Perinatal Nursing Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing is a specialized course focusing on the comprehensive care of women and their families during the perinatal period, which includes preconception, pregnancy, childbirth, and the immediate postpartum phase. The course covers key topics such as maternal and fetal assessment, identification and management of high-risk pregnancies, prenatal education, labor and delivery care, newborn assessment, and family-centered support. Students will explore evidence-based practices, ethical considerations, and interdisciplinary collaboration, preparing them to promote optimal health outcomes for mothers and infants in diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a client's use of complementary and alternative therapies. Which should the nurse document as an alternative or complementary therapy practice? (Select all that apply.)
A) Practicing yoga daily
B) Drinking green tea in the morning
C) Taking omeprazole (Prilosec) once a day
D) Using aromatherapy during a relaxing bath
E) Wearing a lower back brace when lifting heavy objects
Answer: A, B, D
Q2) Expectant parents ask a prenatal nurse educator, "Which setting for childbirth allows for the least amount of parent-infant interaction?" Which answer should the nurse give to the parents?
A) Birth center
B) Home birth
C) Traditional hospital birth
D) Labor, birth, and recovery room
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Directing
A)Calling attention to differences or inconsistencies in statements
B)Using nonverbal responses or succinct comments to encourage the person to continue
C)Restating in words other than those used by the woman what she seems to express; a form of clarification
Answer: B
Q2) Which is the step of the nursing process in which the nurse determines the appropriate interventions for the identified nursing diagnosis?
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Assessment
D) Intervention
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage
A)The nurse's breach of duty caused harm.
B)The nurse has a responsibility to give care to the client.
C)An actual injury or harm to the client occurred because of the nurse's breach of duty.
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse is providing care to a patient who was just admitted to the labor and birth unit in active labor at term. The patient informed the nurse that she has not received any prenatal care because "I cannot afford to go to the doctor. And, this is my third baby, so I know what to expect." What is the nurse's primary concern when developing the patient's plan of care?
A) Low birth weight
B) Oligohydramnios
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle
A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.
B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.
C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.
Q2) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescent girls. Which are the actions of the estrogen hormone on the female body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stimulates contractions during birth
B) Relaxes pelvic ligaments during pregnancy
C) Stimulates the endometrium before ovulation
D) Stimulates growth of uterus during pregnancy
E) Stimulates the let-down reflex during breastfeeding
Q3) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
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Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Testing for the cause of anomalies in a stillborn infant is being done. The mother angrily asks the nurse how long these tests are going to take. The nurse should understand that the mother is:
A) exhibiting normal grief behavior.
B) trying to place blame on someone.
C) being impatient and unreasonable.
D) feeling guilty and blaming herself.
Q2) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q3) A clinic nurse is planning a teaching session for childbearing-age female clients. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to avoiding exposing a fetus to teratogens?
A) Use only category A medications during pregnancy.
B) Immunizations should be updated during the first trimester of pregnancy.
C) Use of saunas and hot tubs during pregnancy should be during the winter months only.
D) Alcoholic beverages can be consumed in the first and third trimesters of pregnancy.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to the labor client who is delivering a premature infant?
A) Phytonadione (AquaMEPHYTON)
B) Betamethasone
C) Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
D) Newborn eye prophylaxis
Q2) Which physical characteristics decrease as the fetus nears term? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vernix caseosa
B) Lanugo
C) Port wine stain
D) Brown fat
Q3) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q4) Umbilical veins
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client's mother is worried that her daughter is not "big enough" at 20 weeks of gestation. The nurse palpates and measures the fundal height at 20 cm, which is even with the woman's umbilicus. Which should the nurse report to the client and her mother?
A) "You're right. We'll inform the practitioner immediately."
B) "Lightening has occurred, so the fundal height is lower than expected."
C) "The body of the uterus is at the belly button level, just where it should be at this time."
D) "When you come for next month's appointment, we'll check you again to make sure that the baby is growing."
Q2) A patient at 24 week' gestation reports to the clinic nurse that she is tired all the time. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "Everyone has chronic anemia at this time in pregnancy."
B) "I'll make sure your health care provider is informed of your concern."
C) "Your urine is clean of protein and sugar. You are doing well at this time."
D) "Make sure you are drinking enough fluid to keep up with the demands of your body."
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Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reveals to the patient that the over-the-counter test is verified and that she is pregnant. The patient confides to the nurse, "We have wanted to be pregnant for some time. These last few days I have been questioning our decision. I am feeling really bad right now." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "You will come around in time and you will grow to love this baby."
B) "Don't feel bad. It is the hormones of pregnancy talking right now."
C) "Why do you think you are feeling bad when you wanted to be pregnant?"
D) "Your feelings are understandable. Ambivalence is not uncommon right now."
Q2) A patient arrives to the clinic 2 hours late for her prenatal appointment. This is the third time she has been late. What is the nurse's best action in response to this patient's tardiness?
A) Ask the patient if she has a way to tell the time.
B) Ask the patient if she is deliberately being late for her appointments.
C) Determine if the patient wants this baby and if this is her way of acting out.
D) Determine if the patient arrives after the start time for other types of appointments.
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be the goal of a client with the nursing diagnosis "Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements" (related to diet choices inadequate to meet the nutrient requirements of pregnancy)?
A) Gain a total of 30 lb.
B) Decrease intake of snack foods.
C) Take daily supplements consistently.
D) Increase intake of complex carbohydrates.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a client taking prenatal vitamins how to avoid constipation. Which should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Advise taking a daily laxative for constipation.
B) Recommend a diet high in fruits and vegetables.
C) Encourage an increase in fluid consumption during the day.
D) Increase the intake of whole grains and whole grain products.
E) Suggest increasing the intake of dairy products, especially cheeses.
Q3) Magnesium
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse's role in diagnostic testing is to provide which of the following?
A) Advice to the couple
B) Information about the tests
C) Reassurance about fetal safety
D) Assistance with decision making
Q2) Which factor serves as a clinical indicator for a third trimester amniocentesis?
A) Sex of the fetus
B) Rh isoimmunization
C) Placenta previa
D) Placental abruption
Q3) Doppler ultrasound
A)A test for estimating fetal lung maturity
B)A test to assess blood flow to identify abnormalities
C)A test to diagnose fetal chromosomal, metabolic, or DNA abnormalities
Q4) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
A) Increase placental blood flow.
B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.
C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.
D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the course of labor, a client has been having her labor coach rub her lower back to relieve pain. After 30 minutes, the client complains that this method is no longer working and becomes increasingly frustrated with the labor coach. The vaginal exam is 2 to 3 cm, 80% effaced, and -1 station, membranes intact. Which option would you recommend to decrease the client's perceived pain?
A) Have the labor coach change the touch location and begin gently massaging another area on the back.
B) Perform a vaginal exam to determine progress.
C) Have the labor coach step outside the room (LDR) and take a break because it is best to try and defuse the confrontation.
D) Suggest to the client that perhaps the use of a narcotic opioid will relieve her pain and facilitate the labor process.
Q2) What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?
A) Avoidance of an episiotomy
B) Determining the outcome of the birth
C) Assuming complete control of the situation
D) Taking an active part in planning the birth experience
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Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client who is at term calls the labor and birth unit stating that she thinks she is in labor. She states that she does have some vaginal discharge and feels wet but it is not bloody in nature. She relates a contraction pattern that is irregular, ranging from 5 to 7 minutes and lasting 30 seconds. What questions would be used during the process of phone triage by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ask her if her if she thinks that her membranes have ruptured.
B) Ask her if she has any evidence of bloody show.
C) Have her keep monitoring her contraction pattern and call you back if they become more regular.
D) Ask her when her she has her next scheduled visit with her health care provider.
E) Tell her to come into the hospital for evaluation.
Q2) The laboring client asks the nurse how the labor contractions work to dilate the cervix. The best response by the nurse is that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by:
A) promoting blood flow to the cervix.
B) contracting the lower uterine segment.
C) enlarging the internal size of the uterus.
D) pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac.
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During labor a vaginal examination should be performed only when necessary because of the risk of:
A) infection.
B) fetal injury.
C) discomfort.
D) perineal trauma.
Q2) The nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous (IV) access on a patient in the active phase of labor. Which size IV cannula is best for this patient?
A) 18-gauge
B) 20-gauge
C) 22-gauge
D) 24-gauge
Q3) The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to:
A) reduce heat loss from evaporation.
B) stimulate crying and lung expansion.
C) increase blood supply to the hands and feet.
D) remove maternal blood from the skin surface.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is a candidate for internal monitoring with an intrauterine pressure catheter?
A) Obese client whose contractions are 3 to 6 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 50 seconds
B) Gravida 1, para 0, whose contractions are 2 to 3 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds
C) Multigravida whose contractions are 2 minutes apart, lasting 60 to 70 seconds
D) Gravida 2, para 1, in latent phase whose contractions are irregular and mild
Q2) To clarify the fetal condition when baseline variability is absent, the nurse should first:
A) monitor fetal oxygen saturation using fetal pulse oximetry.
B) notify the physician so that a fetal scalp blood sample can be obtained.
C) apply pressure to the fetal scalp with a glove finger using a circular motion.
D) increase the rate of nonadditive IV fluid to expand the mother's blood volume.
Q3) A nurse documents that the fetal heart rate variability is marked. This indicates that the range is greater than how many beats per minute? Record your answer as a whole number.
_____ bpm
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A multipara's labor plan includes the use of jet hydrotherapy during the active phase of labor. What is the priority patient assessment prior to assisting the patient with this request?
A) Maternal pulse
B) Maternal temperature
C) Maternal blood pressure
D) Maternal blood glucose level
Q2) A client in labor reports a feeling of burning pain during the second stage of labor. This type of pain is associated with:
A) visceral pain.
B) tissue ischemia.
C) somatic pain.
D) cervical dilation.
Q3) A woman with a known heroin habit is admitted in early labor. Which drug is contraindicated with opiate-dependent patients?
A) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
B) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C) Promethazine (Phenergan)
D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a forceps-assisted birth, the client is observed to have continuous bright red lochia but a firm fundus. Which other data would indicate the presence of a potential vaginal wall hematoma?
A) Lack of an episiotomy
B) Mild, intermittent perineal pain
C) Lack of pain in the perineal area
D) Edema and discoloration of the labia and perineum
Q2) Induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is a safe time to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse on the labor and birth unit is often asked to schedule clients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction, including which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fetal death
B) Post-term pregnancy
C) Rupture of membranes at or near term
D) Convenience of the client or her health care provider
E) Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac)
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client going home after a cesarean birth. Which signs and symptoms should the client be taught to report? (Select all that apply.)
A) Mild incisional pain
B) Feeling of pelvic fullness
C) Lochia changing from red to pink in color
D) Frequency, urgency, or burning on urination
E) Redness or edema of the abdominal incision
Q2) The nurse is teaching a non-breastfeeding client measures to suppress lactation. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Avoid massaging the breasts.
B) Allow warm shower water to run over the breasts.
C) If the breasts become engorged, pumping is recommended .
D) Ice packs can be applied to the breasts to relieve discomfort.
E) Wear a sports bra 24 hours a day until the breasts become soft.
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19
Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new father states, "I know nothing about babies," but he seems to be interested in learning. The nurse should take which action?
A) Include him in teaching sessions.
B) Tell him when he does something wrong.
C) Show no concern because he will learn on his own.
D) Continue to observe his interaction with the newborn.
Q2) A husband calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He says, "She was never like this before the baby was born." Which should be the nurse's initial response?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
Q3) Which anticipatory guidance action by the nurse makes role transition to parenthood easier?
A) Helps the new parents identify resources
B) Recommends employing babysitters frequently
C) Tells the parents about the realities of parenthood
D) Offers a home phone number and tells parents to call if they have a question
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A multiparous patient arrives to the labor unit and urgently states, "The baby is coming RIGHT NOW!" The nurse assists the patient into a comfortable position and delivers the infant. To prevent infant heat loss from conduction, what is the priority nursing action?
A) Dry the baby off.
B) Turn up the temperature in the patient's room.
C) Pour warmed water over the baby immediately after birth.
D) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen after the cord is cut.
Q2) The nurse is teaching the postpartum client about newborn transitional stools. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to transitional stools? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are a greenish brown color.
B) They are of a looser consistency.
C) They have a tarlike consistency.
D) They have a consistency of mustard.
E) They are seedy, with a sweet-sour smell.
Q3) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
A)Only immunoglobulin to cross the placenta
B)First immunoglobulin produced by the newborn when stressed
C)Important in protection of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
Q2) A newborn who is a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) infant is in which percentile(s) for weight?
A) Below the 90th
B) Less than the 10th
C) Greater than the 90th
D) Between the 10th and 90th
Q3) The clients says, "My baby is so thin and wrinkled. It looks like he has too much skin." Which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse to the new client's statement?
A) "You sound disappointed about how your infant looks."
B) "All mothers are concerned about how their babies look."
C) "Don't worry. In no time he'll fill out his skin and look just fine."
D) "You know, all the cigarettes you smoked interfered with the nourishment he needed."
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 38 weeks' gestation fetus is delivered via cesarean section and transported to the newborn nursery in an isolette. Apgar scores were 8, 9, and 10. At this time, the infant is receiving an initial assessment in the newborn nursery. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to potential equipment malfunction of radiant warmer
B) Altered tissue perfusion related to use of medications during delivery process
C) Ineffective airway clearance due to mode of delivery and use of anesthetics
D) Risk for ineffective thermoregulation related to gestational age
Q2) Administration of medications after birth is the topic of discussion during a prenatal education class. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the pregnant patient understands the primary indication for the administration of vitamin K?
A) "The nurse will draw blood to determine if vitamin K is needed."
B) "Vitamin K prevents the possibility of bleeding problems in my baby."
C) "My baby will receive a shot when the nurse administers the vitamin K."
D) "Vitamin K will be administered shortly after birth, generally within the first hour."
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23
Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many milliliters per kilogram (mL/kg) of fluids does a newborn need daily for the first 3 to 5 days of life?
A) 20 to 30
B) 40 to 60
C) 60 to 100
D) 120 to 150
Q2) Late in pregnancy, the client's breasts should be assessed by the nurse to identify any potential concerns related to breastfeeding. Which of the following nipple conditions make it necessary to intervene before birth. (Select all that apply.)
A) Flat nipples
B) Cracked nipples
C) Everted nipples
D) Inverted nipples
E) Nipples that contract when compressed
Q3) What is the most serious consequence of propping an infant's bottle?
A) Colic
B) Aspiration
C) Dental caries
D) Ear infections
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the treatment for miliaria?
A) Application of oil
B) Removal of wet clothing
C) Removal of excess clothing
D) Application of soothing lotion
Q2) Which should be included in the home care of a high-risk infant?
A) Feeding the infant on a strict schedule
B) Keeping the infant in the supine or prone position
C) Providing continued respiratory support and oxygen
D) Cleaning the umbilical cord several times daily with alcohol
Q3) The nurse is teaching new parents strategies to help with newborn colic. Which should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase the number of feedings.
B) Feed the infant in an upright position.
C) Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
D) Allow the infant to cry for a period of time.
E) Increase carrying time by use of a front carrier pack.
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has delivered twins. The first twin was stillborn, and the second is in the intensive care nursery, recovering quickly from respiratory distress. The client is crying softly and says, "I wish my baby could have lived." Which is the most therapeutic response?
A) "How soon do you plan to have another baby?"
B) "Don't be sad. At least you have one healthy baby."
C) "I have a friend who lost a twin and she's doing just fine now."
D) "I am so sorry about your loss. Would you like to talk about it?"
Q2) Many teens wait until the second or even third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Continuing to deny the pregnancy
B) Uncertainty about where to go for care
C) Lack of realization that they are pregnant
D) A desire to gain control over their situation
E) Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible
Q3) Marijuana
A)Bleeding between the periosteum and the skull
B)An area of localized edema that appears over the vertex of the newborn's head
C)Changes in the shape of the head that allow it to pass through the birth canal
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which data found on a client's health history would place her at risk for an ectopic pregnancy?
A) Ovarian cyst 2 years ago
B) Recurrent pelvic infections
C) Use of oral contraceptives for 5 years
D) Heavy menstrual flow of 4 days' duration
Q2) A client who was pregnant had a spontaneous abortion at approximately 4 weeks' gestation. At the time of the miscarriage, it was thought that all products of conception were expelled. Two weeks later, the client presents at the clinic office complaining of "crampy" abdominal pain and a scant amount of serosanguineous vaginal drainage with a slight odor. The pregnancy test is negative. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 100° F, with blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg, irregular pulse 88 beats/min (bpm), and respirations, 20 breaths/min. Based on these assessment data, what does the nurse anticipate as a clinical diagnosis?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Uterine infection
C) Gestational trophoblastic disease
D) Endometriosis
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
A) Cardiomyopathy
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Rheumatic heart disease
D) Congenital heart disease
Q2) When planning intrapartum care for a client with heart disease, the nurse should include:
A) taking vital signs according to standard protocols.
B) continuously monitoring cardiac rhythm with telemetry.
C) massaging the uterus to hasten birth of the placenta.
D) maintaining the infusion of intravenous fluids to avoid dehydration.
Q3) A client has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
A) "I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible."
B) "Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected."
C) "My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life."
D) "This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS."
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138
Sample Questions
Q1) Which pelvic shape is most conducive to vaginal labor and birth?
A) Android
B) Gynecoid
C) Platypelloid
D) Anthropoid
Q2) The labor nurse is providing care to a multigravida with moderate to strong contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, duration 45 to 60 seconds. On admission, her cervical assessment was 5 cm, 80%, and -2. An epidural was administered shortly thereafter. Two hours after admission, her contraction pattern remains the same and her cervical assessment is 5 cm, 90%, and -2. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Palpate the patient's bladder for fullness.
B) Contact the health care provider for a prescription to augment the labor.
C) Obtain an order for an internal pressure catheter.
D) Reassure the patient that she is making adequate progress.
Q3) Which assessment finding indicates uterine rupture?
A) Fetal tachycardia occurs.
B) The client becomes dyspneic.
C) Labor progresses unusually quickly.
D) Contractions abruptly stop during labor.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) A sign of thrombophlebitis is:
A) visible varicose veins.
B) positive Homans sign.
C) pedal edema in the affected leg.
D) local tenderness, heat, and swelling.
Q2) As you receive a report, which assessment finding should you recognize as indicative of a vaginal laceration?
A) Fundus firm at the umbilicus
B) Pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/78 mm Hg
C) Bright red continuous trickle of blood from vagina
D) Client requested pain medication twice during last shift
Q3) To determine an adverse response to carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate), the nurse should frequently assess:
A) temperature.
B) lochial flow.
C) fundal height.
D) breath sounds.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2140
Sample Questions
Q1) An infant delivered preterm at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information, the infant is designated as:
A) SGA.
B) VLBW.
C) ELBW.
D) Low birth weight at term.
Q2) In comparison with the term infant, the preterm infant has:
A) More subcutaneous fat.
B) Well-developed flexor muscles.
C) Few blood vessels visible through the skin.
D) Greater surface area in proportion to weight.
Q3) In caring for the preterm infant, which complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level?
A) Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
B) Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)
C) Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH)
D) Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)
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Page 31
Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) The priority assessment for the Rh-positive infant whose mother's indirect Coombs test was positive at 36 weeks is:
A) skin color.
B) temperature.
C) respiratory rate.
D) blood glucose level.
Q2) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see:
A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
Q3) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if:
A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has had a prior history of endometriosis and comes to the clinic asking about which method of birth control might be helpful to alleviate her symptoms. Which birth control method should the client use?
A) Withdrawal method
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Depo-Provera
D) Intrauterine device (IUD)
Q2) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for a client who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
Q3) Which client is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes
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33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosome analysis is a diagnostic test that should be offered to which couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Has long-standing infertility
C) Has had repeated pregnancy losses
D) Has a normal child but has not conceived again
Q2) A woman undergoing evaluation of infertility states, "At least when we're through with all of these tests, we will know what is wrong." The nurse's best response is:
A) "I know the test will identify what is wrong."
B) "I'm sure that once you finish these tests, your problem will be resolved."
C) "Even with diagnostic testing, infertility remains unexplained in about 20% of couples."
D) "Once you've identified your problem, you may want to look at the option of adoption."
Q3) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) Healthy People 2020 goals directed at women's health issues focus on which areas? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased screening for cervical and colorectal cancers
B) Reduction of cancer survivor rate based on clinical management treatment
C) Decreased morbidity and mortality related to breast cancer
D) Reduction in hospitalization for hip fractures in the older female population
E) Reduction in deaths associated with cardiovascular causes such as stroke and coronary artery disease (CAD)
Q2) A 45-year-old client asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is:
A) whenever she feels a lump.
B) every year beginning at age 40.
C) they are unnecessary until age 50.
D) every year if you have risk factors.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145
Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most likely to have osteoporosis?
A) A 50-year-old client on estrogen therapy
B) A 55-year-old client with a sedentary lifestyle
C) A 65-year-old client who walks 2 miles each day
D) A 60-year-old client who takes supplemental calcium
Q2) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a client who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy
Q3) Which are the most common sites of breast cancer metastasis?
A) Kidneys
B) Bones and liver
C) Heart and blood vessels
D) Central nervous system
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