Perioperative Nursing Question Bank
Course Introduction
Perioperative Nursing is a specialized course that prepares nursing students to provide comprehensive care to patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. This course covers key concepts such as patient assessment, preparation for surgery, infection control, surgical asepsis, instrument handling, and monitoring of vital signs. Students learn to collaborate with surgical teams, manage operating room protocols, address potential complications, and ensure patient safety throughout the perioperative period. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, ethical considerations, communication skills, and patient advocacy to optimize surgical outcomes and enhance the quality of care across various perioperative settings.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1285 Page 2
Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25509
Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative caregiver should display attributes and communication skills that inspire confidence and trust in patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Students should have a tour of the perioperative environment and know the basic standards and protocol before starting clinicals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What is the common goal of a perioperative team?
A)Do not report any surgical mishaps to patients or family members.
B)Keep general anesthesia to a minimum.
C)Complete every surgical procedure in less than 4 hours.
D)Deliver efficient patient care for each procedure.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caregivers should always know why they are doing a particular action.Actions should be based on ___________.
A)self-taught methods
B)preceptor actions
C)nursing process
D)evidence-based practice
Answer: D
Q2) What documentation goes into the patient's chart and becomes part of the permanent record?
A)Specimen results
B)Intraoperative notes only
C)All routine and individualized care
D)Physical changes
Answer: C
Q3) A patient advocate is the person who accompanies the patient to the facility.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25511
Sample Questions
Q1) One of AST's Codes of Ethics for surgical technologists is to always maintain the highest standards of professional conduct and patient care.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) ____________________ consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver. Answer: Abandonment
Abandonment consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.If the caregiver leaves the room knowing there is a potential need for care during his or her absence,even under the order of a physician,the caregiver is liable for his or her own actions.
Q3) A 17-year-old mentally competent person can execute a living will or an advance directive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which member of the sterile team provides exposure and hemostasis during a surgical procedure?
A)Anesthesia provider
B)Circulating nurse
C)Sales representative
D)First assistant
Q2) The _________ works to promote the best interests of the patient every single minute.
A)perianesthesia team
B)perioperative team
C)scrub person
D)anesthesiologist
Q3) The scrub person
A)does not participate in the surgical "time out."
B)is a member of the nonsterile team.
C)provides hemostasis of the surgical wound.
D)may be a nurse or surgical technologist.
Q4) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the A)one-handed tie.
B)freehanded tie.
C)stapling
D)backhanded tie.
Q2) Which is a type of surgical hazard?
A)Biologic
B)Psychological
C)Social
D)Biomedical
Q3) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q4) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
7
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perioperative nurse manager must have a strong knowledge of the OR,management,nursing theory,and practice.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________________ thinking is a way to improve the quality of care and help set standards to meet the needs of the facility and patient population.
Q3) What is the definition of SCIP?
A)Surgical Care Improvement Project
B)Surgical Cost Infection Project
C)Surgical Control Policy
D)Surveillance Control
Q4) Practices that continue despite lack of scientific evidence are referred to as A)protocols.
B)bad excuses.
C)sacred cows.
D)national standards.
Q5) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time. A)True B)False
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A)Caring
B)Self-care
C)Adaptation
D)Transition
Q2) On what foundations are cancer treatment and prognoses based?
A)Type of cancer and extent of the disease
B)Type of insurance the patient has
C)Type of surgery the patient chooses to have performed
D)Type of cancer-causing agents the patient was exposed to
Q3) The body of a patient who dies in the OR or dies as a result of a crime becomes the property of the
A)hospital.
B)police department.
C)patient's family.
D)coroner.
Q4) In every state it is mandated that a health care worker who suspects child abuse must notify the child welfare authorities.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resting metabolic rate of an infant is about the same as an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What procedure may have to be performed as a result of a child ingesting caustic agents that may burn the mouth,lips,pharynx,and esophagus?
A)Adenoidectomy
B)Tonsillectomy
C)Esophageal dilation
D)Herniorrhaphy
Q3) Choose the palliative procedure performed on an infant with transposition of the great vessels.
A)Mustard procedure
B)Jantene procedure
C)Rashkind procedure
D)Senning procedure
Q4) When is pulmonary ventilation established?
A)1 to 3 weeks after birth
B)At birth
C)2 to 3 months after birth
D)At conception
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A comorbidity is the existence of two or more diseases in one individual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A decrease in estrogen production can increase the risk for osteoporosis and heart disease in women.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What theory suggests that the body loses its ability to keep pace with the maintenance of life processes?
A)Genetic mutation theory
B)Wear-and-tear theory
C)Viral theory
D)Environmental theory
Q4) Which laboratory values are important to assess in the geriatric patient?
A)Vitamin B
B)Hemoglobin/hematocrit
C)HCG
D)Deoxyribonucleic acid
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many clocks should be in each OR?
A)At least three
B)One
C)Two
D)None
Q2) In what transition zone area is it acceptable for patients to wait before receiving anesthesia and to be given invasive lines and regional anesthesia?
A)Preoperative holding area
B)Induction room
C)Postanesthesia care unit
D)Dressing room
Q3) The ratio of intensity of general OR lighting should not exceed 1:5.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The OR temperature should be maintained within a range of _________________ to___ ° F and _________________to_____% humidity.(Insert numbers only.)
Q5) Swinging doors are the preferred door type in the OR. A)True
B)False
12
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because nurses are not on the front line fighting in battle,they do not experience the posttraumatic stress disorder that the wounded soldier might.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a consideration that determines whether a procedure is performed at an ASC?
A)Duration of procedure
B)Cost of procedure
C)Availability of anesthesia staff
D)Patient infection rate
Q3) In a combat support hospital (CSH),what documentation mandates the type of care given to patients who are onsite or those who are shipped out?
A)Civilian rank
B)Military receiving orders
C)Birth certificate and location of service
D)Standard operating procedures
Q4) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which activity is incorrect for the scrub person to perform?
A)Discarding contaminated waste
B)Disposing of sharps safely
C)Pulling drapes off patient
D)Removing tissue and blood from instruments
Q2) Which is a reason for preoperative staff to recycle surgical supplies in the OR?
A)To satisfy the environmental friendly staff members within the perioperative setting
B)To save the patient money
C)To reduce pollution
D)To decrease the workload of the preoperative nursing staff
Q3) Knife blades should be removed using a heavy hemostat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name a type of transmissible disease that results in prions being found in neurologic tissue that can exist on surfaces in the OR.
A)Whooping cough
B)Tuberculosis
C)Influenza
D)Creutzfeldt-Jakob
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25521
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a proper anesthesia technique?
A)Inspect masks, tubing, and endotracheal tubes each week for leaks and holes.
B)Use masks that loosely fit the contours of the patient's face to encourage the escape of gasses.
C)Perform preventive maintenance of anesthesia machines every 6 months.
D)Avoid spilling liquid halogenated agents.
Q2) Which of the following safeguards should not be done when working with electrical equipment?
A)Do not stretch power cables.
B)Unplug power cords by pulling on the cord.
C)Ground all equipment.
D)Make sure machines are turned off before plugging them in.
Q3) Which is a common injury caused by holding retractors in one position for prolonged periods?
A)Retinal detachment
B)Femoral stress fracture
C)Carpal tunnel syndrome
D)Chronic fatigue syndrome
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of active immunity against the prevention of disease?
A)A preformed immunoglobulin
B)A vaccine or booster shot
C)Vitamin supplements
D)Protein power bar
Q2) Which describe signs and symptoms of a localized infection?
A)Inflammation, red, painful, swelling
B)Generalized edema, lymphedema
C)Hematoma with clear exudate
D)Scaly rash with skin nodules
Q3) Stomach acid provides what line of defense?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
Q4) Which is a type of antibiotic whose mechanism inhibits the cell wall synthesis?
A)Vancomycin
B)Sulfonamide
C)Tetracycline
D)Quinolone
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traffic in the OR should be kept to a minimum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Double-gloving during a procedure will keep the wearer from incurring a puncture wound caused by a suture or knife blade.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the most important reason for keeping the doors to the OR closed except when opening is necessary?
A)The patient may get cold.
B)The hallway may be too noisy and prevent the surgeon from concentrating.
C)Closed doors maintain a positive pressure atmosphere.
D)Closed doors prevent environmental cleaning staff from hearing and seeing surgical events.
Q4) If an item,such as the end of a suture,extends over the edge of the sterile field,can it be brought back into the sterile field?
A)True
B)False
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17
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a sterile person gowning another member of the sterile team,where do you hold the opened gown for the other person?
A)At the waist and shoulders
B)At the shoulders and neckline
C)At both sleeves
D)At the chest and waist
Q2) What is one reason sterile gloves must cover the knitted cuffs on a sterile gown?
A)It is aesthetically pleasing to see only the glove and not the cuff.
B)The cuff is very likely going to tear and expose the bare wrist.
C)The cuffs are not fluid impervious.
D)The cuffs of a sterile gown are never long enough to cover the wrist adequately.
Q3) A glove-to-glove then skin-to-skin technique is used to remove gloves and protect hands from the outer surface of the contaminated gloves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cleaning instrument surfaces,it is acceptable to use wire brushes or scouring pads in order to thoroughly clean the debris from the instrument.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Boiling water is an effective physical disinfectant used to kill spores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surgical services central processing department (CPD or SPD)is usually located close to the main OR to minimize the potential for cross-contamination of soiled and clean instruments and supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which are the three levels of Spaulding's classification of patient care items?
A)Low items, intermediate level items, high-level items
B)Intact items, noncritical items, critical items
C)Critical items, semi-critical items, noncritical items
D)Dirty, sterile, contaminated
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) When loading a dry heat sterilizer,it must be loaded to the fullest capacity with no space wasted so as to use the energy efficiently.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to destroy prions,such as those in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease,how long must they be sterilized?
A)Chemically sterilized for 10 minutes in Cavicide
B)Steam sterilized for a minimum of 1 hour at 270° F after soaking in sodium hydroxide for 1 hour
C)Soaked in ethylene oxide for at least 30 minutes, then dry heat sterilized for 10 minutes
D)Rinsing in sterile water at 240° F for 1 hour then rinsing in Cavicide
Q3) Ethylene oxide (EO)is a chemical sterilant that does not kill spores.
A)True B)False
Q4) External indicator tape should be placed within an item's package to determine sterility.
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a type of dissector that might be used in an orthopedic surgical procedure?
A)Bone cutter
B)Snare
C)Curette
D)Adson forceps
Q2) All power surgical instruments have complex assemblies of gears,shafts,and seals.Powered instruments decrease the fatigue from manual instruments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
Q4) Which is an example of a cutting instrument?
A)Kelly clamp, Allis forceps
B)Jaw-tipped scissors, scalpel
C)Forceps, hemostat
D)Uterine sound, bayonet forceps
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the body must be protected when using lasers?
A)The patient's eyes
B)The laser has minimal effect on tissue.
C)The caregiver's eyes
D)The caregiver's eyes and the patient's eyes, skin, and respiratory tract
Q2) Why should laser plume be suctioned and evacuated during a surgical procedure?
A)Laser plume increases the temperature in the OR.
B)The smoke may cause blindness.
C)Laser plume reduces visibility at the surgical site.
D)The electromagnetic waves created by plume may cause brain death.
Q3) Which type of laser is useful in breaking up kidney stones?
A)Excimer
B)Carbon dioxide
C)Free electron
D)Ho:YAG
Q4) It is imperative that the surgical field be stable and immobile during a surgical procedure performed using the microscope.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should an anesthesia provider see a patient for a preoperative assessment?
A)To select an appropriate anesthetic for the procedure
B)To allow the provider to charge for an official consultation before the case
C)To decide whether the provider wants to work on the patient during the procedure
D)To determine whether the provider likes the patient before working with him or her
Q2) Which of the patient's senses is last lost before unconsciousness from anesthesia is assumed?
A)Taste
B)Sight
C)Hearing
D)Touch
Q3) Once the patient is placed on the OR table before a procedure,the circulating nurse does not need to be with the patient because the anesthesia provider will take over and start induction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of tumor grows slowly and resembles the parent tissue of origin?
A)Percutaneous
B)Benign
C)Malignant
D)Prophylactic
Q2) Ultrasound is helpful in diagnosing whether emboli are present in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why would an incidental radiograph be taken during a surgical procedure?
A)To check suture lines
B)To look for bleeding
C)To confirm whether an instrument is still in the patient
D)To ensure the bowel anastomosis has a watertight seal
Q4) ____________ may contribute to the formation of cancerous tumors.
A)Holistic medical care
B)Radiation
C)Endoscopy
D)Excessive protein intake
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which gas is used to power drills and saws?
A)Oxygen
B)Carbon monoxide
C)Nitrogen
D)Medical air
Q2) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Herbal supplements are not regulated by the FDA and may cause serious problems if medical and anesthesia providers do not know a patient is taking these products.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When dispensing a drug that has been drawn up in a syringe using a needle,it should be delivered via the syringe without the injection needle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an action of epinephrine?
A)Vasodilation
B)Hypotension
C)Sympathetic nerve blocker
D)Prolongs anesthesia
Q2) Which is an advantage of endotracheal administration of general anesthetics?
A)Protects the teeth from trauma
B)Ensures a patent airway
C)No incidence of sore throat
D)Decreased work for anesthesia provider
Q3) Which is a function controlled by homeostatic mechanisms?
A)Urine pH
B)Pain level
C)Muscle contraction
D)Heartbeat
Q4) Which is a main objective in the maintenance of general anesthesia?
A)Ensure analgesia is constant.
B)Maintain consistent hypovolemia.
C)Ensure correct suture lines.
D)Ensure the patient can hear the surgeon begin the procedure.
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should anticipate the needs of the surgeon and try to stay one step ahead. A)True
B)False
Q2) Once the initial skin incision has been made,the scalpel must be removed from the field to avoid injuring the patient or a surgical team member.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surgeon and assistants should never take their towels from the primary sterile field.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The _______________ help the scrub person and circulating nurse improve efficiency of the set-up procedure and case flow.
Q5) Counted sharps must not be taken from the OR during the surgical procedure. A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nonradiopaque sponges are used during the skin prep,rather than the counted sponges from the instrument table.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What patient position can compromise the respiratory function,due to the limited chest excursion that may result?
A)Sitting
B)Semi-Fowler
C)Beach chair
D)Lithotomy
Q3) What potential complication can occur while a patient is in a sitting position?
A)Hypertension
B)Air embolism
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Headache
Q4) The ideal antiseptic skin cleansing agent should be
A)nonpyrogenic.
B)broad spectrum.
C)anti-inflammatory.
D)sterile.
28
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) An EEG (electroencephalogram)measures muscular activity and messages sent from the core muscles to the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a contraindication to proceeding with intracranial pressure (ICP)monitoring?
A)Diabetes mellitus
B)Hypertension
C)Anticoagulation therapy
D)Increased cerebral spinal fluid production
Q3) When sending an arterial blood gas sample to the laboratory for analysis,never place the specimen on ice because that will cause the sample to coagulate and not be usable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pulmonary artery pressure
A)15 to 25 mm Hg
B)6 to 12 mm Hg
C)15 to 25 mm Hg systolic, 8 to 15 diastolic
D)3 to 6 mm Hg
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of incision is typically used for an open appendectomy procedure?
A)Thoracoabdominal incision
B)Pfannenstiel incision
C)Inguinal incision
D)McBurney's incision
Q2) Which type of suture is less traumatic and glides easily through tissue?
A)Monofilament
B)Polyfilament
C)Unafilament
D)Bifilament
Q3) Which is an advantage of skin closure strips?
A)They do not cause a foreign body tissue reaction.
B)They curl up and fall off easily.
C)Visibility of the healing wound is limited.
D)Application can be time consuming.
Q4) Which is an organ or structure that lies within the peritoneal cavity?
A)Kidney
B)Small bowel
C)Bladder
D)Aorta
30
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of wound infections?
A)Geriatric patient
B)Implant infection
C)Microorganisms introduced during surgery
D)Compromised patient
Q2) Absorbable gelatin (Gelfoam)is placed on an area of capillary bleeding where fibrin is deposited and the sponge swells forming a clot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is one of the four classifications of wounds?
A)Sterile
B)Clean
C)Aseptic
D)Traumatic
Q4) Hypothermia increases cellular metabolism as the body attempts to increase its warmth during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient having a surgical procedure performed in a physician's office does not need postoperative care and should be able to leave immediately after it is over.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is one piece of equipment needed for each patient bed space in the PACU?
A)Linen container
B)Suction equipment
C)Computer monitor for documentation
D)Bedside table
Q3) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q4) Invasive procedures are not performed in the PACU setting.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A)Volume overload
B)Blood volume depletion
C)Hypercapnia
D)Derangement of clotting factors
Q2) What are some predisposing factors for deep vein thrombosis?
A)Diabetes
B)Female
C)Obesity
D)Asthma
Q3) How does the body compensate for mild hypoxia?
A)Decreased heart rate and increased respiratory rate
B)Increased heart rate and increased respiratory rate
C)Decreased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate
D)Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
Q4) Allogeneic blood is a patient's own blood and requires no typing or crossmatching.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The open method of gaining access into the body is by placing a trocar and sheath so that the expansion medium may be placed through the port.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After an endoscopic procedure,it is acceptable to evacuate the CO into the room air because the OR staff are wearing masks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fluid can be used as an expansion media for creating working space while using a scope.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When using a robotic system to perform a surgical procedure,the surgeon is required to give the robot commands to activate its actions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing surgery near or on the liver,what precautions need to be taken into consideration?
A)Liver tissue is very friable and can hemorrhage.
B)No precautions are needed because the patient can always have a liver transplant.
C)Have a drain ready for after surgery.
D)Partial lobectomy is acceptable for function.
Q2) What procedure allows visualization of the rectal lumens via a flexible scope?
A)Colonoscopy
B)Gastroscopy
C)Bronchoscopy
D)Sigmoidoscopy
Q3) What breast procedure consists of removal of the entire mass along with some nondiseased tissue?
A)Radical
B)Simple
C)Lumpectomy
D)Modified radical
Q4) A/an __________ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
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35
Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) What procedure is frequently performed to remove uterine fibroids?
A)Polypectomy
B)Myomectomy
C)In vitro fertilization
D)Vulvectomy
Q2) Which is a method used to drain and evacuate a Bartholin cyst?
A)Herniation
B)Marsupialization
C)Crenation
D)Exenteration
Q3) What are the reason pelvic washings are done?
A)To test the pelvic fluid for cancer cells
B)To establish cause of abnormal uterine bleeding
C)For Inspection of pelvic and abdominal organs
D)To examine the ovaries
Q4) Which of the following may be used to obtain a cone biopsy?
A)Hot knife
B)ESU
C)Laser
D)Curette
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reconstruction of the kidney pelvis
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q2) What type of angle of vision is 0 degrees and is helpful in viewing the urethra?
A)Right angle
B)Direct forward
C)Lateral
D)Foroblique
Q3) What size is the usual adult cystoscope?
A)25 Fr
B)29 Fr
C)21 Fr
D)70 Fr
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incision into a joint
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Cortex
H)Arthrodesis
I)Dislocation
J)Compartment syndrome
Q2) What does ORIF stand for?
A)Offer surgical treatment
B)Open reduction and internal fixation
C)Close reduction fix later
D)Operating room ready if necessary
Q3) Cancellous tissue is porous,spongy,and contains bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one reason cerebral revascularizations are primarily performed?
A)To close a dural defect
B)To prophylactically prevent development of a major brain attack
C)To create a fistula
D)To decompress the subdura
Q2) Which is a reason for performing a thalamotomy?
A)To increase vision
B)To control hyperthermia
C)To relieve seizure activity
D)To repair a neural defect
Q3) What condition causes erratic electrical rhythms in the brain?
A)Falx cerebri
B)Epilepsy
C)Neoplasms
D)Anxiety
Q4) What procedure is performed to suture a divided nerve?
A)Neurolysis
B)Neurectomy
C)Neurexeresis
D)Neurorrhaphy
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following body systems can be affected by scoliosis?
A)Reproductive system
B)Respiratory system
C)Genitourinary system
D)Neurological system
Q2) For a patient undergoing a lumbar laminectomy,anesthesia induction would be performed in which position?
A)Supine
B)Lateral
C)Prone on a Wilson frame
D)Prone on a Jackson table
Q3) What classification of spinal cord injury is evident when some sensory and motor impulses are still present?
A)Complete
B)Incomplete
C)Sensory
D)Percutaneous
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a classification of cataracts?
A)Congenital
B)Intermediate
C)Opaque
D)Full thickness
Q2) What procedure removes scar tissue from the cornea with an excimer laser?
A)Refractive keratoplasty
B)Phototherapeutic keratoplasty
C)Radial keratotomy
D)Keratophakia
Q3) Which is the mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and the exposed surface of the sclera except the cornea?
A)Lens
B)Conjunctiva
C)Cataract
D)Cornea
Q4) Retrobulbar blocks are injected into the soft tissue superior and inferior to the globe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) What might be included in typical preoperative instructions for a patient about to undergo an elective plastic surgical procedure?
A)Avoid eating red meat for a week before surgery.
B)Avoid aspirin and smoking for at least 2 weeks before surgery.
C)No heavy lifting for 2 months before surgery.
D)Ensure all tattoos are removed before surgery.
Q2) How should a graft be handled until the surgeon is ready to apply it?
A)Leave it dry on the corner of the table.
B)Keep the graft moist on a separate sterile graft table.
C)Place it on the mayo stand.
D)Place it in an ice basin.
Q3) The rule of sevens chart is used to estimate burn injury in the adult.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a benefit of using omentum as a graft?
A)Will resorb into tissue when grafted
B)Does not usually require a split-thickness skin graft
C)Has very few blood vessels for anastomosis
D)Helps localize and control infection
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The internal receiver of a cochlear bone conduction implant is implanted over the A)zygomatic bone.
B)temporal bone.
C)parotid gland.
D)middle turbinate bone.
Q2) Which is a type of major salivary glands?
A)Suboral
B)Subarticular
C)Submandibular
D)Suborbital
Q3) Primary hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by which lab result?
A)High potassium
B)High vitamin D
C)Hypercalcemia (high calcium)
D)Anemia
Q4) A ball or cyst known as cholesteatoma can cause permanent hearing loss,balance disturbances,and infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air in the pleural space
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q2) Compression of lung due to intrapleural pressure changes
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What component of the cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB)machine regulates body temperature?
A)Pump
B)Oxygenator
C)Heat exchanger
D)Perfusion fluid
Q2) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a benefit of hypothermia during an intracardiac or coronary artery procedure?
A)Increased need for oxygen
B)Decreased surgical operating costs
C)Increased cellular metabolism
D)Decreased systemic metabolic needs
Q4) What procedure uses grafting to bypass obstructed vessels in the heart?
A)Median sternotomy
B)Anterolateral thoracotomy
C)Mitral valve replacement
D)Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be used for DVT prophylaxis during a vascular surgical procedure?
A)Pulse oximeter, hemodialysis catheter
B)Sequential compression sleeves, anticoagulant therapy
C)Sandbags, urokinase
D)Cell saver, pulse volume recorder
Q2) Prosthetic implant to maintain patency after dilation of vessel
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q3) Which is a reason a shunt is used routinely during a carotid endarterectomy?
A)To prevent blood loss
B)To avoid making an arteriotomy in the carotid artery
C)To maintain blood flow to the brain
D)To enhance visibility of the carotid plaque
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissue typing,or histocompatibility testing,is the detection of what substance known to affect rejection?
A)Complex assays
B)Cell-surface antigens
C)Cyclosporine
D)Prostaglandin
Q2) Presence of which disease is an indication for a bone marrow transplantation?
A)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B)Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
C)Myelogenous leukemia
D)Graft-versus-host disease
Q3) Genetically identical donor and recipient
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
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