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Perioperative Nursing is a specialized course that focuses on the comprehensive care of patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. This course explores the pivotal roles and responsibilities of nurses in the surgical environment, including preoperative assessments, intraoperative support, and postoperative care management. Students will learn about infection control, patient safety, pain management, and teamwork within the surgical team. Emphasis is placed on clinical decision-making, ethical considerations, and communication skills necessary for delivering high-quality, evidence-based care in the perioperative setting.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 12th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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Sample Questions
Q1) Students are not to be considered part of the clinical staff during clinical rotation hours.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Name a learning style influence as described in Chapter 1.
A) Socioeconomic status
B) Logistics
C) Age of learner
D) Physical senses
Answer: D
Q3) A tour of the perioperative environment can help decrease the learner's anxiety before beginning a perioperative program.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Invasive procedures are frequently diagnostic and do not enter the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) Access to health care is a privilege of every human being.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Both perioperative nurses and surgical technologists work toward the common goal of providing the safest possible care so that patients achieve favorable surgical outcomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which is one of the "seven rights" of medication administration for each patient?
A) Right pharmacy
B) Right color
C) Right route
D) Right answer
Answer: C
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Q1) Which is a coping method that may help OR team members when a patient dies?
A) Identify with the loss.
B) Identify those responsible for the patient death.
C) Reduce the dependence on teamwork to maintain patient safety in a crisis.
D) Take ownership for the patient death and review actions with risk management team.
Answer: A
Q2) Which component is included in an informed consent?
A) Risks and benefits
B) Cost of surgery
C) DNR orders
D) Length of hospital stay
Answer: A
Q3) When a mishap occurs in patient care,the cause of the event is compared with other cases similar to that one.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Why does credentialing exist?
A) To create revenue for the nursing profession
B) To maintain quality of the personnel's education and performance
C) To encourage professionals to further their education
D) To remain competitive with the medical profession
Q2) The role of a first assistant includes:
A) maintaining visibility of the surgical site.
B) maintaining membership in the local hospital.
C) organization of the back table and Mayo stand.
D) certification by a specialty surgical board.
Q3) The ____ works to promote the best interests of the patient every single minute.
A) perianesthesia team
B) perioperative team
C) scrub person
D) anesthesiologist
Q4) Directing the activities of all learners is the role of the:
A) surgeon.
B) first assistant.
C) anesthesiologist.
D) circulating nurse.
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Q1) A registered nurse first assistant (RNFA)reviews the patient's chart,including laboratory results,subjective and objective data,and pending tests.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is important to ____ and think in advance about each step to help the procedure run smoothly.
A) guess every move
B) anticipate
C) retract every time
D) react
Q3) The first assistant usually assists in closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The first assistant should simultaneously perform as a scrub nurse during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The head nurse or charge nurse acts as a liaison between staff members and administrative personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is part of the perioperative environment?
A) Radiology
B) Postanesthesia care unit
C) Surgical waiting room
D) Interventional phlebotomy
Q4) The sales representative may never render direct patient care at any time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A manager is one administrator who implements and enforces hospital and departmental policies and procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In every state it is mandated that a health care worker who suspects child abuse must notify the child welfare authorities.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A) Caring
B) Self-care
C) Adaptation
D) Transition
Q3) What form of diabetes mellitus involves the pancreas producing little or no insulin and usually occurs in juveniles and adults up to 40 years of age?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Diabetes associated with other syndromes
Q4) Before administration of anesthetics,a patient may be acutely aware of the surroundings and activities.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In the school-aged child the most common cause for an abdominal surgical procedure is:
A) obstructive stomach lesion.
B) bezoars.
C) appendicitis.
D) intussusception.
Q2) What valve allows normal blood flow between the right atrium and ventricle?
A) Tricuspid
B) Mitral
C) Pulmonary
D) Bicuspid
Q3) Into what stage would Erikson place a 24-month-old child to determine his or her psychological development?
A) Trust vs.mistrust
B) Autonomy vs.shame/doubt
C) Initiative vs.guilt
D) Intimacy vs.isolation
Q4) The resting metabolic rate of an infant is about the same as an adult.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) At what temperature can a geriatric patient be at risk for hypothermia?
A) Below 100.5° F
B) Above 94° F
C) Below 96.8° F
D) Above 99.6° F
Q2) A decrease in estrogen production can increase the risk for osteoporosis and heart disease in women.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is one of the three influences that affect the way an individual ages?
A) Type of medication being taken
B) Family status
C) Genetics
D) Retirement age
Q4) It is important to assess for multiple vaginal births in an older adult female patient because that data could indicate:
A) uterine and bladder prolapse.
B) ovarian cancer.
C) number of children.
D) presence of a pessary.

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Q1) Which is one of the three storage areas found within the perioperative area?
A) Contaminated instrument storage
B) Minimally invasive procedure room
C) Sterile supply room
D) Contaminated equipment storage
Q2) What is the recommended ratio of fresh air exchanges to recirculated air per hour in Class A ORs?
A) 5 air exchanges with 1 exchange of outside air
B) 10 air exchanges with 2 exchanges of outside air
C) 15 air exchanges per hour with 3 exchanges of outside air
D) 25 air exchanges with 5 exchanges of outside air
Q3) The operating bed should not be set up under a movable or track ceiling device. A)True B)False
Q4) It is desirable to have all ORs be the same size. A)True B)False
Q5) The OR sends instruments and supplies to the sterile processing department to be
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Q1) Depending on how the patient feels in PACU,he or she may drive home after a general anesthetic agent has been given.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients should receive preoperative instructions only when at their preadmission visit to the ASC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
Q4) When would a patient receive a follow-up phone call from a nurse at an ASC?
A) 4 hours after the procedure
B) Within 48 hours of the procedure
C) The following week
D) At the patient's postoperative visit with the surgeon
Q5) Medicare does not approve the use of ambulatory surgery centers and refers all its patients to inpatient hospital ORs for procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The furniture in the OR should be cleaned at least once a week.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Remove gloves first before taking off the gown,so as not to contaminate the front of the gown with dirty gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Before the first procedure of the day,what does the scrub person or circulator need to damp-dust in the OR before bringing supplies in for the first case of the day?
A) OR overhead lights and furniture
B) OR scrub sinks
C) Sterilizer interior wall surface
D) Air filter grill cover
Q4) It is necessary to wash your hands after removing gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Per AORN standards,a utility area should be cleaned once a week.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Women who are pregnant should not work in the OR because of the unavoidable health risks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is one way to reduce static electricity?
A) Cover patients with wool or warmer synthetic blankets.
B) Keep the drapes away from the anesthesia machine and reservoir bag.
C) Keep the relative humidity in the perioperative environment between 20% and 30%.
D) Turn power equipment on before plugging into an electrical outlet.
Q3) Which chemical sterilizing agent is the least toxic but has fumes that can be irritating to the eyes,nose,and throat?
A) Formaldehyde
B) Ethylene oxide
C) Glutaraldehyde
D) Phenol
Q4) Pregnant staff members are not exposed to radiation in any procedure in the OR.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which is the infectious process caused by exotoxins secreted by types of Staphylococcus aureus?
A) Septic shock
B) Plague
C) Toxic shock syndrome
D) Tuberculosis
Q2) Stomach acid provides what line of defense?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Q3) Which is an example of a helminthic disease?
A) Parasites
B) Bloodborne flukes
C) Influenza
D) Iatrogenic Creutzfeldt-Jakob
Q4) Bacteria are transmitted only through insect bites.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Once the patient's skin has been prepped with iodine solution,it is sterile and considered free of all flora.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is important to wash hands before entering the OR and after every patient contact.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the parameters of the sterile areas on the front of a gown?
A) From the neckline to the waist
B) From the chest level down to below the waist
C) From the chest level to the level of the sterile field
D) From the chest level down to knee level
Q4) Asepsis is another way of stating something is sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Every patient in the OR is considered infected.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Even though there are no visible signs of a tear in a glove,if a glove is thought to have been punctured,it should be changed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of wearing OR attire is to maintain uniformity among the operative team.
A)True
B)False
Q3) From what direction should one scrub the hands and arms?
A) From elbow to hand
B) From fingernail to elbow
C) Begin with wrist and end at elbow
D) It does not matter where one begins as long as all areas are scrubbed
Q4) Which is a type of personal protective equipment (PPE)used in the OR setting?
A) Scrub jacket
B) Eyeglasses
C) Gloves
D) Scrub top
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Q1) An ultrasonic cleaner sterilizes the instruments placed in it similar to a washer-sterilizer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Instruments may be immersed in which of the following solutions?
A) Ethyl alcohol
B) Distilled water
C) Saline solution
D) Chlorhexidine
Q3) Which disinfectant is safe to use for housekeeping purposes?
A) Formaldehyde
B) Alcohol
C) Glutaraldehyde
D) Ethylene oxide
Q4) What are the levels of disinfection?
A) High level,medium level,end level
B) High level,intermediate level,low level
C) High level,semi-high,low level
D) High level,medium level,low level
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Q1) A sterilized peel-pack pouch is considered sterile for only 30 days once it has been sterilized.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A case cart system is used to gather and deliver sterile and nonsterile items needed for a particular surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is a reason not to use a flash sterilizer?
A) Routine sterilization of a tray
B) Urgent or unplanned situations
C) If an instrument has been dropped
D) For immediate use of an item
Q4) What is the purpose of a Bowie-Dick test?
A) To determine the temperature of the sterilizer
B) To check for any residual microorganisms left in the sterilizer
C) To check for air entrapment in the prevacuum sterilizer
D) To determine whether the prevacuum sterilizer is cooling at the correct temperature
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Q1) Microinstruments are made of a shiny finish in order to visualize them better under the microscope.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is acceptable to use a hemostat to load a blade onto a knife handle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An instrument's box lock is the:
A) hinge point of surgical instruments.
B) case they are kept in to prevent damage.
C) protective tip that delicate instruments are given.
D) set of two rings that the user's fingers are inserted into.
Q4) Which statement regarding handing instruments at the sterile field is incorrect?
A) Handle instruments individually.
B) Pass instruments firmly and decisively.
C) Pass instruments directly over the incisional area.
D) Anticipate the surgeon's needs before being asked for an instrument.
Q5) The maximum length of most microinstruments is 4 inches (100 mm).
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What kind of current used in electrosurgery increases to produce an intense heat that sears the ends of small or moderate vessels?
A) Moderate
B) Coagulating
C) Cutting
D) Blended
Q2) Instruments used in or near the laser beam should be reflective to enhance the laser's effect on the tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of laser is useful in breaking up kidney stones?
A) Excimer
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Free electron
D) Ho:YAG
Q4) Which is an advantage of using the argon beam coagulator?
A) Increased air embolism
B) Beam weight lighter than air
C) Patent return electrode not required
D) Less plume created
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Q1) Upon arrival to the OR,what should be checked first by the circulating nurse?
A) Patient identity
B) Whether all personnel are present in the OR
C) Whether all equipment is in place
D) What procedure is to be performed
Q2) Why should an anesthesia provider see a patient for a preoperative assessment?
A) To select an appropriate anesthetic for the procedure
B) To allow the provider to charge for an official consultation before the case
C) To decide whether the provider wants to work on the patient during the procedure
D) To determine whether the provider likes the patient before working with him or her
Q3) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The family of the surgical patient should be included in preoperative teaching.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What type of radiologic study can accompany a cholecystectomy?
A) Bronchography
B) Cholangiography
C) Myelography
D) Fluoroscopy
Q2) What type of cancer treatment involves the partial removal of the tumor?
A) Endocrine therapy
B) Surgical palliation
C) Surgical debulking
D) Ablation of tumor
Q3) The use of vigorous scrubbing while prepping over underlying tumors is discouraged due to potential complications that could arise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a retained surgical item is removed from a patient,it is not necessary to send it to the pathology laboratory.
A)True
B)False

24
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Q1) What type of drug effect is manifested by the entire body?
A) Localized
B) Systemic
C) General
D) Diagnostic
Q2) Which is a gas not commonly found in the OR setting?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Medical air
Q3) When dispensing a drug that has been drawn up in a syringe using a needle,it should be delivered via the syringe without the injection needle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A) Official name
B) Chemical name
C) Brand name
D) Trade name
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Q1) Which is an indicator of a difficult airway?
A) A mobile cervical spine
B) Long neck
C) Enlarged tongue
D) Enlarged nares
Q2) Assisted respiration means that the patient's respiration rate and volume are being assisted by the anesthesia provider.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An ideal anesthetic agent should:
A) provide no amnesia.
B) have a slow onset and easy reversibility.
C) provide analgesia that ends at the end of the procedure.
D) have a low index of toxicity.
Q4) Which is an inhalation agent that is administered via facemask for a comfortable,rapid induction?
A) Desflurane
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Thiopental sodium
D) Propofol
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Q1) When is the baseline count done?
A) As the tray is being assembled
B) During the setup before the procedure
C) During the procedure
D) When the incision is being closed
Q2) Which is a responsibility of the circulating nurse as the patient enters the room for a surgical procedure?
A) Ask the patient for insurance information.
B) Introduce yourself to patient.
C) Ask the patient to remove street clothes and place them under stretcher.
D) Ask patient to sign the consent form.
Q3) Who is responsible for doing the initial count?
A) Circulating nurse
B) Anesthesia provider
C) Sterile processing staff
D) Surgeon
Q4) The ____________________ (scrub person or circulating nurse)keeps the instrument count sheets and verifies the instruments on the sterile field so that the baseline count is identical to the closing count.
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Q1) A donut is used to pad and protect only the head during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A sterile plastic isolation drape can be used for which procedures?
A) Hip procedures
B) Eye procedures
C) Perineal procedures
D) Hernia repair
Q3) Which is a serious complication of being in the prone position?
A) Back pain
B) Neck pain
C) Blindness
D) Deafness
Q4) What normal capillary interface pressure should be maintained to prevent pressure injuries?
A) 10-15 mm Hg
B) 15-20 mm Hg
C) 23-32 mm Hg
D) 35-40 mm Hg
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Q1) Which is a type of data that can be obtained from pulmonary artery monitoring?
A) Urine pH
B) Pulse oximetry
C) Urine output
D) Right atrial pressure
Q2) What sign indicates the pulmonary artery catheter is in the correct location?
A) An audible beep heard on the invasive monitor screen
B) A narrow downstroke followed by a single notch on the upstroke
C) A steep upstroke followed by a dicrotic notch on the downstroke
D) A tachycardic QRS waveform (heart rate 100 bpm or greater)
Q3) Which is a result that may occur when using the bispectral index (BIS)monitor during a surgical procedure?
A) Increased core temperature
B) Decreased pain levels
C) Reduced drug use
D) Decreased infection rate
Q4) Core body temperature refers to the entire body temperature including the interior and body surface.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which is a feature that does not apply to the Halsted suture technique?
A) When there is an infection present,silk suture is the preferred stitch.
B) Sutures are cut close to the knot.
C) A suture that is stronger than the tissue it holds should not be used.
D) Each skin stitch requires a separate needle.
Q2) What is one necessary specification of all suture materials?
A) Must be sterile when placed in tissue
B) As large a diameter as possible must be used to ensure proper hold
C) Removal must occur within 7 to 10 days postoperatively
D) Must be greatly reactive to skin and tissue to be effective
Q3) Which is a classification of suture?
A) Disposable
B) Absorbable
C) Reusable
D) Resorbable
Q4) Which is an organ or structure that lies within the peritoneal cavity?
A) Kidney
B) Small bowel
C) Bladder
D) Aorta
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Q1) A drain can enhance wound healing by:
A) preventing infection
B) increasing wound dead space
C) increasing seroma formation
D) preventing tissue devitalization
Q2) Radiopaque sponges are not to be used as part of the dressing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What layer below the dermis supports the muscle?
A) Sebaceous glands
B) Subcutaneous striated muscle
C) Fascia
D) Epidermis
Q4) A ____is a large growth that extends beyond the border of a scar.
A) hematoma
B) cicatrix
C) granuloma
D) keloid
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Q1) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on:
A) discharge.
B) family visitation.
C) circulation.
D) Documentation.
Q2) Report to the PACU nurse is given by:
A) the circulating nurse.
B) the OR charge nurse
C) the scrub person
D) the OR scheduling office
Q3) What is one purpose of the postoperative follow-up phone call?
A) To assess patient outcomes upon discharge
B) To avoid a pending lawsuit by the patient or family members
C) To improve patient satisfaction scores on future surveys
D) To satisfy insurance company demands for follow-up
Q4) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A) Palpating the surgical incision
B) Applying a TENS unit and observing the patient
C) Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D) Using the FACES scale

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Q1) Cardiac compression: ____________________
Q2) How does the body compensate for mild hypoxia?
A) Decreased heart rate and increased respiratory rate
B) Increased heart rate and increased respiratory rate
C) Decreased heart rate and decreased respiratory rate
D) Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure
Q3) Major blood loss is about 30% to 45% of total blood volume (TBV).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is an example of vasodilator drugs?
A) Verapamil and propranolol
B) Atropine and Ditropan
C) Nipride and nitroglycerin
D) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Q5) Emergency tracheotomy: ____________________
Q6) What are some signs that CPR is effective?
A) Dilated pupils
B) Palpable pulse
C) Intermittent heartbeat
D) Dusky mucous membranes
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Q1) Which is a type of material used in radiographic-assisted endoscopy?
A) Saline
B) Ho: YAG
C) Argon
D) Contrast media
Q2) Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES)is a newer form of endoscopic surgery in which only two incisions are made on the patient's abdomen to remove an appendix or a gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only one monitor is recommended to be used during a laparoscopic procedure so that all team members are looking at the same image at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Incisions of 5 mm made in adults for an endoscopic procedure are closed at the fascial level using a heavy suture.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A/an _____ amputation is performed at the lower third of the thigh.
Q2) What type of mastectomy involves a wedge or quadrant of breast tissue being removed?
A) Radical
B) Simple
C) Segmental
D) Modified radical
Q3) Which is a function of the liver?
A) Forms blood elements
B) Secretes insulin
C) Synthesizes cholesterol
D) Stores white blood cells
Q4) A _____ breast biopsy is taken when a biopsy needle is inserted into the mass and tissue is retrieved for histologic examination.
A) fine needle aspiration
B) core biopsy
C) stereotactic breast biopsy
D) excisional
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Q1) Which of the following applies to both vaginal and abdominopelvic procedures in gynecologic surgery?
A) Patient position
B) Identical instrumentation
C) Placement of Foley catheter
D) Prophylactic anticoagulation
Q2) Use of a fetal monitor is recommended in surgical procedures after 16 weeks gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What term describes the herniation of the rectum into the vagina?
A) Enterocele
B) Hydrocele
C) Cystocele
D) Rectocele
Q4) Which is a symptom of a vesicovaginal fistula?
A) Rectal contents into the vagina
B) Endometriosis
C) Urine seepage into the vagina
D) Fecal incontinence

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Q1) What size is the usual adult cystoscope?
A) 25 Fr
B) 29 Fr
C) 21 Fr
D) 70 Fr
Q2) Before transsexual surgery,a patient must undergo individual and family counseling to prepare for the transition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Males are more predisposed to urinary tract infections because of the location of the urethra to the anus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of procedure uses shock waves to break up and fragment a renal calculus?
A) Percutaneous nephrostolithotomy
B) ESWL
C) Percutaneous chemolysis
D) Cystoscopy
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Q1) Surgical fusion of joint
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Arthrodesis
H)Dislocation
I)Hallux valgus
Q2) Which is a component of a total knee replacement?
A) Femoral head component
B) Tibial stem component
C) Patellar component
D) Humeral head component
Q3) Which is a method of fixation used in total joint arthroplasty procedures?
A) Biofixation
B) Gelfoam
C) Laser
D) Reaming
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Q1) Abnormal vascular communication
A)Subdural hematoma
B)Cerebral edema
C)Epilepsy
D)Intractable pain
E)Trigeminal neuralgia
F)Arteriovenous malformation
Q2) Which is one of the most common brain tumors?
A) Basal cell sarcoma
B) Glioblastoma multiforme
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Cranioglioma
Q3) Which is a measure taken during a craniotomy to decrease blood loss?
A) Hyperthermia
B) Lithotomy position
C) Neuroradiology
D) Controlled hypotension
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Q1) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What classification of spinal cord injury is evident when some sensory and motor impulses are still present?
A) Complete
B) Incomplete
C) Sensory
D) Percutaneous
Q3) Which type of spinal tumor is more common in females and common in the cervical and thoracic areas?
A) Ependymoma tumor
B) Intradural
C) Intraspinal intramedullary
D) Hemangioblastoma
Q4) A hemangioblastoma is a vascular tumor more commonly found in the cervical or thoracic area.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which is a possible complication with implanting an intraoperative lens (IOL)after cataract removal?
A) Corneal opacity
B) Superior spatial orientation
C) Permanency of device
D) Unrestricted dilation of pupil
Q2) Tearing away
A)Ptosis
B)Pterygium
C)Keratotomy
D)Chalazion
E)Keratoplasty
F)Iridectomy
G)Cataract
H)Gas tamponade
I)Vitrectomy
J)Avulsion
K)Dilation of pupil
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Q1) Removal of excess abdominal skin
A)Rhytidoplasty
B)Rhinoplasty
C)Blepharoplasty
D)Otoplasty
E)Liposuction
F)Mentoplasty
G)Panniculectomy
H)Plication
I)Z-plasty
J)Mohs' micrograph
K)Dermabrasion
Q2) Which type of surgical treatment is preferred for deep partial-thickness burns of the hands,arms,or legs?
A) Excisional debridement
B) Escharectomy
C) Tangential excision
D) Partial hyperbaric oxygen
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Q1) In a case involving the ear,nose,or throat,the laser of choice to shrink or debulk a tissue by use of coagulation would be a:
A) CO laser.
B) Nd:YAG laser.
C) KTP laser.
D) Argon beam laser.
Q2) Which of the following is a test of hearing sensitivity?
A) Acoustical radiogram test
B) Acoustic reflex latency test
C) Audio refractive potential test
D) Auditory brainwave test
Q3) What kind of craniofacial defect is characterized by an abnormal increase in the bony distance between the eyes?
A) Treacher Collins syndrome
B) Apert syndrome
C) Crouzon disease
D) Hypertelorism
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Q1) Which ribs have no fixation anteriorly?
A) 5th,6th,and 7th ribs
B) 7th and 8th ribs
C) 8th,9th,and 10th ribs
D) 11th and 12th ribs
Q2) Which lung has three lobes and a straighter bronchus?
A) Left
B) Right lower
C) Left lower
D) Right
Q3) What type of device is used to prolong resuscitation after a patient is removed from cardiopulmonary bypass?
A) BCMA
B) ACLS
C) CPRS
D) ECMO
Q4) A mediastinoscopy may be performed using a needle and syringe.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which type of valve consists of the pulmonary valve and aortic valve?
A) Atrioventricular
B) Tricuspid
C) Mitral
D) Semilunar
Q2) Which is a piece of equipment that every cardiac OR should contain?
A) MRI
B) Defibrillator
C) Argon beam coagulator
D) Video tower console
Q3) What component of the cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB)machine regulates body temperature?
A) Pump
B) Oxygenator
C) Heat exchanger
D) Perfusion fluid
Q4) Elevated levels of potassium help protect the heart and assist in improved cardiac function.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which is a predisposing factor to venous stasis disease?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Low socioeconomic status
C) Obesity
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) Pulverizing of plaque by a high-speed burr
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q3) Which of the following may be used for DVT prophylaxis during a vascular surgical procedure?
A) Pulse oximeter,hemodialysis catheter
B) Sequential compression sleeves,anticoagulant therapy
C) Sandbags,urokinase
D) Cell saver,pulse volume recorder
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Q1) Transplantations to an anatomically abnormal location
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q2) Donor is also the recipient of the tissue
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q3) Within 24 hours,transplanted organ is removed
A)Hyperacute
B)Accelerated
C)Acute
D)Chronic
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