Perioperative Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Perioperative Nursing focuses on the specialized care provided to patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. This course covers the roles and responsibilities of the perioperative nurse, principles of aseptic technique, surgical safety, patient assessment, and management throughout the perioperative phases preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative. Students learn about various surgical environments, collaboration within multidisciplinary teams, patient advocacy, and the use of advanced technology and equipment. Emphasis is placed on ensuring patient safety, minimizing risks, controlling infections, effective communication, and providing holistic care tailored to individual patient needs in the surgical setting.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 12th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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1290 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of an aesthetic procedure would be a:
A) cesarean section.
B) breast reconstruction.
C) tissue biopsy.
D) facelift.
Answer: D
Q2) A tour of the perioperative environment can help decrease the learner's anxiety before beginning a perioperative program.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Preceptor
A)Works with orientees and learners according to a prescribed task-oriented lesson plan
B)Has more experience with personnel and the OR's climate;provides insight into the department's social atmosphere
C)Staff member who is emulated and respected for his or her clinical competence
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ____ should document in writing the outcome of the final counts as correct or incorrect at the end of the procedure.
A) scrub person
B) surgeon
C) anesthesiologist
D) circulating nurse
Answer: D
Q2) Which identifies one aspect of safe patient movement from the OR table to the stretcher?
A) The circulating nurse counts to synchronize the patient's movement.
B) The person guiding the head counts to synchronize the movement.
C) The person at the left side of the patient also guides the head and counts to start the movement.
D) Two people are needed to move an anesthetized patient from table to stretcher. Answer: B
Q3) Access to health care is a privilege of every human being.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which component is included in an informed consent?
A) Risks and benefits
B) Cost of surgery
C) DNR orders
D) Length of hospital stay
Answer: A
Q2) Can correction fluid be used to correct an error written on the patient's chart?
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) A 17-year-old mentally competent person can execute a living will or an advance directive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Professional associations do not recommend that health care workers do not carry professional liability insurance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does credentialing exist?
A) To create revenue for the nursing profession
B) To maintain quality of the personnel's education and performance
C) To encourage professionals to further their education
D) To remain competitive with the medical profession
Q2) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A perioperative nurse may initially obtain a CNOR certification:
A) after being in clinical preoperative practice for 1 year.
B) after working 5 years in the intensive care unit setting.
C) once he or she has passed a national exam set forth by CCI.
D) after reading five AORN journal articles and precepting five new perioperative employees.
Q4) An anesthesia assistant is a master's-prepared physician nonnurse anesthetist who administers anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knot tying for conventional surgery is performed using the:
A) one-handed tie.
B) freehanded tie.
C) two-handed tie.
D) backhanded tie.
Q2) The first assistant usually assists in closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why is intraoperative suturing performed?
A) To remove a tissue mass
B) To dissolve a tumor or benign mass
C) Evidence that the procedure was performed as scheduled
D) To stabilize an organ
Q4) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The control of ____________________ and ____________________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infection control committee investigates hospital-acquired infections and seeks to prevent or control them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is one aspect of downward violence in the workplace?
A) Physical abuse towards one's peers
B) Verbal abuse directed towards a lower-ranked employee
C) Verbal abuse towards one's administrative staff
D) Emotional abuse aimed at patient's families
Q4) A manager is one administrator who implements and enforces hospital and departmental policies and procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The head nurse or charge nurse acts as a liaison between staff members and administrative personnel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) What form of diabetes mellitus involves the pancreas producing little or no insulin and usually occurs in juveniles and adults up to 40 years of age?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Diabetes associated with other syndromes
Q2) What is one step a circulator can take when treating a patient who does not speak the same language being used in the operating room?
A) Speak loud and slow to the patient.
B) Write all instructions on paper for patient or family to read.
C) Use an interpreter to share information.
D) Insist that the patient understands basic instructions before entering the OR.
Q3) What does the "no-touch" technique mean?
A) The skin over the site of a tumor is not cleaned or prepped before the procedure.
B) Vigorous scrubbing is needed to clean and prep the skin over a tumor site.
C) The tumor is handled as little as possible during its removal.
D) The skin over the tumor site is to be manipulated before prepping.
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which principle of surgical instrumentation in pediatric procedures is correct?
A) The size and weight of the instruments used are the same as the ones used for adult procedures.
B) Surgical instruments used during pediatric procedures must be made of plastic materials to decrease their weight.
C) Instruments not in use should never be placed on the patient during a procedure.
D) Mosquito hemostats are rarely used to clamp vessels.
Q2) Talipes ____ means the forefoot is inverted and talipes ____ means the forefoot is everted.
A) venous;valgus
B) varus;valgus
C) equines;various
D) venous;verigated
Q3) Which is one of the "rule of tens" in regard to cleft lip repair?
A) Over 10 years in age
B) 10 % of body fat
C) Less than 10 cm of lip tissue
D) 10 pounds in body weight
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older adult patient should be allowed to wear a hearing-assist device into the operating room.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which measurement is a vital sign that should be recorded in older adults?
A) Eye color
B) Number of children
C) Weight
D) Waist circumference
Q3) Life expectancy has increased with major advancements in the study of:
A) disease processes.
B) geriatric psychology
C) use of pilates and yoga intervention
D) taking extra vitamins.
Q4) Which is one of the effects of psychosocial isolation in the older adult?
A) Improved memory
B) Improved hearing ability
C) Decreased infection rate due to isolation
D) Multisystem decline
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the components of a substerile room?
A) Instrument decontamination sink
B) Medication storage cabinet
C) Anesthesia intubation cart
D) Steam sterilizer
Q2) How many clocks should be in each OR?
A) At least three
B) One
C) Two
D) None
Q3) Which is one use of the OR ceiling?
A) Surface mount for lighting devices
B) Blood barrier
C) Location of the air conditioning unit
D) Storage site for overhead equipment
Q4) The OR sends instruments and supplies to the sterile processing department to be ____________________,____________________,____________________ ,and ____________________.
Q5) The OR atmospheric environment should be maintained within a temperature range of ____________________ and ____________________% humidity.
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical
Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When would a patient receive a follow-up phone call from a nurse at an ASC?
A) 4 hours after the procedure
B) Within 48 hours of the procedure
C) The following week
D) At the patient's postoperative visit with the surgeon
Q2) When taking a verbal order either in person or over the phone,what must be done to ensure the correct order will be implemented?
A) Call another physician to verify the order is right.
B) Check with the head nurse for accuracy.
C) Read back the verbal order or results to the person delivering the information.
D) Ask another nurse to take the call to receive the order.
Q3) While a patient is awake during a procedure under local anesthesia,it is better to use hand signals as a way to ask for instruments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ASCs may take emergency patients and usually employ more than 50 employees. A)True B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does "turnover time" include?
A) Cleanup time including a short break for the scrub person
B) Cleaning up after one procedure and setting up for the next
C) The amount of time needed to call up a report and transfer the patient to PACU
D) The time period when the patient is awakened from anesthesia and placed on the stretcher to go to PACU
Q2) An accepted way to transport large used or contaminated items to the decontamination area after a case is finished is to:
A) wrap them in dry towels and carefully carry them to the decontamination area.
B) find an unused prep table and slowly roll them to the appropriate area.
C) place them on an open case cart,with heavy items or instruments on the bottom shelf,with a plastic drape,and roll to the appropriate area.
D) rinse the used items in the scrub sink then carry them in plastic bags to the decontamination area.
Q3) The furniture in the OR should be cleaned at least once a week.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which item in the OR could cause a fire or explosion?
A) Nylon suture
B) IV tubing
C) Oxygen or nitrous oxide gas
D) Saline soaked sponges
Q2) If a fire occurs in the OR during a surgical procedure,which action can the scrub person assist with at the sterile field?
A) Use a towel to fan the area over the fire to assist with lowering the smoke that is created.
B) Place a dry sterile towel or laparotomy tape over the fire source to contain it.
C) Place a metal basin over the source of fire to prevent its spread.
D) Use saline soaked towels or laparotomy tapes to smother the fire on the field.
Q3) Which are examples of infectious waste?
A) Blood and blood products
B) Instrument tray wrappers
C) Unused sponges from the prep tray
D) Unused drapes
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the four phases of bacteria's reproduction stage?
A) Birth phase
B) Development phase
C) Lag phase
D) Working phase
Q2) Which are two examples of diseases caused by exotoxins?
A) Tuberculosis,acute respiratory infection
B) Influenza,anthrax
C) Diphtheria,leprosy
D) Otitis media,E.coli
Q3) What is the name of the procedures strictly followed to protect all personnel from contact with blood and bodily fluids?
A) The Golden Rule
B) Universal precautions
C) Standard precautions
D) HIPAA precautions
Q4) Bacteria have membrane-bound organelles with a nucleus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a disinfectant alone will reduce microbial flora on objects used in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is an example of impervious barriers used in a surgical procedure?
A) Sterile drapes
B) OR bed sheet
C) Plastic pillowcase cover
D) Clean garbage liner
Q3) OR lights should be cleaned once weekly to prevent the spread of microorganisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the margin of safety regarding the inside of a sterile package?
A) The inside is considered sterile to within 1 inch of the edges.
B) The inside is considered sterile to within 11/2 inches of the edges.
C) The inside is considered sterile to within 2 inches of the edges.
D) The inside is sterile to the edge of the package.
Q5) Every patient in the OR is considered infected.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to take home one's scrubs to launder them after working in the OR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A surgical mask must be changed if it becomes wet.
B) A new mask must be worn with each patient.
C) Masks should be handled by the face part and not the strings.
D) Masks are worn at all times in the restricted areas of the OR suite.
Q3) Even though there are no visible signs of a tear in a glove,if a glove is thought to have been punctured,it should be changed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The scrub person may open the sterile gown on the back table and use an open gloving method.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is acceptable to use a closed gloving technique during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-level disinfection is not effective against Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).
A)True
B)False
Q2) Pasteurization is a commonly used method to sterilize critical and surgical instrumentation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is a disadvantage of using ultraviolet (UV)irradiation as a means of disinfection?
A) The rays can kill selective vegetative bacteria,fungi,and lipoprotein viruses.
B) UV rays may cause skin burns.
C) UV rays produce nonionizing radiant energy.
D) Pathogens have effective contact with the UV rays for destruction.
Q4) An ultrasonic cleaner sterilizes the instruments placed in it similar to a washer-sterilizer.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the sterilizer door is opened,wrapped instruments must be removed immediately to begin cooling and drying on a cool surface.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When assembling instrument trays,sharp instruments should be placed on the bottom of the tray to prevent injury when removing instruments from the tray.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When loading a dry heat sterilizer,it must be loaded to the fullest capacity with no space wasted so as to use the energy efficiently.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a requirement for the time an item has to spend in the sterilization cycle?
A) No more than two pieces of sterilization tape
B) Increased exposure to bioburden
C) Evacuation and dissipation of the sterilization agent
D) Lack of biologic indicator
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which suction device is best used in the mouth or throat?
A) Poole
B) Frazier
C) Yankauer
D) Double-lumen
Q2) What type of forceps might be used when suturing the epidermis closed?
A) Bayonet forceps
B) Rat-toothed forceps
C) Adson forceps with teeth
D) Allis forceps
Q3) An instrument's box lock is the:
A) hinge point of surgical instruments.
B) case they are kept in to prevent damage.
C) protective tip that delicate instruments are given.
D) set of two rings that the user's fingers are inserted into.
Q4) Wait until the end of the procedure to wipe and clean instruments of blood or bodily fluids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of laser is most effective at coagulation?
A) CO laser
B) Ho:YAG
C) KTP
D) Nd:YAG
Q2) Instruments used in or near the laser beam should be reflective to enhance the laser's effect on the tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What item should be on the sterile field while an ESU is being used during a procedure?
A) Dry sponges
B) A full basin of saline to immerse the ESU between use
C) A suction evacuator device
D) Monopolar ESU
Q4) Which is an advantage of using lasers in the perioperative setting?
A) Low start-up cost for a facility laser program
B) Extra training or credentialing of staff not required
C) Minimal postoperative pain and scarring
D) Hospital setting required for most cases
22
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Choose the test that would routinely be needed before a procedure.
A) Recent history and physical
B) Acupuncture results
C) Psychological assessment
D) DSM IV results
Q3) In order to protect the patient's privacy,the circulating nurse should only refer to the patient by the procedure he or she is having when speaking to the patient or in the OR with other perioperative staff.
A)True B)False
Q4) Once the patient has entered the OR,he or she is sedated enough so as not to be cognizant of what is happening,so it is acceptable for the circulating nurse to remain on the other side of the room attending to paperwork and staying away from the patient.
A)True B)False
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Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a behavior that can be taught to patients to lower the risk of cancer?
A) Increase intake of antiinflammatory medications while exposed to sunlight
B) Use a sunscreen lotion with SPF of at least 5
C) Increase daily caloric intake
D) Avoid exposure to secondhand smoke
Q2) What type of radiologic study can accompany a cholecystectomy?
A) Bronchography
B) Cholangiography
C) Myelography
D) Fluoroscopy
Q3) What type of procedure does not enter the patient's body and uses equipment placed near the patient's skin?
A) Invasive
B) Interventional
C) Noninvasive
D) Percutaneous
Q4) Angiography assists in the diagnosis of AV malformations,aneurysms,tumors,or vascular accidents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) As long as the circulating nurse verifies the drug with the scrub person as it is being dispensed,it is not necessary for the scrub person to verify the name of the drug with the surgeon as it is being handed up for use.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a gas not commonly found in the OR setting?
A) Oxygen
B) Carbon monoxide
C) Nitrogen
D) Medical air
Q3) What items on the sterile field need to be labeled with a drug's name,strength,and amount once it is received on the field?
A) The drug's container and syringe
B) The needle holder
C) The retractor used before injecting the drug
D) The hypodermic needle used to inject the drug
Q4) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which system can monitor the effects of anesthesia on the brain during a procedure?
A) DTS
B) IMV
C) BIS
D) GPS
Q2) What position should a patient be in when receiving spinal anesthesia?
A) Supine
B) Prone
C) Lithotomy
D) Lateral
Q3) In a local case,a surgeon may administer the anesthetic in the absence of an anesthesia provider.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which term describes a method of anesthesia production?
A) Balanced
B) Moderate
C) Complete
D) Provisional
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not an example of the economical use of supplies in the OR?
A) Combining contaminated trash with noncontaminated trash
B) Turning off lights when not needed
C) Opening sutures only as needed
D) Pouring just enough antiseptic solution for the skin prep
Q2) The splash basin is a popular item used during the case to hold fluids for washing powder off the surgical team's gloves and also to hold irrigation fluid that will be used to irrigate the surgical wound.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Counted sharps must not be taken from the OR during the surgical procedure. A)True
B)False
Q4) Instrument counts are recommended for all surgical procedures. A)True
B)False
Q5) When packs or sets have been wrapped with double wrappers,the outer wrap is considered the ____________________,and the inner wrap is considered the
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient is prone,chest rolls are placed along the middle of the chest from the shoulder to the lower rib cage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The patient return electrode should always be placed after the patient is in position for the procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When positioning a patient on the OR bed in lithotomy position,the patient's arms and hands should be placed on the chest to prevent pressure ulcers from forming on the wrist.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a reason to catheterize a patient during a surgical procedure?
A) To decrease postoperative pain
B) To permit accurate output measurement
C) To prevent urine leakage on the OR table
D) To expedite a patient's recovery period
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a type of data that can be obtained from pulmonary artery monitoring?
A) Urine pH
B) Pulse oximetry
C) Urine output
D) Right atrial pressure
Q2) Which is a positioning consideration that must be assured when assisting a physician in placing a subclavian or jugular vein catheter?
A) Turn the patient's head towards the insertion site.
B) Flex the patient's head toward the chest.
C) Elevate the scapular area.
D) Place the patient's head in a 0 degree Trendelenburg's position.
Q3) What does an electrocardiogram (ECG)show?
A) Rate of respirations including inspirations
B) Cardiac output index
C) Blood pressure
D) Waveforms reflecting electrical forces
Q4) Capnometry measures end-tidal concentration of carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
29
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions, implants, and Wound
Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for a suture ligature?
A) Tie on a passer
B) Stick tie
C) Free tie
D) Kittner
Q2) Which statement is true regarding a stainless steel suture?
A) A stainless steel suture is very elastic.
B) Stainless steel may not be used when an infection is present.
C) Stainless steel is used in the respiratory tract.
D) Stainless steel is cut only with Mayo suture scissors.
Q3) Which is an example of a synthetic nonabsorbable polymer?
A) Dermal silk
B) Surgical cotton
C) Stainless steel suture
D) Surgical nylon
Q4) Which is a feature that does not apply to the Halsted suture technique?
A) When there is an infection present,silk suture is the preferred stitch.
B) Sutures are cut close to the knot.
C) A suture that is stronger than the tissue it holds should not be used.
D) Each skin stitch requires a separate needle.
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Q1) Wound disruption is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
A) Bradycardia
B) Abnormal discharge and change in the contour of the wound
C) Increased bowel gas pressure
D) Increased blood pressure
Q2) Why is a nasogastric tube inserted during an intraabdominal procedure?
A) To insert tube feeding contents
B) To insert air into esophagus
C) To aspirate stomach contents
D) To cauterize bleeding in stomach
Q3) The hemostatic scalpel uses argon gas to provide rapid hemostasis by monopolar coagulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is not an influence on the ease with which a skin incision is made?
A) Type of knife handle
B) Size of the knife blade
C) Toughness of skin or scar tissue
D) Thickness of subcutaneous tissue
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Q1) Report to the PACU nurse is given by:
A) the circulating nurse.
B) the OR charge nurse
C) the scrub person
D) the OR scheduling office
Q2) Which is one piece of equipment needed for each patient bed space in the PACU:
A) Linen container
B) Suction equipment
C) Computer monitor for documentation
D) Bedside table
Q3) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A) Address
B) Insurance information
C) Positioning information
D) Name of scrub person
Q4) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on:
A) discharge.
B) family visitation.
C) circulation.
D) Documentation.
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) Which is an intraoperative factor that can increase a patient's risk of developing a respiratory complication?
A) Type of preoperative medication
B) Blood type
C) ASA classification
D) Braden score
Q2) What type of autotransfusion system for blood collection collects the blood and then anticoagulates it before transfusion?
A) Automated cell salvage processor
B) Chest tube collection system
C) IVF collection bag
D) Jackson-Pratt reservoir
Q3) Defibrillation: ____________________
Q4) What can occur due to infusion of cold IV fluids?
A) Air embolism
B) Hypertension
C) Venous stasis
D) Venospasm
Q5) Cardiac compression: ____________________
Q6) Emergency tracheotomy: ____________________
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) For what reason may a hand-assisted access sleeve be used in a laparoscopic procedure?
A) To keep the surgeon's hands warm during the procedure
B) To allow insertion of the surgeon's hand to palpate or grasp an organ
C) To place pressure on a vessel that is bleeding
D) To lose the peritoneum and convert to an open procedure
Q2) After an endoscopic procedure,it is acceptable to evacuate the CO into the room air because the OR staff is wearing masks.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Only one monitor is recommended to be used during a laparoscopic procedure so that all team members are looking at the same image at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One advantage of robotic-assisted surgery is the inexpensive equipment needed to perform the procedures.
A)True
B)False
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34
Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) What procedure involves creating a right paramedic or upper midline abdominal incision?
A) Lung resection
B) Cholecystectomy
C) Appendectomy
D) Subtotal gastrectomy
Q2) What type of procedure may be performed in patients with an obstructing pyloric ulcer?
A) Vagoplasty
B) Mammoplasty
C) Vagotomy
D) Pyloroplasty
Q3) What procedure removes the entire stomach to eliminate malignant lesions?
A) Subtotal gastrectomy
B) Total gastrectomy
C) Total vagotomy
D) Total pyloroplasty
Q4) Colitis is one reason a hemicolectomy or total colectomy may be performed. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Which is a part of the female external genitalia that make up the vulva?
A) Labia majora
B) Fallopian tubes
C) Cervix
D) Bilateral ovaries
Q2) Which is a form of prenatal testing?
A) Serum CA 125
B) Pomeroy technique testing
C) Chorionic villus sampling
D) Chromopertubation
Q3) What type of test is done to test fallopian tube patency?
A) Tubal curettage
B) Tubal ligation
C) Tubal biopsy
D) Tubal insufflation
Q4) Which is the opening to the uterus?
A) Bartholin's glands
B) Hymen
C) Cervix
D) Clitoris
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) Accumulated fluid in scrotum
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q2) Which is a function of renal dialysis?
A) Increase removal of urine
B) Removal of waste products
C) Increase blood pressure
D) Increase production of renin
Q3) Cystoscopy procedures are not sterile so they do not require the use of masks or a sterile field.
A)True
B)False
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is acceptable to flash-sterilize a prosthetic implant such as an acetabulum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Surgical fusion of joint
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Arthrodesis
H)Dislocation
I)Hallux valgus
Q3) Which type of total joint replacement involves the humeral head and glenoid cavity?
A) Total knee
B) Total ankle
C) Total wrist
D) Total shoulder
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38
Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A corpus callosotomy is performed to prevent secondary generalized seizures a patient may have.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tic douloureux
A)Subdural hematoma
B)Cerebral edema
C)Epilepsy
D)Intractable pain
E)Trigeminal neuralgia
F)Arteriovenous malformation
Q3) A galea is defined as:
A) a tough,highly vascular tissue over the cranium.
B) the skin layer over vessels and muscles in the brain.
C) lining of the cranium and spinal cord.
D) the circulating fluid that helps to bathe the brain.
Q4) Mannitol is given to increase intracranial pressure (ICP)in patients with intracranial hemorrhage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Q1) Which type of spinal tumor is more common in females and common in the cervical and thoracic areas?
A) Ependymoma tumor
B) Intradural
C) Intraspinal intramedullary
D) Hemangioblastoma
Q2) What part of the spine is formed by the connection of the posterior laminae?
A) Vertebral arch
B) Central foramen
C) Spinous process
D) Lumbar plexus
Q3) Which type of diagnostic tool is most effective at diagnosing spinal injuries?
A) Radiograph
B) PET scan
C) Ultrasound
D) MRI
Q4) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) Which is a classification of cataracts?
A) Congenital
B) Intermediate
C) Opaque
D) Full thickness
Q2) What is removal of the entire eyeball and the severing of the muscular attachments called?
A) Innervation
B) Enucleation
C) Exenteration
D) Extirpation
Q3) A dacryocystectomy creates a new opening into the nasal cavity and a new tear drainage system is constructed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a device used to estimate intraocular pressure (IOP)?
A) A corneal trephine
B) A Geissen eye ruler
C) An air-puff device
D) A phacoemulsifier to measure fluid pressure
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Revising the shape and size of the chin
A)Rhytidoplasty
B)Rhinoplasty
C)Blepharoplasty
D)Otoplasty
E)Liposuction
F)Mentoplasty
G)Panniculectomy
H)Plication
I)Z-plasty
J)Mohs' micrograph
K)Dermabrasion
Q2) What might be included in typical preoperative instructions for a patient about to undergo an elective plastic surgical procedure?
A) Avoid eating red meat for a week before surgery.
B) Avoid aspirin and smoking for at least 2 weeks before surgery.
C) No heavy lifting for 2 months before surgery.
D) Ensure all tattoos are removed prior to surgery
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) Which type of bite disorder presents as a receding chin when one or both jaws are more posterior?
A) Retrognathism
B) Prognathism
C) Apertognathism
D) Micrognathism
Q2) Which anatomic structure lies between the hypopharynx superiorly and the trachea inferiorly?
A) Larynx
B) Thyroid gland
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Pharynx
Q3) Which is a type of major salivary glands?
A) Suboral
B) Subarticular
C) Submandibular
D) Suborbital
Q4) Patients having a procedure,such as a laryngoscopy,that involves the use of a laser should have their eyelids ____________________ and their face covered with a
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ribs have no fixation anteriorly?
A) 5th,6th,and 7th ribs
B) 7th and 8th ribs
C) 8th,9th,and 10th ribs
D) 11th and 12th ribs
Q2) Which is a reason for inserting an airway stent?
A) Alternative to endotracheal intubation
B) Palliative care for obstruction of neoplasm
C) To prevent postoperative bleeding
D) To assist with laser use in the thoracic cavity
Q3) Which is a factor that influences the choice of incisions for thoracic surgery?
A) Patient age
B) Surgeon preference
C) Intrapleural pressure
D) Hemodynamic quality
Q4) A thymectomy is performed to relieve the symptoms of what disease?
A) Graves' disease
B) Tuberculosis
C) Bronchospasm
D) Myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where does the impulse for cardiac contraction originate?
A) Superior vena cava
B) Inferior vena cava
C) Sinoatrial (SA)node
D) Vagus nerve
Q2) Cold treatment to treat dysrhythmias
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)AbioCor
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q3) The intraaortic balloon pump (IABP)helps to increase coronary artery pressures and increase cardiac output.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uses streptokinase to dissolve a thrombus in an occluded vessel?
A) Endarterectomy
B) Thrombolytic therapy
C) Embolectomy
D) Fluoroscopy
Q2) What equipment is used to anastomose veins?
A) Bovie
B) Vessel loop
C) Laser
D) Gigli saw
Q3) Method to vaporize arterial plaque
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Q1) Tissue typing,or histocompatibility testing,is the detection of what substance known to affect rejection?
A) Complex assays
B) Cell-surface antigens
C) Cyclosporine
D) Prostaglandin
Q2) Transplantation to normal recipient site
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
Q3) Donor is also the recipient of the tissue
A)Allografts
B)Autografts
C)Isografts
D)Xenografts
E)Orthotopic transplants
F)Heterotopic transplants
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