Perinatal Nursing Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing focuses on the specialized care of women and their families throughout the childbearing process, including pregnancy, labor, birth, and the postpartum period. The course covers comprehensive assessment, evidence-based interventions, and clinical decision-making to promote optimal health outcomes for mothers, infants, and families. Topics include prenatal education, labor and delivery management, newborn care, fetal monitoring, perinatal complications, and patient advocacy. Emphasis is placed on cultural competence, interdisciplinary collaboration, and current research trends to prepare students for roles in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client at 36 weeks of gestation states, "Why can't I have an induction now? My sister delivered at 36 weeks and her baby is fine." Which information about infants born at 34 to 36 weeks should the nurse consider when answering?
A) Birth by induction is low for this gestational age.
B) Infants born at 34 to 36 weeks have mature lungs and do well at birth.
C) The birth of infants between 34 to 36 weeks has declined as more births are going to term or post term.
D) Infants born at 34 to 36 weeks are immature and have more health complications than infants born at term.
Answer: D
Q2) The Grantly Dick-Read method of prepared childbirth allows for:
A) the use of medication to control pain.
B) advocating for the role of the father and/or significant other as labor coach.
C) the use of chloroform as an analgesic during the birthing process.
D) focusing on the ability of the mother to control fear of impending labor through knowledge.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 16-year-old primipara has just completed her first prenatal visit with the health care provider. The nurse is preparing to teach her about nutrition during pregnancy. What must the nurse include in the patient's teaching plan?
A) Provide her with pictures of dairy products.
B) Ask her, "Are you ready to hear this information now?"
C) Read directly from the pamphlet prepared for teen mothers.
D) Provide a comfortable and warm setting after she has put on her street clothes.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse states to the newly pregnant patient, "Tell me how you feel about being pregnant." Which communication technique is the nurse using with this patient?
A) Clarifying
B) Paraphrasing
C) Reflection
D) Structuring
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working in the area of labor and birth. Her assignment is to take care of a gravida 1 para 0 who presents in early labor at term. Vaginal exam reflects the following: 2 cm, cervix posterior, -1 station, and vertex with membranes intact. The client asks the nurse "if she can break her water so that her labor can go faster?" The nurse's response, based on the ethical principle of nonmaleficence, is which of the following?
A) Tell the client that she will have to wait until she has progressed further on the vaginal exam and then she will perform an amniotomy.
B) Have the client write down her request and then call the physician for an order to implement the amniotomy.
C) Instruct the client that only a physician or certified midwife can perform this procedure.
D) Give the client an enema to stimulate labor.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic nurse is reviewing breastfeeding with a pregnant client. Which hormone will the nurse include in the patient's teaching plan as the one primarily responsible for lactation after birth?
A) Prolactin
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing
D) Progesterone
Q2) A postpartum client who had a vaginal birth asks the nurse, "Will my cervix return to its previous shape before I had my baby?" Which is the best response by the nurse?
A) The cervix will now have a slitlike shape.
B) The cervix will be round and smooth after healing occurs.
C) The cervix will remain 50% effaced now that you have had a baby.
D) The cervix will be slightly dilated to 2 cm for about 6 months.
Q3) Which hormone is responsible for milk production after the birth of the placenta?
A) Pitocin
B) Prolactin
C) Estrogen
D) Progesterone
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client presents with curly hair and blue eyes. These findings are consistent with: A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) dominant alleles.
D) recessive traits.
Q2) The nurse is teaching prenatal clients about avoiding substances or conditions that can harm the fetus. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elimination of use of alcohol
B) Avoidance of supplemental folic acid replacement
C) Stabilization of blood glucose levels in a diabetic client with insulin
D) Avoidance of nonurgent radiologic procedures during the pregnancy
E) Avoidance of maternal hyperthermia to temperatures of 37.8° C (100° F) or higher
Q3) Which characteristic is related to Down syndrome?
A) Up-slanting eyes
B) Abnormal genitalia
C) Bleeding tendency
D) Edema of extremities
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes what occurs during the fetal period of development?
A) Maturation of organ systems
B) Development of basic organ systems
C) Resistance of organs to damage from external agents
D) Development of placental oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange
Q2) An expectant client, diagnosed with oligohydramnios, asks the nurse about what this condition means for the baby. Which statement should the nurse give to the client?
A) Oligohydramnios can cause poor fetal lung development.
B) Oligohydramnios means that the fetus is excreting excessive urine.
C) Oligohydramnios could mean that the fetus has a gastrointestinal blockage.
D) Oligohydramnios is associated with fetal central nervous system abnormalities.
Q3) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client with an IUD has a positive pregnancy test. When planning care, the nurse will base decisions on which anticipated action?
A) A therapeutic abortion will need to be scheduled because fetal damage is inevitable.
B) Hormonal analyses will be done to determine the underlying cause of the false-positive test result.
C) The IUD will need to be removed to avoid complications such as miscarriage or infection.
D) The IUD will need to remain in place to avoid injuring the fetus.
Q2) The nurse is scheduling the next appointment for a healthy primigravida currently at 28 weeks gestation. When will the nurse schedule the next prenatal visit?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 4 weeks
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) An Asian-American expectant father tells the nurse that he seems to be gaining weight, just like his wife. The nurse recognizes that this behavior is most likely a reflection of which?
A) Couvade
B) Embarrassment
C) Ambivalence regarding the pregnancy
D) Limited interest in the well-being of his wife
Q2) Which is a major concern among members of lower socioeconomic groups?
A) Practicing preventive health care
B) Meeting health needs as they occur
C) Maintaining an optimistic view of life
D) Maintaining group health insurance for their families
Q3) An expectant client in her third trimester reports that she developed a strong tie to her baby from the beginning and now is really in tune to her baby's temperament. The nurse interprets this as the development of which maternal task of pregnancy?
A) Learning to give of herself
B) Developing attachment with the baby
C) Securing acceptance of the baby by others
D) Seeking safe passage for herself and her baby
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient at 8 weeks' gestation complains to the nurse, "I feel sick almost every morning. And I throw up at least two or three times a week." What is the nurse's best advice to the patient?
A) "Do you like cheese?"
B) "Try eating four meals a day instead of three meals a day."
C) "Try eating peanut butter on whole wheat bread right before going to bed."
D) "If you can eat enough throughout the day, you don't have to worry about being sick."
Q2) For the pregnant client who is a vegan, what combination of foods will the nurse advise to meet the nutritional needs for all essential amino acids?
A) Eggs and beans
B) Fruits and vegetables
C) Grains and legumes
D) Vitamin and mineral supplements
Q3) Zinc
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which client would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered to be abnormal?
A) A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation
B) A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes
C) A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term
D) An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term
Q2) When is the most accurate time to determine gestational age through ultrasound?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) No difference in accuracy among the trimesters
Q3) Doppler ultrasound
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q4) The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following?
A) Advice to the couple
B) Information about the tests
C) Reassurance about fetal safety
D) Assistance with decision making
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) A couple asks the nurse to explain the use of breathing techniques during the labor process. Which should the nurse include in the response? (Select all that apply.)
A) Start to use the focused breathing as soon as labor begins.
B) The use of complex breathing patterns should start during early labor.
C) The breathing pattern chosen to use during labor should be practiced frequently.
D) Focused or controlled breathing techniques are considered just one of many coping strategies.
E) One helpful technique with breathing is to visualize oxygen entering on inhalation and tension leaving on exhalation.
Q2) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Imagery
B) Effleurage
C) Mental stimulation
D) Thermal stimulation
Q3) Dick-Read childbirth education
A)Includes the father as a support person and a coach
B)Psychoprophylaxis class that uses the mind to prevent pain
C)Classes focus on breathing to prevent the fear-tension-pain cycle
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Presentation
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
Q2) A laboring patient states to the nurse, "I have to push!" What is the next nursing action?
A) Contact the health care provider.
B) Examine the patient's cervix for dilation.
C) Review with her how to bear down with contractions.
D) Ask her partner to support her head with each push.
Q3) Which event is the best indicator of true labor?
A) Bloody show
B) Cervical dilation and effacement
C) Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet
D) Uterine contractions every 7 minutes
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking care of a client in labor who is not considered to be at risk, which assessments should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Check the DTR each shift.
B) Monitor and record vital signs frequently during the course of labor.
C) Document the FHR pattern, noting baseline and response to contraction patterns.
D) Indicate on the EFM tracing when maternal position changes are done.
E) Provide food, as tolerated, during the course of labor.
Q2) A client at 40 weeks' gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences:
A) fetal movement.
B) irregular contractions for 1 hour.
C) a trickle of fluid from the vagina.
D) thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus.
Q3) Which should the nurse recognize as being associated with fetal compromise?
A) Active fetal movements
B) Fetal heart rate in the 140s
C) Contractions lasting 90 seconds
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most appropriate method of intrapartum fetal monitoring when a woman has a history of hypertension during pregnancy?
A) Continuous auscultation with a fetoscope
B) Continuous electronic fetal monitoring
C) Intermittent assessment with a Doppler transducer
D) Intermittent electronic fetal monitoring for 15 minutes each hour
Q2) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Q3) To clarify the fetal condition when baseline variability is absent, the nurse should first:
A) monitor fetal oxygen saturation using fetal pulse oximetry.
B) notify the physician so that a fetal scalp blood sample can be obtained.
C) apply pressure to the fetal scalp with a glove finger using a circular motion.
D) increase the rate of nonadditive IV fluid to expand the mother's blood volume.
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring client who imagines her body opening to let the baby out is using a mental technique called:
A) imagery.
B) effleurage.
C) distraction.
D) dissociation.
Q2) The nurse detects hypotension in a laboring client after an epidural. Which actions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Encourage the client to drink fluids.
B) Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
C) Administer a normal saline bolus as prescribed.
D) Administer oxygen at 8 to 10 L/min per face mask.
E) Administer IV ephedrine in 5- to 10-mg increments as prescribed.
Q3) Which statement is true with regard to the type of pain associated with childbirth experience?
A) Pain is constant throughout the labor experience.
B) Labor pain during childbirth is considered to be an abnormal response.
C) Pain associated with childbirth is self-limiting.
D) Pain associated with childbirth does not allow for adequate preparation.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client receiving an oxytocin (Pitocin) drip at 16 mU/min develops hypertonic stimulation, FHR 138 bpm with accelerations, and no decelerations, the nurse's best response would be to:
A) stop the drip immediately.
B) decrease the dose to 14 mU/min.
C) reassess the patient at 5 minute intervals.
D) reposition the patient to the left side-lying position.
Q2) The pregnant client is admitted to the labor and birth unit for induction of labor. Which finding would allow the induction to continue as planned?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Cephalopelvic disproportion
C) Ripening of the cervix
D) Umbilical cord prolapse
Q3) In which client situation could an amniotomy be safely performed?
A) G1 P0, 38 weeks' gestation, 20% effaced, closed cervix
B) G2 P1, 40 weeks' gestation, with fetus in a breech presentation
C) G2 P0, 39 weeks' gestation, 70% effaced, cervix dilated 2 cm
D) G3 P2, 41 weeks' gestation, early labor complicated with hydramnios
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Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing the A of the acronym REEDA, the nurse should assess the:
A) skin color.
B) degree of edema.
C) edges of the episiotomy.
D) episiotomy for discharge.
Q2) To facilitate adequate urinary elimination during the postpartum period, the nurse should incorporate which intervention in the plan of care?
A) Have the client drink carbonated beverages to promote urinary excretion.
B) Tell the client that because of postpartum diuresis there is less risk to develop dehydration.
C) Limit fluid intake to prevent polyuria.
D) Teach the client to do pelvic floor exercises to combat potential stress incontinence.
Q3) If the fundus is palpated on the right side of the abdomen above the expected level, the nurse should suspect that the client has which?
A) Distended bladder
B) Normal involution
C) Been lying on her right side too long
D) Stretched ligaments that are unable to support the uterus
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A husband calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He says, "She was never like this before the baby was born." Which should be the nurse's initial response?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
Q2) Letting-go
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
Q3) The postpartum nurse is reviewing dietary practices for an Asian client. Which should the nurse expect to observe as a dietary practice for this culture?
A) Food brought from home
B) Preference for fresh fruits
C) Preference for "cold" foods
D) Request for ice water instead of hot water
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Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Q1) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?
A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows
B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners
C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket
D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby
Q2) Which newborn is at higher risk for developing hypoglycemia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Post-term newborn
B) 38 weeks' gestation newborn
C) Small-for-gestational-age newborn
D) Large-for-gestational-age newborn
E) Term newborn born by cesarean birth
Q3) Which method of heat loss may occur if a newborn is placed on a cold scale or touched with cold hands?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Evaporation
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Molding
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
Q2) The nurse is performing a gestational age assessment on a newborn. Which characteristics indicate a preterm newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Translucent skin
B) Extended limp arms and legs
C) The ear springs back when folded
D) Square window angle of 45 degrees or less
E) Large clitoris and labia minora in the female newborn
Q3) Which are early signs of hypoglycemia in the newborn for which the nurse should assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Jitteriness
B) Poor feeding
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) An increase in temperature
E) A capillary refill of 2 seconds
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which nursing action is a priority to prevent infection in the newborn? (Select all that apply.)
A) Wearing gloves before touching neonates
B) Washing hands before and after handling any neonate
C) Washing hands and arms thoroughly at the beginning of the day
D) Sharing some equipment that will not transmit infection from one neonate to another
Q2) The nurse has just completed discharge teaching to parents on newborn bathing. Which statement made by the parents indicates a further need for teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A) "We will clean the diaper area last."
B) "We will use cotton-tipped swabs to clean the ears."
C) "We will use an antibacterial soap during the sponge bath."
D) "We can submerge the baby in a tub of water after the cord falls off."
E) "We will shampoo the baby's head using a football hold before unwrapping."
Q3) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take an action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37° C (98.6° F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Q1) A new mother asks whether she should feed her newborn colostrum because it is not real milk. The nurse's best answer includes which information?
A) Colostrum is unnecessary for newborns.
B) Colostrum is high in antibodies, protein, vitamins, and minerals.
C) Colostrum is lower in calories than milk and should be supplemented by formula.
D) Giving colostrum is important in helping the mother learn how to breast-feed before she goes home.
Q2) A new mother asks why she has to open a new bottle of formula for each feeding. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Formula may turn sour after it is opened."
B) "Bacteria can grow rapidly in warm milk."
C) "Formula loses some nutritional value once it is opened."
D) "This makes it easier to keep track of how much the baby is taking."
Q3) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
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Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 99.8° F (37.7° C)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths/min
Q2) Which is the priority rationale for doing a car seat trial for a preterm neonate being discharged soon?
A) To assess the car seat's size
B) To assess the parents' knowledge about car seat use
C) To determine if the neonate cries while in the car seat
D) To assess for any neonate apnea or bradycardia while in the car seat
Q3) During the first 6 months of life, the infant should have well-baby checkups at which interval?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 1 to 2 months
D) 3 to 4 months
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Q1) Which should the nurse do when counseling a teenage client who has decided to relinquish her baby for adoption?
A) Question her about her feelings regarding adoption.
B) Tell her she can always change her mind about adoption.
C) Affirm her decision while acknowledging her maturity in making it.
D) Ask her if anyone is coercing her into the decision to relinquish her baby.
Q2) What is most likely to be a concern for an older mother?
A) Nutrition and diet planning
B) Exercise and fitness
C) Having enough rest and sleep
D) Effective contraceptive methods
Q3) A patient has just acknowledged that she is 20 weeks pregnant and confides to the nurse that she has a daily heroin habit. The nurse discusses treatment options for the patient. Which patient statement requires follow-up?
A) "My plan is to visit the outpatient clinic daily for treatment."
B) "I will see my health care provider at least every 2 weeks."
C) "My baby will not have to go through withdrawal when I take methadone."
D) "With oral methadone, my baby and I are at decreased risk of infection."
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26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Q1) In which situation would a dilation and curettage (D&C) be indicated?
A) Complete abortion at 8 weeks
B) Incomplete abortion at 16 weeks
C) Threatened abortion at 6 weeks
D) Incomplete abortion at 10 weeks
Q2) A client taking magnesium sulfate has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. In addition to discontinuing the medication, which action should the nurse take?
A) Increase the client's IV fluids.
B) Administer calcium gluconate.
C) Vigorously stimulate the client.
D) Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
Q3) A placenta previa when the placental edge just reaches the internal os is called: A) total.
B) partial.
C) low-lying.
D) marginal.
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Q1) Which instructions should the nurse include when teaching a pregnant client with Class II heart disease?
A) Advise her to gain at least 30 pounds.
B) Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity.
C) Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.
D) Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium.
Q2) A pregnant patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is reviewing infant care instructions with the prenatal nurse. Which patient statement indicates to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
A) "I will bathe my baby twice a day."
B) "I will use premixed formula to feed my baby."
C) "I will use gloves to change my baby's diapers."
D) "I will use alcohol wipes six times a day on the baby's cord until it falls off."
Q3) For which of the following infectious diseases can a woman be immunized?
A) Rubella
B) Toxoplasmosis
C) Cytomegalovirus
D) Herpesvirus type 2
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138
Sample Questions
Q1) Emergency measures used in the treatment of a prolapsed cord include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Administration of oxygen via face mask at 8 to 10 L/min
B) Maternal change of position to knee-chest
C) Administration of tocolytic agent
D) Administration of oxytocin (Pitocin)
E) Vaginal elevation
F) Insertion of cord back into vaginal area
Q2) A client with polyhydramnios was admitted to a labor-birth-recovery-postpartum (LDRP) suite. Her membranes rupture and the fluid is clear and odorless, but the fetal heart monitor indicates bradycardia and variable decelerations. Which action should be taken next?
A) Perform Leopold maneuvers.
B) Perform a vaginal examination.
C) Apply warm saline soaks to the vagina.
D) Place the client in a high Fowler position.
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) Nursing measures that help prevent postpartum urinary tract infection include:
A) forcing fluids to at least 3000 mL/day.
B) promoting bed rest for 12 hours after birth.
C) encouraging the intake of orange, grapefruit, or apple juice.
D) discouraging voiding until the sensation of a full bladder is present.
Q2) Which statement by a postpartum client indicates that further teaching is not needed regarding thrombus formation?
A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."
B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."
C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."
D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."
Q3) Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan to assist the client in recognizing early signs of complications?
A) Palpate the fundus daily to ensure that it is soft.
B) Report any decrease in the amount of brownish red lochia.
C) The passage of clots as large as an orange can be expected.
D) Notify the health care provider of any increase in the amount of lochia or a return to bright red bleeding.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational
Age and Development
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?
A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.
B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.
C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.
D) Three successive temperature measurements were 97°, 96°, and 97° F.
Q2) Because late preterm infants are more stable than early preterm infants, they may receive care that is much like that of a full-term baby. The mother-baby or nursery nurse knows that these infants are at increased risk for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sepsis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hyperbilirubinemia
D) Cardiac distress
E) Problems with thermoregulation
Q3) In comparison with the term infant, the preterm infant has:
A) More subcutaneous fat.
B) Well-developed flexor muscles.
C) Few blood vessels visible through the skin.
D) Greater surface area in proportion to weight.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse's immediate action after the birth of a post-term infant with meconium stained amniotic fluid is to:
A) stimulate the infant to cry.
B) suction the infant's airways.
C) complete the 1- and 5-minute Apgars.
D) vigorously dry the infant's head and trunk.
Q2) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. The purpose of these formula feedings or breastfeedings is to:
A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q3) When a cardiac defect causes the mixing of arterial and venous blood in the right side of the heart, the nurse might expect to find:
A) cyanosis.
B) diuresis.
C) signs of pulmonary congestion.
D) increased oxygenation of the tissues.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major difference between the diaphragm and the cervical cap is that the diaphragm:
A) is more effective.
B) requires spermicide.
C) applies pressure on the urethra.
D) has no contribution to toxic shock syndrome.
Q2) A male client asks, "Why do I have to use another contraceptive? I had a vasectomy last week." The best response is:
A) "A vasectomy is only 85% effective."
B) "A vasectomy is not effective in all men."
C) "Semen may contain sperm for 6 months following a vasectomy."
D) "Complete sterilization doesn't occur until all sperm have left the system."
Q3) A client is using Depo-Provera as her method of birth control. Which finding warrants immediate intervention?
A) Mid-cycle bleeding
B) Nausea
C) Temperature of 100° F
D) Irregular periods
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33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's best response is:
A) "Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive."
B) "Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation."
C) "Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea."
D) "Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus."
Q2) Which adverse reactions are associated with the administration of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal bloating
B) Diarrhea
C) Oliguria
D) Nausea and vomiting
E) Abnormal uterine bleeding
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) While performing a self-breast exam, the client notes an area on the right breast that is nodular, with some associated tenderness. This is a new onset finding because the exams were not problematic in the past,. The left breast examination is unremarkable. The client calls to report her findings to the clinical nurse because this is not her typical result. What action should the nurse take next?
A) Refer the client to an oncologist because the results sound suspicious.
B) Ask the client to come in for an office visit so that the findings can be validated but tell her that this information is within the normal range of presentation.
C) Have the client wear a tight-fitting bra and tell her that the tenderness is associated with ovulation and will pass.
D) Have the client repeat the self-breast exam in 2 weeks and call back with findings to provide a basis for comparison.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true about primary dysmenorrhea?
A) Primary dysmenorrhea is experienced by all women.
B) It is unaffected by oral contraceptives.
C) It occurs in young multiparous women.
D) It may be caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin.
Q2) Which client is most likely to have osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old client on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old client with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old client who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old client who takes supplemental calcium
Q3) Which sexually transmitted disease can be cured?
A) Herpes
B) AIDS
C) Chlamydia
D) Venereal warts
Q4) The drug of choice to treat gonorrhea is:
A) penicillin G (Pfizerpen).
B) tetracycline (Achromycin).
C) ceftriaxone (Rocephin).
D) acyclovir (Zovirax).
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