Perioperative Nursing
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Perioperative Nursing focuses on the specialized care of patients before, during, and after surgery. The course covers essential concepts such as patient assessment, infection control, anesthesia, surgical asepsis, intraoperative techniques, and postoperative recovery. Students will learn the roles and responsibilities of the perioperative nurse, including patient advocacy, safety, and coordination within the multidisciplinary surgical team. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, communication, and critical thinking skills necessary to ensure optimal patient outcomes throughout the surgical experience.
Recommended Textbook
Alexanders Care of the Patient in Surgery 14th Edition by Jane C. Rothrock
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30 Chapters
784 Verified Questions
784 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2039 Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts Basic to Perioperative Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationship between the Perioperative Patient Focused Model and the Perioperative Nursing Data Set (PNDS)is evidenced by their unique language and use of the nursing process to guide care.The most notable feature of their similarity is that the PNDS:
A) promotes standardized perioperative documentation.
B) fosters research on best practices.
C) begins with outcome statements.
D) promotes standardized perioperative documentation and begins with outcome statements.
Answer: C
Q2) The Perioperative Patient Focused Model presents key components of nursing influence that guide patient care.Select the statement that best describes the dynamic relationship within the model.
A) The patient experience and the nursing presence are in continuous interaction.
B) Structure,process,and outcome are the foundation domains of the model.
C) The perioperative nurse is the central dynamic core of the model.
D) The interrelated nursing process rings bind the patient to the model.
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Patient Safety and Risk Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Governmental and professional agencies and organizations,whether voluntary (governmental)or involuntary,have a significant influence on patient safety policies in the healthcare setting.Select the agency or organization statement that presents a true reflection of its focus or purpose.
A) The Joint Commission (TJC):Nonvoluntary bureau that tests healthcare institutions against evidence-based elements of performance
B) Surgical Care Improvement Project (SCIP):Trends surgical site infection statistics
C) American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA):Professional organization of anesthesia providers and technologists
D) World Health Organization (WHO):United Nations based and supported authority on health throughout most of the world
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Infection Prevention and Control in the
Perioperative Setting
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The design of the physical space within an OR attempts to minimize horizontal surfaces by placing cabinets flush with the wall.This prevents dust settling on multiple surfaces and decreases the areas that have to be monitored and cleaned.Another concern with horizontal surfaces is that air turbulence from staff movement and activity plus door movement,when it opens and closes,can:
A) mobilize resting dust from these surfaces.
B) contaminate sterile areas.
C) disrupt the unidirectional airflow.
D) All of the options are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Which glove lubricant,used to facilitate easy donning,is considered a best practice?
A) Sterile talcum or corn starch powder
B) Sterile petroleum-based oils
C) Sterile silicone film
D) None of the options is a best practice.
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Justin,a 4-year-old preschool student,was telling his friend Jacob about his operation.He had a hernia fixed and told Jacob that the nurse put "magic cream on his hand before she stuck the ivy in" and then the doctor "gave him surgery sleep medicine that was like milk in his ivy" and "another doctor put a little needle stick in his back near his butt after he was asleep so he would not hurt when he woke up." Based on Justin's self-report of his surgery experience,what three types of anesthesia,in the correct order to his story,did Justin receive?
A) Local,general,spinal
B) Local,regional,general
C) Local,general,caudal
D) Regional,general,caudal
Q2) Many factors have contributed to the evolution and progressive growth of ambulatory surgery.Select the three anesthetic agents that promote fast induction,rapid emergence,and minimal side effects and have been credited as a significant factor in this trend.
A) Propofol,desflurane,sublimaze
B) Midazolam,sevoflurane,propofol
C) Desflurane,sevoflurane,halothane
D) Sevoflurane,propofol,desflurane
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Chapter 5: Positioning the Patient for Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Number the sequence of steps for positioning a patient in lithotomy position.
a.With the patient supine,the legs are raised simultaneously and abducted to expose the perineal region.
b.The leg section of the OR bed is removed and the leg section platform is lowered.
c.The thighs are elevated to the appropriate degree for the planned procedure.
d.Stirrups are checked before use to ensure they are securely fastened to the side rails of the OR bed.
e.The legs are placed in stirrups to maintain this position.
f.The sacral area is padded with a gel or foam pad.
Q2) While Fowler's position offers the best respiratory excursion for the patient,the patient is at higher risk for because of dependent pooling in the hips and legs.
A) venous thromboembolism (VTE)
B) sacral ischemia
C) restless leg syndrome
D) compartment syndrome
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Chapter 6: Sutures, Needles, and Instruments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dan Clements had a vasectomy in his urologist's office.The small incision was closed with sutures that are synthetic and will "dissolve and fall out" after 2 to 3 weeks.As the procedure ended,he heard the doctor ask the nurse for 5-0: A) silk.
B) polyglactin.
C) plain gut.
D) chromic gut.
Q2) The circulating nurse received the trauma call from the emergency department and called sterile supply to assemble the instruments for an abdominal trauma case with possible aortic rupture.When the cart arrived,she saw the vascular set;however,the most important instrument set was missing.What important instrument set was needed for this procedure besides the vascular set?
A) Sternal saw and blades
B) Basic laparotomy set
C) Basic laparoscopy set
D) Minor set
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Chapter 7: Surgical Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing research and practice committee searched the scientific literature for information on smoke evacuation,as they planned for a unit-wide initiative to use this safety measure on all procedures where smoke or plume is generated.Their main concern is that the surgeons will not be as willing to comply as the staff.Select the safety measure that will be the most critical and most challenging to enforce.
A) Change the smoke evacuation filter according to the manufacturer's written instructions.
B) Hold the smoke evacuation suction tube close (<1 inch away) to the tissue interaction site to remove as much plume as possible.
C) Evacuate surgical smoke generated during endoscopic or laparoscopic procedures.
D) Wear a surgical mask that provides adequate filtration to protect against residual smoke particulate that has not been evacuated.
Q2) Angulation knobs,air-water channel buttons,biopsy port
Q3) Distal tip,flexible movement,lenses,air-water nozzle,CCD chip
Q4) Suction,air,water,and light connection adaptors to energy source
Q5) Flexible tube with channels for suction,biopsy,irrigation,light
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Chapter 8: Wound Healing, Dressings, and Drains
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are many factors that influence surgical wound healing.Some are helpful and some are beyond the scope of the surgical team.Select the response below that reflects a factor with high influence over wound healing and is within the control of the surgical team.
A) Use of a local anesthetic with epinephrine at the incision site
B) Antibiotic sensitivity studies conducted on wound culture results
C) Selection of wound closure materials,dressings,and drains
D) Positive cultures from a chronic wound beyond the patient's incision site
Q2) Which of the criteria below are appropriate when determining whether an incisional surgical site infection (SSI)is superficial or deep? Select all that apply.
A) Where the purulent drainage comes from,superficial or deep
B) Where the positive wound culture comes from,superficial or deep
C) Whether the wound dehisces and/or is deliberately opened by a surgeon
D) The diagnosis by the surgeon or attending physician
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Chapter 9: Postoperative Patient Care and Pain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement below that best reflects the effects of hypothermia in the perianesthesia period.
A) Hypothermia causes physiologic stress and prolongs recovery time,primarily as a result of shivering.
B) Hypothermia has often been shown to cause life-threatening morbidities.
C) Shivering can increase the need for oxygen by 300% to 400%.
D) Hypothermia causes fluid shift from the intracellular space,resulting from vasodilation.
Q2) A key component of postoperative discharge instructions requires verification of patient/family understanding of the instructions.A recent study found that only 67% of the discharge instruction comprehension was retained by day 3 postdischarge.What strategy best ensures patient/family understanding and comprehension of the discharge instructions?
A) Written and signed instruction sheet with emergency and information contact numbers
B) Follow-up e-mailed video clip of the patient/family teaching encounter
C) Follow-up e-mail or telephone review of the discharge instructions on day 1 post discharge
D) Patient/family teach-back of the discharge instructions to the nurse
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Chapter 10: Gastrointestinal Surgery
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Edward Lewis is scheduled for a transthoracic esophagectomy with lymph node dissection for cancer of the esophagus.Which incisional approach is indicated for this procedure?
A) Left thoracoabdominal incision
B) Right posterior lateral thoracotomy and midline abdominal incision
C) Three-incision (three-hole) approach with cervical,right thoracotomy,and midline laparotomy incisions
D) Any of the three above incisions may be used per surgeon preference or tumor location.
Q2) Sharon Close has been diagnosed with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)without the dysplastic changes of Barrett's esophagus.Her GERD is unresponsive to proton pump inhibitors and histamine blockers.She also has a history of endometriosis with multiple surgeries for ablation of endometrial implants on her small bowel and adhesiolysis.Her surgeon is hesitant to pursue an open or a laparoscopic Nissen surgical approach.What procedure might her surgeon consider in lieu of a Nissen?
A) Thoracoabdominal partial esophagectomy
B) Endoscopic mucosal resection
C) Endoluminal plication of the lower esophageal segment
D) Heller's myotomy
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Surgery of the Liver, Biliary Tract, Pancreas, and Spleen
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Sample Questions
Q1) What technologic characteristic of robotic surgery provides a superior indication for robotic-assisted laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
A) The surgeon controls two instruments plus a camera while an assistant suctions and retracts.
B) Bladeless robotic trocars minimize entry injury and inadvertent hemorrhage.
C) The magnified three-dimensional picture may reduce bile duct injuries during dissection.
D) Robotic stapler and suture devices promote intracorporeal anastomotic techniques.
Q2) During an emergent total open splenectomy on a patient with blunt force trauma to the abdomen,the circulating nurse and anesthesia provider noticed rust-colored urine in the urinary collection container.They had just hung the third unit of whole blood.What nursing action is the first priority?
A) Send a sterile urine sample for stat cytologic studies.
B) Notify the scrubbed team of the urine color change and check the bladder for trauma.
C) Stop the blood transfusion.
D) Check the blood unit for patient-specific identification and expiration date.
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Chapter 12: Repair of Hernias
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thomas Benito is a 4-year-old preschooler scheduled for bilateral inguinal hernia repair.He is in the preoperative waiting lounge with his mother,while his father looks for a parking space.The mother does not speak English and she seems confused and intimidated as the perioperative nurse approaches.The surgeon has just marked both inguinal sites with his initials.The mother appears to indicate that the surgery will take place only on the right side;however,the consent states bilateral and is signed by the father.The perioperative nurse's first appropriate response should be to:
A) attempt to explain the notation on the consent with hand signals and her best Spanish until the father returns.
B) sit down next to the mother and convey calming behaviors until the father returns.
C) stay with the mother and patient while someone calls back the surgeon and a medical interpreter.
D) page the father.
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Chapter 13: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ova travel through the fallopian tubes toward the uterus by which type of action?
A) Peristalsis
B) Gravity
C) Brownian motion
D) Intra-abdominal pressure
Q2) Many gynecologic conditions and diseases cause chronic pelvic pain.Both surgical and nonsurgical therapies include invasive manipulations.Select the least invasive treatment option for chronic pelvic pain that is recommended by the Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ).
A) Nerve block with biofeedback
B) Ureterosacral nerve ablation with GnRH agonists with add-back therapy
C) Trigger point injections and acupuncture
D) None of the above therapies are either noninvasive or recommended by the AHRQ
Q3) An example of perineal glands that secrete mucus is:
A) Skene's glands.
B) Bartholin's glands.
C) perineal glands.
D) labial glands.
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Chapter 14: Genitourinary Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-intensity focused ultrasound (HIFU)is a noninvasive technique used in the treatment of prostate cancer.HIFU is a targeted therapy that is highly focused into a small area without causing collateral tissue damage.Aside from primary therapy,HIFU can be used as salvage therapy,primarily after radiation.HIFU can be performed as an outpatient procedure,often with an epidural anesthetic.The HIFU-directed energy modality is best described as:
A) high-temperature nonionizing thermal energy.
B) cavitation of the prostate cell cytoplasm by the implosion of microscopic bubbles.
C) mechanical shearing force of ultrasonic waves.
D) radiofrequency coagulation of prostatic cell nuclei.
Q2) Patients having genitourinary surgery are at risk for impaired urinary elimination.Select the statement that best reflects a desired outcome for an adult patient.
A) The patient will be able to urinate before the bladder exceeds 350 ml of fullness.
B) The patient will regain his or her normal pattern of urinary elimination.
C) The patient will excrete 50 ml of urine per hour.
D) All of the options are desired outcomes.
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Chapter 15: Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minimally invasive video-assisted thyroidectomy (MIVAT)procedure relies on Miccoli instruments added to the standard thyroid or neck dissection setup,a 30-degree endoscope,and an ultrasonic (harmonic)scalpel with scissors to ligate and divide the vessels.An important risk reduction strategy for any minimally invasive procedure would be (select all that apply):
A) note the amount of CO volume in connected tank and tanks available.
B) consider and plan for the possibility of conversion to open thyroidectomy.
C) position and drape the patient as for thyroidectomy.
D) use fire-resistant light cords,endoscopes,light sources,and cable connections
Q2) The primary function of the three thyroid hormones is to regulate:
A) energy metabolism.
B) body growth and development.
C) calcium storage in the bones.
D) the decrease in blood calcium levels.
Q3) An example of antithyroid drugs that would be administered during a thyroid storm crisis would be:
A) sodium iodide solution and Lugol's solution.
B) propylthiouracil and methimazole.
C) guanethidine and ipodate sodium.
D) propranolol and lithium.
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Chapter 16: Breast Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the past,radical procedures,which involved removal of the affected breast and all axillary and thoracic lymph nodes,were used to treat breast cancer.These procedures did not significantly lower mortality.What factor(s)may have contributed to mortality after these procedures?
A) Distant metastases may have already occurred without adjacent lymph node involvement at the time of its palpable detection.
B) Early pathology techniques for frozen section and histology microexamination could not define margins.
C) Breast cancer was believed to spread by direct extension from its initial site in the breast to adjacent lymph nodes.
D) Tumor size was not usually correlated with involvement of lymph nodes and cancer spread.
Q2) Ductal ectasia is a benign breast disorder that is difficult to distinguish from cancer,primarily because it presents with:
A) bilateral tenderness,mottled skin patterns of the breast,and fullness.
B) bilateral multicentric nodules and nipple discharge.
C) mottled skin patterns of the breast and edema.
D) a hard and irregular mass,nipple discharge,and enlarged axillary nodes.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing for pars plana vitrectomy in the posterior segment,the perioperative nurse must be aware that a combined scleral buckling procedure may be necessary.Other important information the perioperative nurse should know before preparing the OR for the procedure includes the location of the ocular problem,the surgeon's plan to address the problem,and the instrumentation and biomedical equipment and devices to be used.Technologic advances in ophthalmic surgery require that perioperative nurses be familiar with complex biomedical equipment.A best practice,stated below,relevant to the safe use of complex equipment would be:
A) determine the presence and appropriate date (not expired) of the biomedical monitoring label.
B) demonstrate competence with equipment and check each piece carefully before the patient arrives in the OR.
C) schedule the manufacturer's representative to be present to provide technical support.
D) schedule the biomedical clinical engineer to check all equipment before each procedure.
Q2) Enucleation
Q3) Exenteration
Q4) Evisceration
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Chapter 18: Otorhinolaryngologic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP)is performed primarily to relieve obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)and snoring.Select two common indications for UPPP surgery.
A) O saturation below 92%,and snoring
B) Cardiac dysrhythmia during sleep and awake,and snoring
C) O saturation below 80%,and apnea index worse than 20
D) O saturation below 85% on CPAP,and apnea index below 20
Q2) Sally Andres and her orientee have returned from an airway fire simulation exercise with the otorhinolaryngologic surgeon,fellow,and anesthesia provider.They were amazed at the statistics for OR fires and the threat of serious injury to the patient and team.Patients undergoing otorhinolaryngologic procedures are at greater risk for fire injury because of the proximity of the surgical field to high concentrations of oxygen.The team discussed a plan to change their practices.An example of a risk reduction strategy that involves collaboration of the entire surgical team during otorhinolaryngologic surgery would be:
A) placing ESU active electrodes in a secure holster.
B) maintaining the laser on standby until needed.
C) identifying the fire risk score during the preincision time-out.
D) conducting regularly scheduled team simulations that rehearse an airway fire protocol.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Revision arthroplasty may be indicated if the patient's original knee replacement wears out or loosens,or fails as a result of repeated dislocation,infection,or trauma.Total joint revision can be a very demanding and complicated procedure.Attention to detail,anticipation,and preparation are essential.Following the induction of anesthesia,the surgeon performs an exam under anesthesia (EUA)to determine the approach.The most difficult aspect of revision surgery is that there is:
A) considerable scar tissue and edema.
B) a significant challenge ahead with postoperative pain management.
C) no clear-cut sequence of events.
D) polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA) bone cement that must be drilled out.
Q2) Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA,or bone cement)is an acrylic,cement-like substance composed of a liquid methyl methacrylate monomer and a powder methyl methacrylate-styrene co-polymer.What element is added to the powder component to make the finished product radiopaque?
A) Radiografinpaque
B) Polycrylate sodium
C) Barium
D) Granular allograft bone
Q3) Fibrin network formation
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Neurosurgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sara Gardiner is the perioperative nurse in the circulating role in OR 2,and is planning for her three neurosurgical procedures for the day.She is explaining the basic processes of the three procedures to the scrub person and double-scrubbed surgical technology student:(1)a VP shunt insertion(2)a reconstructive craniosynostosis for an infant with severe deformity,and (3)exploration of a severe head injury with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)to evacuate a hematoma and possible brain tissue.To give the brain room to swell in the third procedure,the bone flap may need to be sterile-wrapped and stored,for later replacement.Sara asks the student to name the appropriate surgical approach to the brain for each of the procedures.She expects the correct sequence to be:
A) craniectomy,craniotomy,and craniotomy.
B) burr hole,craniectomy,and craniotomy.
C) craniotomy,craniotomy,and craniectomy.
D) Burr hole,craniectomy,and burr hole.
Q2) Identify the dura fold that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
A) Falx cerebri
B) Tentorium cerebelli
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebri
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Franklin Hardy,a 46-year-old man with multiple moles and skin lesions,was undergoing skin lesion excision surgery performed using a local anesthetic.After 90 minutes of surgery and multiple field block injections of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine 1:100,000 and 0.5% bupivacaine,Franklin told the perioperative nurse that he felt dizzy with ringing sensations in both ears,a metallic taste in his mouth,and numbness of the tongue and lips.He became confused and restless and showed an increased heart rate and blood pressure.The perioperative nurse recognized his signs and symptoms of _ and began immediate treatment with ___.
A) bupivicaine and lidocaine toxicity;airway support
B) local/subcutaneous infiltration;aspiration of gastric contents
C) lidocaine overdose;lipid emulsion infusion
D) a potential life-threatening complication;anticonvulsants and ACLS
Q2) During the planning phase of a procedure for liposuction or post-bariatric contouring procedures,the perioperative nurse will assemble and organize supplies and devices because the procedure may require:
A) repositioning one or more times during surgery.
B) meticulous accounting of fluid loss and blood replacement.
C) pressure dressings.
D) patient transfer to an alternating-pressure bed.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) The indications for single-lung transplantation (SLT)include restrictive lung disease,emphysema,pulmonary hypertension,and other nonseptic end-stage pulmonary diseases,while the indications for double-lung transplantation (DLT)include patients with:
A) bilateral early-stage sarcoma without systemic disease.
B) bilateral chronic infection causing end-stage renal failure.
C) cystic fibrosis in end-stage pulmonary failure.
D) bilateral disease,recent ex-smoker with a suitable living-related donor.
Q2) Roger Waring's mediastinal node biopsies were sent for immediate frozen section and revealed metastasis of the primary tumor of the left upper lobe to the ipsilateral mediastinal nodes.Roger's TNM and staging classification are:
A) Stage II due to the TNM subset of T ,N ,M0.
B) Stage I due to the TNM subset of T ,N0,M0.
C) Stage IV due to the TNM subset of T ,N ,M .
D) Stage IA due to the TNM subset of T ,N ,M .
Q3) What is the ideal position for bronchoscopy?
A) Supine
B) Left semilateral
C) Supine with a shoulder roll
D) Semi-Fowler with neck extended
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Chapter 23: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What properties enable arteries to compensate for changes in blood pressure and blood volume?
A) Regeneration and thick muscularis
B) Dilatation and absence of valves
C) Contraction and constriction
D) Elasticity and distensibility
Q2) What drug is used to reverse the effects of heparin?
A) Prostigmine
B) Protonics hydrochloride
C) Protamine sulfate
D) Prothrombin
Q3) Surgically created arteriovenous fistulas are also referred to as a(n)_ and are indicated for enabling __.
A) axillo-femoral bypass;end-stage renal disease
B) bridge shunt;peritoneal dialysis
C) arteriovenous shunt;hemodialysis
D) side-to-side anastomosis;cannulation
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25
Chapter 24: Cardiac Surgery
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Q1) The temporary substitution of a pump oxygenator for the heart and lungs allows the surgeon to stop the heart and perform cardiac procedures under direct vision in a relatively dry,motionless field.It also allows the surgeon to manipulate the heart without the risk of producing ventricular fibrillation and reduced cardiac output that jeopardize perfusion to the myocardial,peripheral,and cerebral tissues.In traditional cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB),systemic venous return to the heart flows by gravity drainage through cannulae placed in the superior and inferior venae cavae or through a single two-stage cannula in the right atrium into tubing connected to the bypass machine.Blood is oxygenated,filtered,warmed or cooled,and pumped back into the systemic circulation through a cannula placed in the:
A) femoral artery.
B) axillary artery.
C) ascending aorta.
D) All of the arteries could be used for return flow.
Q2) Select the diagnostic test that represents an invasive cardiac study.
A) Resting MUGA
B) Exercise MUGA
C) Cardiac function
D) Electrophysiology studies
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Pediatric Surgery
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Q1) The immature blood-brain barrier and decreased protein binding in infants increase their sensitivity to which group of drugs?
A) Anticholinergics,parasympatholytics
B) Antidysrhythmic agents
C) Opioids and hypnotics
D) Adrenergics
Q2) Improvements in instrumentation and the development of equipment in smaller sizes have resulted in the evolution of minimally invasive surgery (MIS)from that of a rapidly growing field to one of routine practice in the pediatric surgical arena.The advantages of MIS for the pediatric population include which true statement?
A) There is less risk for injury or complications with pneumoperitoneum insufflation.
B) Pediatric patients having MIS procedures have less prevalence of adhesion formation.
C) There is less possibility for abdominal injury from Foley catheter decompression.
D) MIS procedures on children do not require the use of thromboembolic devices.
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Chapter 26: Geriatric Surgery
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Q1) Hyperthyroidism is the great masquerader in the elderly population and can easily be missed in patients older than 60 years.It can be severe and even life-threatening.An important assessment point during the preoperative interview,that could influence the positioning for the surgical procedure,is based on which true statement?
A) The patient may have osteoporosis caused by hyperthyroidism.
B) Euthyroid syndrome is prevalent in hyperthyroidism and impairs neck flexion.
C) Positional injury can trigger thyroid storm.
D) Patients who have been exposed to radioactive iodine are at risk for pressure injuries.
Q2) During the preoperative assessment and interview with a patient scheduled for a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP),the perioperative nurse notes that the patient has an inguinal hernia.What would be an appropriate statement that the nurse might make to the patient?
A) "I will tell the surgeon so that you can have the hernia repaired at the same time."
B) "Hernias rarely occur in men with prostate disease."
C) "You should consider having your hernia repaired in the near future at the ambulatory center."
D) "You should consider having a laparoscopic hernia repair in the near future."
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Chapter 27: Trauma Surgery
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40577
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Q1) A 26-year-old female is rushed to the operating room after a primary and secondary survey in the emergency department.She was hit by a small truck as she was riding her bicycle through a busy intersection.She has sustained rib fractures and several fractured transverse vertebral processes.Renal injury is suspected.As the perioperative nurse prepares to insert a urinary catheter,she notices blood at the urinary meatus.What should the nurse's next action be?
A) Place a gauze dressing over the perineum after inserting the urinary catheter.
B) Insert the catheter and notify the surgeon.
C) Discontinue the catheter insertion.
D) Insert a latex-free straight catheter to empty the bladder and then remove it.
Q2) Blunt trauma injuries may not fully reveal the degree or depth of injury.What noninvasive diagnostic test is critical to diagnosis in potential traumatic brain injury?
A) Pupil reflex and response to light
B) Skull radiograph
C) CT scan of the head
D) Neurovascular arteriography
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Chapter 28: Interventional Radiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that correctly describes the mechanism of action of contrast media.
A) Contrast media are used to enhance visualization of anatomic structures by influencing tissue radiopacity with different concentrations of iodine.
B) A contrast agent works by attenuating (absorbing) the x-ray beam either more than or less than the surrounding tissue.
C) Contrast media radiopacity is related to its iodine concentration.
D) A contrast agent works by the speed of delivery affecting blood flow and hemodilution.
Q2) Select the diagnostic and interventional radiology procedure that is not classified as a vascular procedure.
A) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
B) Carotid interventions
C) Portal hypertension management (TIPS)
D) Uterine artery embolization
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Chapter 29: Integrated Health Practices:Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Q1) Many alternative medical therapies are culturally,ethnically,spiritually,or religiously derived and have a wide range of applications from health promotion to the treatment of illness.Key foundations of several therapies are a focus on universal connectedness (e.g.,that all living and nonliving things are joined together;health will be good if one's mind and body are in harmony and balance;disease arises when a person is out of harmony with the universe).Which of the therapies listed below prescribe to this belief system?
A) Asian medicine
B) Ayurvedic medicine
C) Homeopathic medicine
D) Chiropractic medicine
E) Allopathic medicine
Q2) Anesthesia providers are concerned about the potential increased risk of instability intraoperatively resulting from inhibition of coagulation.Which herbal supplement,from the list below,would be implicated in a coagulation interaction?
A) Feverfew
B) Lavender
C) Rosemary
D) Licorice
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Chapter 30: Workplace Issues and Staff Safety
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Q1) Linda Gardner is highly allergic to latex and the anesthesia provider plans to give Linda prophylactic medications before anesthesia.What medications might be administered to Linda in the preoperative holding area?
A) Epinephrine and an H2-blocker
B) Vasopressin and atropine
C) Prednisone and a beta-agonist inhaler
D) Dimethylxanthine
Q2) Select the guideline that complements the design of the culture of safety model.
A) Take advantage of a personal injury event to educate yourself about future prevention strategies.
B) Comply with those policies that fit your current practice.
C) Incorporate safe practices into your daily work when handling sharps.
D) Observe local,state,and federal regulations as they fit your current practice.
Q3) Which of the following may be a consequence of high-dose or full-body radiation?
A) Radiation poisoning,heart disease,stroke,and death
B) Nausea,vomiting,diarrhea,and weakness
C) Cancer and mental retardation in children of mothers exposed during pregnancy
D) All of the options are possible consequences of high-dose or full-body radiation
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