmonary symptoms such as persistent cough or wheezing, hemoptysis, obstruction, and abnormal roentgenographic changes. What diagnostic modality has been described?
A)Standard bronchoscopy
B)Flexible bronchoscopy
C)Rigid bronchoscopy
D)All bronchoscopic approaches apply
Q2) The perioperative team will need to collaborate with the anesthesia provider, since continuous hemodynamic monitoring, oximetry, and ventricular function assessment by transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) are all performed intraoperatively. Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) may also be required. Select all the procedures from the list below for which these preparations are indicated.
A)Donor harvesting
B)Living-related single-lung transplant
C)Cadaveric single-lung transplant
D)Double-lung transplant
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Page 16

Chapter 15: Vascular Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42062
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with acute arterial insufficiency with occlusion usually present with the onset of the six P's: sudden severe pain, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pallor, and poikilothermia (coolness) of an extremity. This occlusion can be the result of which condition?
A)Atrial tachycardia
B)Rupture of an unstable atherosclerotic plaque
C)Asystole
D)Hypothermia
Q2) What statement regarding risk factors for developing vascular disease is true?
A)Cigarette smoking is more of a risk factor for lung disease than vascular disease.
B)Advanced age, male gender, and family history are established risk factors for atherosclerosis.
C)A sedentary lifestyle can contribute to developing diabetes if one has atherosclerosis.
D)Arteriosclerosis is a natural part of the aging process.
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Surgery
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42063
Sample Questions
Q1) What statements regarding vascular clamps are true? Select all that apply from the options listed below.
A)Vascular clamps are designed to partially occlude blood flow.
B)Vascular clamps are designed to totally occlude blood flow.
C)All vascular clamps are designed to hold vessels securely without trauma.
D)All vascular clamps have similar angles, box locks, ring handles, and ratchets.
Q2) In the pulmonary circulatory system, blood is pumped from the right ventricle (RV) through the pulmonary valve into the main pulmonary artery (PA). The PA divides into the right and left pulmonary arteries, which further subdivide into the arterioles and capillaries of the lungs. Where does the blood from the lungs flow next?
A)Into the capillary beds
B)Into the alveoli
C)Through the pulmonary artery to the left atrium
D)Through the pulmonary veins to the left atrium
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18

Chapter 17: Pediatric Surgery
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42064
Sample Questions
Q1) An orchiopexy is the surgical placement and fixation of the testicle in a normal anatomic position in the scrotal sac. If the testis fails to descend into the scrotum during gestation, it is considered undescended. Which statement regarding indications for orchiopexy is true?
A)The normal path of the testis becomes obstructed.
B)The testis is strangulated by contraction of the cremaster muscle.
C)All testes that are undescended after 1 year require surgical placement in the scrotum.
D)Retractile testes require surgical or hormonal treatment.
Q2) Cleft lip is usually associated with a notch or cleft of the underlying alveolus and a cleft of the palate. Cleft lip repair is most often performed when the infant is about 3 months of age. Cleft lip is described as:
A)two skin ridges situated near the midline of the central philtrum of the lip.
B)absence of one or both philtral clefts with a notch in the alveolus.
C)a deficiency of tissue (skin, muscle, and mucosa) along one or both sides of the upper lip.
D)disarrangement of existing lip tissues associated with a cleft of the palate.
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Chapter 18: Trauma Surgery
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/42065
Sample Questions
Q1) Traumatic deaths may occur in three phases, or time frames. The first phase occurs immediately after the injury, the second phase within the first 1 to 2 hours after the injury, and the third phase occurs days to weeks after the injury. Approximately 30% of total fatalities from trauma could be prevented with definitive trauma care, including appropriate and aggressive resuscitation with rapid transport to an appropriate facility. Which phase, or timeframe, of potential for trauma death, does this group represent?
A)Phase I
B)Phase II
C)Phase III
D)This represents all phases of trauma, not one distinct phase.
Q2) A trauma patient is rushed to the OR after a primary survey is completed in the emergency department. He is a 36-year-old male with multiple penetrating gunshot and knife wounds to the abdomen. He is bleeding profusely. What appropriate actions are critical in the rapid preparation for this procedure?
A)Set up the autotransfusion system.
B)Prep the patient from the suprasternal notch to the mid-thigh.
C)Place the aortic cross-clamp on the Mayo stand.
D)Open a silo-bag closure system on the sterile field.
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