Perioperative Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Perioperative Nursing focuses on the specialized care provided to patients before, during, and after surgical procedures. This course covers the fundamental principles of infection control, patient assessment, surgical asepsis, anesthesia considerations, and intraoperative techniques. Students will learn about the roles and responsibilities of perioperative nurses, including preoperative preparation, intraoperative assistance, and postoperative care. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, communication within the surgical team, ethical and legal aspects, and the management of perioperative complications. Through theoretical and practical learning, students are prepared to deliver holistic, evidence-based care throughout the surgical experience.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1285 Page 2
Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Entry-level education for perioperative practice prepares nurses to be A)urologists.
B)orthopedists.
C)neurologists.
D)generalists.
Answer: D
Q2) The perioperative caregiver should display attributes and communication skills that inspire confidence and trust in patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Describe one way a relatively safe procedure can rapidly become a catastrophic or fatal event.
A)Preoperative patient anxiety
B)Postoperative pain
C)Unknown patient allergies
D)Subjective responses to OR activities
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Access to health care is a privilege of every human being.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) Health care providers are required to sign a document acknowledging policies,procedures,and HIPPA laws.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Which event is included on Medicare's "No Pay List" and will not be reimbursed?
A)Myocardial infarction
B)Wrong site surgery
C)Documented Alzheimer's
D)Incision and drainage of a chronic hip abscess
Answer: B
Q4) Surgical conscience is considered the Golden Rule: Do unto the patient as you would have others do unto you.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a reportable sentinel event?
A)Surgery on the wrong site
B)Any near miss
C)Going into surgery 3 hours late
D)Unsuccessful suicide attempt
Answer: A
Q2) ____________________ consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.
Answer: Abandonment
Abandonment consists of leaving the patient for any reason when the patient's condition is contingent on the presence of the caregiver.If the caregiver leaves the room knowing there is a potential need for care during his or her absence,even under the order of a physician,the caregiver is liable for his or her own actions.
Q3) A 17-year-old mentally competent person can execute a living will or an advance directive.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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5
Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a member of the sterile perioperative team?
A)Scrub person
B)Anesthesia provider
C)Circulating nurse
D)Radiograph technician
Q3) Which member of the sterile team provides exposure and hemostasis during a surgical procedure?
A)Anesthesia provider
B)Circulating nurse
C)Sales representative
D)First assistant
Q4) Which is a member of the nonsterile perioperative team?
A)Surgeon
B)Circulating nurse
C)Scrub person
D)First assistant
6
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q2) AORN is the official accrediting body for the surgical technologist.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first assistant usually assists in positioning the patient,surgical site exposure,closing skin incisions and applying dressings.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It is in the scope of the surgical technologists practice to hold retractors if asked by the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
Q6) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ thinking is a way to improve the quality of care and help set standards to meet the needs of the facility and patient population.
Q2) Which communication tool involves being continually vigilant for progress or regression of goals?
A)SBAR
B)Team STEPPS
C)Hands-free communication
D)STEP
Q3) The head nurse or charge nurse acts as a liaison between staff members and administrative personnel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is one aspect of downward violence in the workplace?
A)Physical abuse towards one's peers
B)Verbal abuse directed towards a lower-ranked employee
C)Verbal abuse towards one's administrative staff
D)Emotional abuse aimed at patient's families
Q5) An effective infection control program aims to reduce the ________________ of infection and control ______________.
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for a victim of sexual trauma to regain a sense of control and security,the caregiver must
A)not wear gloves and use quick, brisk moves.
B)create loud noises and speak in loud tones in order to distract the patient.
C)approach the victim with patience and understanding.
D)constantly touch the patient to assure her or him that the hospital is a safe environment.
Q2) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A)Caring
B)Self-care
C)Adaptation
D)Transition
Q3) Which irrigation is commonly used during a mastectomy procedure?
A)Sterile normal saline
B)Sterile water
C)Sterile ice cold saline
D)Marcaine with polymyxin
Q4) The chain of evidence incorporates ____________________ of all findings associated with the patient,the suspected ____________________,and the
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What valve allows normal blood flow between the right atrium and ventricle?
A)Tricuspid
B)Mitral
C)Pulmonary
D)Bicuspid
Q2) Which is a common pediatric procedure performed that result from the diagnosis of otitis media?
A)Goniotomy
B)Tenotomy
C)Luque fixation
D)Myringotomy
Q3) Which is one of the most common causes of cardiac death within the first week of life?
A)Pulmonary fibrosis
B)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C)Aortic valve insufficiency
D)Ventricular septal defect
Q4) The resting metabolic rate of an infant is about the same as an adult.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what temperature can a geriatric patient be at risk for hypothermia?
A)Below 100.5° F
B)Above 94° F
C)Below 96.8° F
D)Above 99.6° F
Q2) An older adult patient should be allowed to wear a hearing-assist device into the operating room.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patients with diabetes mellitus can experience which surgical complication?
A)Urinary incontinence
B)No complications
C)Constant monitoring
D)Postoperative infection
Q4) Which laboratory values are important to assess in the geriatric patient?
A)Vitamin B
B)Hemoglobin/hematocrit
C)HCG
D)Deoxyribonucleic acid
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the surgical environment would you find the receptionist,pneumatic tube system,and computer systems used to retrieve patient records?
A)Conference room
B)Support service office
C)Central control desk
D)Central processing area
Q2) What type of filter is used in the OR setting that eliminates almost all dust particles?
A)HEPA
B)NIOSH
C)EPA
D)ACH
Q3) Which is one of the three storage areas found within the perioperative area?
A)Contaminated instrument storage
B)Minimally invasive procedure room
C)Sterile supply room
D)Contaminated equipment storage
Q4) It is desirable to have all ORs be the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medicare does not approve the use of ambulatory surgery centers and refers all its patients to inpatient hospital ORs for procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Patients should receive preoperative instructions only when at their preadmission visit to the ASC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When would a patient receive a follow-up phone call from a nurse at an ASC?
A)4 hours after the procedure
B)Within 48 hours of the procedure
C)The following week
D)At the patient's postoperative visit with the surgeon
Q4) Because nurses are not on the front line fighting in battle,they do not experience the posttraumatic stress disorder that the wounded soldier might.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of accidental cuts and punctures is from the disposal of surgical sharps at the end of a case.When cleaning up instruments after a surgical procedure,place unloaded knife handles and other sharp items separate from other instruments so that processing personnel may identify them easily.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What item should a member of the sterile team discard and put in the trash before leaving the surgical room?
A)Hair cover
B)Eye protection
C)Scrubs
D)Shoe covers
Q3) If sterile supplies for a case were opened at 1:00 PM with the room under surveillance,and the case did not begin until 3:30 PM,the sterile items would be contaminated because of the 2-hour delay of the case.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using a fire extinguisher,what mnemonic device can be recalled to help one remember the correct usage steps?
A)RACE
B)PACE
C)PASS
D)PULL
Q2) Which is a proper anesthesia technique?
A)Inspect masks, tubing, and endotracheal tubes each week for leaks and holes.
B)Use masks that loosely fit the contours of the patient's face to encourage the escape of gasses.
C)Perform preventive maintenance of anesthesia machines every 6 months.
D)Avoid spilling liquid halogenated agents.
Q3) Women who are pregnant should not work in the OR because of the unavoidable health risks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Competency in using equipment should be tested regularly because technology changes often.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stomach acid provides what line of defense?
A)First
B)Second
C)Third
D)Fourth
Q2) Bacteria are very dangerous to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In what way can a health care-acquired infection (HAI)develop?
A)Patient not taking their medication
B)Having pain
C)It may begin at the surgical site
D)Brought in from home
Q4) Which is a type of antibiotic whose mechanism inhibits the cell wall synthesis?
A)Vancomycin
B)Sulfonamide
C)Tetracycline
D)Quinolone
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an impervious barrier used in a surgical procedure?
A)Sterile drapes
B)OR bed sheet
C)Plastic pillowcase cover
D)Clean garbage liner
Q2) The facility recommends that each caregiver only use one mask per day to save money.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are the parameters of the sterile areas on the front of a gown?
A)From the neckline to the waist
B)From the chest level down to below the waist
C)From the chest level to the level of the sterile field
D)From the chest level down to knee level
Q4) If an item in the OR is not known definitively to be sterile,what is the next action to be taken?
A)Consider it contaminated and throw it out.
B)Call your supervisor.
C)Keep it in the room and use it so as not to waste an opened item.
D)Ask the anesthesiologist in the room to determine its sterility.
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sterile vest,when put on correctly,allows the scrubbed person's back to be sterile.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is it necessary to wipe sterile gloves with a sterile damp towel after donning the gloves and before touching items on the sterile field?
A)To warm up one's hands before starting the procedure
B)To maintain a time-honored tradition started by the glove manufacturers
C)To decrease the amount of contaminants already present on sterile gloves
D)To remove powder sometimes present on sterile gloves
Q3) Which antimicrobial agent is ototoxic and may cause permanent damage if used in the presence of the cornea?
A)Chlorhexidine gluconate (CHG)
B)Iodophors
C)Triclosan
D)Ethyl alcohol
Q4) It is acceptable to use a closed gloving technique during a surgical procedure. A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The washer-decontaminator goes through which of these phases?
A)Sterilization
B)Distillation
C)Neutral rinsing
D)Inspection
Q2) What are the levels of disinfection?
A)High level, medium level, end level
B)High level, intermediate level, low level
C)High level, semi-high, low level
D)High level, medium level, low level
Q3) Instruments may be immersed in which of the following solutions?
A)Ethyl alcohol
B)Distilled water
C)Saline solution
D)Chlorhexidine
Q4) Personal protective equipment must be worn when cleaning instruments to prevent contact with accidental spray from contaminated body fluids and chemical cleaning solutions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to destroy prions,such as those in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease,how long must they be sterilized?
A)Chemically sterilized for 10 minutes in Cavicide
B)Steam sterilized for a minimum of 1 hour at 270° F after soaking in sodium hydroxide for 1 hour
C)Soaked in ethylene oxide for at least 30 minutes, then dry heat sterilized for 10 minutes
D)Rinsing in sterile water at 240° F for 1 hour then rinsing in Cavicide
Q2) Where are count sheets placed for the sterilization process?
A)In the bottom of the tray
B)Set on the case cart
C)Placed on top of instruments
D)Taped to the top
Q3) A case cart system is used to gather and deliver sterile and nonsterile items needed for a particular surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the surgeon or assistant is on the same side of the operating bed and to the right,which hand should the scrub pass with?
A)The right hand
B)Let the surgeon take the instrument from the mayo stand
C)Pass across the field
D)Pass with your left hand
Q2) Which is the most commonly used instrument to clamp blood vessels?
A)Lahey forceps
B)Tenaculum
C)Hemostat
D)Rongeur
Q3) Which type of tissue forceps are used on delicate tissue?
A)Rat toothed forceps
B)Thumb forceps or smooth pick-ups
C)Babcock forceps
D)Lahey forceps
Q4) It is acceptable to use a hemostat to load a blade onto a knife handle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is imperative that the surgical field be stable and immobile during a surgical procedure performed using the microscope.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Harmonic scalpel is a common bipolar electrical energy handpiece used in the OR.What does the working end accommodate?
A)Scissors only
B)Light beam
C)Blade tip or scissors
D)Laser
Q3) Instruments used in or near the laser beam should be reflective to enhance the laser's effect on the tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why should laser plume be suctioned and evacuated during a surgical procedure?
A)Laser plume increases the temperature in the OR.
B)The smoke may cause blindness.
C)Laser plume reduces visibility at the surgical site.
D)The electromagnetic waves created by plume may cause brain death.
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Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to protect the patient's privacy,the circulating nurse should only refer to the patient by the procedure he or she is having when speaking to the patient or in the OR with other perioperative staff.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For some surgical procedures,the surgeon requires the patient to be blood typed and crossmatched.What is the reason for this blood test?
A)The surgeon might make a mistake.
B)The surgeon anticipates a blood transfusion based on the surgical procedure.
C)It is done for every patient.
D)Auto transfusion might be needed.
Q3) Which topic would be reviewed in a preoperative phone call to a patient?
A)What type of vacation or illness coverage the patient will use when missing work
B)What type of financial coverage the patient will use to pay for the procedure
C)The patient's personal feeling towards the surgeon
D)NPO instructions that the patient must adhere to before surgery
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Chapter
Considerations
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Q1) What type of biopsy involves removing the mass or entire structure from the body?
A)Brush
B)Excisional
C)Incisional
D)Smear
Q2) What type of hormonal therapy is an option in the treatment of cancer?
A)Antiestrogens
B)Antibiotics
C)Hormonal receptors
D)Endocrine manipulation
Q3) What factors help determine how the tumor cells respond to chemotherapy?
A)Type of tumor
B)Sex of the patient (male vs.female)
C)Age of patient
D)Type of tumor debulking
Q4) An air embolus in the right atrium is corrected by placing the patient in the right lateral position.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the seven rights of medication administration?
A)Right dose, Right timing and Right route
B)Right patient and Right drug
C)Right documentation and Right Reason
D)All of the above
Q2) Which is one of the steps of calculating medication problems using ratios and proportions?
A)Add all the values together and subtract the required drug dosage.
B)Divide each value by 2 and add the first two values together.
C)Multiply extreme values and multiply the means.
D)Ratios and proportions are not used to calculate medication problems.
Q3) When dispensing a drug that has been drawn up in a syringe using a needle,it should be delivered via the syringe without the injection needle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is a mineral source of drugs commonly found in the perioperative setting?
A)Opium poppy
B)Insulin
C)Potassium
D)Ginseng
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a local anesthesia case,an anesthesia provider must be present in the room with the patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What maneuver is done at the beginning of intubation to prevent aspiration?
A)Hyperventilation
B)Cricoid pressure
C)Extubation
D)Masseter muscle rigidity
Q3) Which is an action of epinephrine?
A)Vasodilation
B)Hypotension
C)Sympathetic nerve blocker
D)Prolongs anesthesia
Q4) What is the definition of controlled respiration?
A)Tell the patient when to breath
B)Using the bag method
C)Completely controlled rate and volume of respirations
D)Movement of gas in and out of the lungs
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Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______________ help the scrub person and circulating nurse improve efficiency of the set-up procedure and case flow.
Q2) Which is a type of syringe used for injection?
A)Asepto
B)Luer-Lok
C)Tapered bulb syringe
D)Toomey
Q3) The circulating nurse must remain at the patient's side during the induction of general anesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Small sutures do not need to be accounted for at the end of a procedure because they probably will not show up on a radiograph if the suture count is not correct.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When packs or sets have been wrapped with double wrappers,the outer wrap is considered the ____________________,and the inner wrap is considered the
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the supine position,the patient's occiput and cervical area are at risk for nerve and pressure injuries during a procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A nonsterile pneumatic tourniquet cuff is placed before the skin prep to control bleeding during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) While draping,it is acceptable to reach over the OR bed to drape the opposite side.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a common position for patients to be in for a rectal procedure?
A)Supine
B)Fowler's
C)Reverse Trendelenburg
D)Prone (Kraske)
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28
Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does an electrocardiogram (ECG)show?
A)Rate of respirations including inspirations
B)Cardiac output index
C)Blood pressure
D)Waveforms reflecting electrical forces
Q2) Which is a type of data that can be obtained from pulmonary artery monitoring?
A)Urine pH
B)Pulse oximetry
C)Urine output
D)Right atrial pressure
Q3) Establishing a patient's preoperative baseline is very important because it can alert the caregiver to any physiologic changes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When sending an arterial blood gas sample to the laboratory for analysis,never place the specimen on ice because that will cause the sample to coagulate and not be usable.
A)True
B)False
Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) When handling synthetic absorbable sutures,soak them in saline before using to allow better pliability.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is another name for a suture ligature?
A)Tie on a passer
B)Stick tie
C)Free tie
D)Kittner
Q3) Which layer of the epidermis creates cells that reproduce and multiply to form new epidermal layers?
A)Stratum corneum
B)Stratum lucidum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
Q4) Which is a component used to classify surgical needles?
A)Color
B)Length
C)Point
D)Neck
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothermia increases cellular metabolism as the body attempts to increase its warmth during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What influences the ease in which a skin incision is made?
A)Type of knife handle
B)The type of surgery
C)Toughness of skin or scar tissue
D)Excess tension on the skin or wound
Q3) Absorbable gelatin (Gelfoam)is placed on an area of capillary bleeding where fibrin is deposited and the sponge swells forming a clot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most common cause of wound infections?
A)Geriatric patient
B)Implant infection
C)Microorganisms introduced during surgery
D)Compromised patient
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which professional organization established the standards of practice for the postoperative care of patients?
A)ASPAN
B)AORN
C)ABPANC
D)CAPA
Q2) Which is an item that the circulating nurse's handoff report needs to contain?
A)Family location
B)Insurance information
C)Total surgical time
D)Type of dressing and drains
Q3) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A)Palpating the surgical incision
B)Wait until they are crying
C)Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D)Using the FACES scale
Q4) Time spent in the PACU varies from patient to patient and can change with each patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cricoid pressure is used during endotracheal tube placement to close off the esophagus to prevent reflux and aspiration for trauma patients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the term for abnormal accumulation of water in extravascular portions of the lungs?
A)Atelectasis
B)Intercostal muscle spasm
C)Pneumothorax
D)Pulmonary edema
Q3) What is the recommended IV dose of dantrolene to be given in a malignant hyperthermia (MH)crisis?
A)1 mg/kg every minute until temperature is within normal limits
B)2 to 3 mg/kg in an initial IV bolus and repeat every 5 to 10 minutes
C)10 mg/kg initially and every 5 minutes until muscles relax
D)10 to 20 mg/kg every 5 minutes until temperature stabilizes
Q4) Sickle cell anemia is an inherited disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) What type of gas medium is used to insufflate the peritoneal cavity?
A)Nitrous oxide
B)Oxygen
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Argon
Q2) What is the intraoperative peritoneal pressure of an adult during a laparoscopic procedure when using CO ?
A)5 to 7 mm Hg
B)7 to 10 mm Hg
C)12 to 15 mm Hg
D)Greater than 18 mm Hg
Q3) Fluid can be used as an expansion media for creating working space while using a scope.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A Veress needle is used to create access into the peritoneal cavity with the closed method.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) Which procedure is performed to treat gastroesophageal reflux?
A)Whipple procedure
B)Roux-en-Y
C)Fundoplication
D)Choledochoscopy
Q2) For what reason may a subcutaneous mastectomy be performed?
A)Shorter, less painful procedure
B)Removal of the overlying skin and nipple
C)Removal of a noninvasive tumor present under the breast
D)For patients with chronic mastitis
Q3) When performing surgery near or on the liver,what precautions need to be taken into consideration?
A)Liver tissue is very friable and can hemorrhage.
B)No precautions are needed because the patient can always have a liver transplant.
C)Have a drain ready for after surgery.
D)Partial lobectomy is acceptable for function.
Q4) Colitis is one reason a hemicolectomy or total colectomy may be performed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Raytec sponges that are rolled up and secured on a sponge forcep are called?
A)Uterine sound
B)Sponge stick
C)Curette
D)Dressing forcep
Q2) What term means "bleeding in between menstrual periods in a premenopausal woman?"
A)Menstruation
B)Menorrhagia
C)Menometrorrhagia
D)Menarche
Q3) What action does the surgeon take to assess female anatomy before a surgical procedure?
A)Examination under anesthesia (EUA)
B)Blood type
C)Date of last menstrual period
D)Age of children
Q4) Pelvic endoscopy cases are not considered sterile procedures.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) Which is one of the components of the resectoscope?
A)Inner cannula
B)Outer cannula
C)Holder
D)Sheath
Q2) Anastomosis of vas deferens
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q3) Which patient position is commonly used when the kidney is exposed posteriorly?
A)High lithotomy
B)Supine
C)Lateral
D)Recumbent
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fracture caused by metastatic disease is referred to as a
A)traumatic fracture.
B)greenstone fracture.
C)pathologic fracture.
D)open fracture.
Q2) Cancellous tissue is porous,spongy,and contains bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Incision into a joint
A)Osteomyelitis
B)Nonunion
C)Arthrotomy
D)Open fracture
E)Osteogenesis
F)Cast
G)Cortex
H)Arthrodesis
I)Dislocation
J)Compartment syndrome
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which monitoring device can help control cerebral edema?
A)Blood pressure cuff
B)Mass spectrometry
C)Ultrasound
D)Intraarterial catheter
Q2) Which procedure relieves the pain of trigeminal neuralgia,or tic douloureux?
A)A stereotaxy procedure
B)A radiofrequency retrogasserian rhizotomy
C)Stereotactic depth reimplantation
D)Thalamotomy
Q3) What type of headrest is used to stabilize the patient's head during cranial procedures?
A)May stand
B)Mayfield
C)Horseshoe
D)Wilson
Q4) Mannitol is given to increase intracranial pressure (ICP)in patients with intracranial hemorrhage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a benefit of placing a patient prone on a Jackson table during a spinal surgical procedure?
A)Easier to intubate the patient on this table
B)Optimal vertebral position
C)Increased chest excursion
D)Increased vena cava pressure
Q2) The spinal cord is composed of white matter on the outside and gray matter on the inside.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which procedure is performed to re-establish height of the vertebrae with cement?
A)Kyphosis
B)Kyphoplasty
C)Ankylosis
D)Discectomy
Q4) A hemangioblastoma is a vascular tumor more commonly found in the cervical or thoracic area.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of cataract removal procedure may involve the use of phacoemulsification?
A)ECCE
B)ACCE
C)PCCE
D)IOL
Q2) Which is the mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and the exposed surface of the sclera except the cornea?
A)Lens
B)Conjunctiva
C)Cataract
D)Cornea
Q3) What causes glaucoma?
A)Corneal laceration
B)Eye laceration
C)Increased intraocular pressure
D)Eyelid malformation.
Q4) The two segments of the eyeball include superior and inferior segments.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) How should a graft be handled until the surgeon is ready to apply it?
A)Leave it dry on the corner of the table.
B)Keep the graft moist on a separate sterile graft table.
C)Place it on the mayo stand.
D)Place it in an ice basin.
Q2) Which is an augmentation mammoplasty approach in which a breast implant is inserted?
A)Laparoscopic
B)Periareolar
C)Periosteal
D)Intrathoracic
Q3) Which is an abnormal deposit of collagen in a healing skin wound?
A)Melanoma
B)Basal cell carcinoma
C)Keloid
D)Squamous cell carcinoma
Q4) The rule of sevens chart is used to estimate burn injury in the adult.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) Which procedure removes the anterior frontal sinus wall through an external excision above the eye?
A)Osteoplastic flap procedure
B)Caldwell-Luc procedure
C)Killian procedure
D)Turbinectomy
Q2) Primary hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by which lab result?
A)High potassium
B)High vitamin D
C)Hypercalcemia (high calcium)
D)Anemia
Q3) Otorhinolaryngology is the surgical treatment of the ear,nose,and throat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of surgeon may have OR privileges to perform surgical procedures in and around the mouth?
A)Pathologist
B)Oral surgeon
C)Gynecologist
D)Dermatologist
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Which type of pressure is necessary within the thorax to maintain normal inhalation and expiration?
A)Negative
B)Positive
C)Internal
D)Blunt
Q2) Air in the pleural space
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q3) Which is an effective treatment for a spontaneous pneumothorax?
A)Chest radiograph
B)Radiation followed by chemotherapy
C)Pleurodesis
D)Thymectomy
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Revascularizes the myocardium
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) What type of procedure uses fluoroscopy,a sterile catheter,and percutaneous entry into a vessel?
A)Cineflourogram
B)Transsternal bilateral thoracotomy
C)Cardiac catheterization
D)Antegrade infusion
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may be used for DVT prophylaxis during a vascular surgical procedure?
A)Pulse oximeter, hemodialysis catheter
B)Sequential compression sleeves, anticoagulant therapy
C)Sandbags, urokinase
D)Cell saver, pulse volume recorder
Q2) Prosthetic implant to maintain patency after dilation of vessel
A)Embolectomy
B)Atherectomy
C)Balloon dilation
D)Intraluminal stent
E)Laser angioplasty
F)Thrombolytic therapy
G)Thrombectomy
Q3) Which of the following uses streptokinase to dissolve a thrombus in an occluded vessel?
A)Endarterectomy
B)Thrombolytic therapy
C)Embolectomy
D)Fluoroscopy
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the three types of bone marrow transplants?
A)Synologous
B)Allogeneic
C)Xenologous
D)Isogenic
Q2) People with HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)cannot receive a transplanted organ or tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Tissue typing,or histocompatibility testing,is the detection of what substance known to affect rejection?
A)Complex assays
B)Cell-surface antigens
C)Cyclosporine
D)Prostaglandin
Q4) During organ procurement,no drugs are given to the patient during the procedure.
A)True
B)False
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