Perinatal Nursing Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women, infants, and families during the preconception, pregnancy, birth, and postpartum periods. This course examines the physiological, psychological, and social factors that affect maternal and newborn health, emphasizing assessment, interventions, and education to promote optimal outcomes. Students will explore topics such as prenatal care, labor and delivery support, neonatal adaptation, management of complications, and promotion of family-centered care. Current research, interprofessional collaboration, ethical considerations, and cultural competence in perinatal health care are also emphasized, preparing nurses to provide evidence-based, compassionate care across diverse settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/167
Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) Capitated care
A)This includes health maintenance organizations (HMOs), point of service plans (POSs), and preferred provider organizations (PPOs).
B)The payer of the health insurance (usually the employer or the government) pays a set amount of money each year to a network of primary care providers (PCPs).
C)Medical diagnoses are classified based on the type of complexity of services generally required.
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is assessing a client's use of complementary and alternative therapies. Which should the nurse document as an alternative or complementary therapy practice? (Select all that apply.)
A) Practicing yoga daily
B) Drinking green tea in the morning
C) Taking omeprazole (Prilosec) once a day
D) Using aromatherapy during a relaxing bath
E) Wearing a lower back brace when lifting heavy objects
Answer: A, B, D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing intervention is an independent function of the nurse?
A) Administering oral analgesics
B) Requesting diagnostic studies
C) Teaching the client perineal care
D) Providing wound care to a surgical incision
Answer: C
Q2) You are taking care of a couple postbirth who are very eager to learn about bathing techniques that they can use for their newborn. Which teaching technique could the nurse use to facilitate parents learning about giving a bath to their newborn infant?
A) Provide direct, step-by-step demonstration to each parent separately to foster individual retention and comprehension.
B) Present information to parents prior to discharge so that the information will be current.
C) Have each parent bathe the newborn each time the infant comes to the room and provide commentary after the skill repetition.
D) Demonstrate bathing techniques on the newborn infant with parents in attendance.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2114
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse who works in the emergency department (ED) is assigned to a client who is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding at 12 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound has confirmed the absence of a fetal heart rate, and the client is scheduled for a dilation and evacuation of the pregnancy. The nurse refuses to provide any further care for this client based on moral principles. What is the nurse manager's initial response to the nurse?
A) "I recall you sharing that information in your interview. I will arrange for another nurse to take report on this client."
B) "Because we are shorthanded today, you have to continue to provide care. There is no one else available to provide care for this client."
C) "I understand your point of view. You were hired to work here in the ED so you had to know this situation was possible."
D) "Abandonment is a serious issue. I have to advise you to continue to provide care for this client."
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman's menstrual cycle began on June 2, on which date should ovulation mostly likely have occurred?
A) June 10
B) June 16
C) June 29
D) July 5
Q2) The school nurse is conducting health education classes for a group of adolescents. Which statement best describes a secondary sexual characteristic?
A) Maturation of ova
B) Production of sperm
C) Female breast development
D) Secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Q3) To evaluate an individual's progression through puberty, which assessment tool would be used during the assessment phase of the nursing process?
A) Bishop score
B) Tanner staging
C) Braden score
D) SOFA score
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6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number.
_____%
Q2) The nurse receives a report on an infant whose analysis indicates 47 total chromosomes, with the abnormality noted at chromosome 21. What additional assessments will the nurse include when evaluating the infant?
A) Cleft palate
B) Protruding tongue
C) Extra fingers or toes (polydactyly)
D) Intellectual developmental delay
Q3) Autosomal recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Q4) Autosomal dominant
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
Q2) Intervillous spaces
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
Q3) An expectant parent says to the nurse, "When my sister's baby was born, it was covered in a cheeselike coating. What is the purpose of this coating?" The correct response by the nurse is to explain that the purpose of vernix caseosa is to:
A) regulate fetal temperature.
B) protect the fetal skin from amniotic fluid.
C) promote normal peripheral nervous system development.
D) allow the transport of oxygen and nutrients across the amnion.
Q4) Umbilical artery
A)Carries deoxygenated blood and waste products from the fetus
B)Site of exchange of substances between the mother and fetus
C)Carries oxygenated blood and nutrients to the fetus
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Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2118
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman is the mother of two children. Her first pregnancy ended in a stillbirth at 32 weeks of gestation, her second pregnancy with the birth of her daughter at 36 weeks, and her third pregnancy with the birth of her son at 41 weeks. Using the five-digit system to describe this woman's current obstetric history, what should the nurse record?
A) 4-1-2-0-2
B) 3-1-2-0-2
C) 4-2-1-0-1
D) 3-1-1-1-3
Q2) When a pregnant woman develops ptyalism, what should the nurse advise?
A) Chew gum or suck on lozenges between meals.
B) Eat nutritious meals that provide adequate amounts of essential vitamins and minerals.
C) Take short walks to stimulate circulation in the legs and elevate the legs periodically. D) Use pillows to support the abdomen and back during sleep.
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number.
______ times
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9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Vietnamese client who speaks little English is admitted to the labor and birth unit in early labor. The nurse plans to use an interpreter during an initial assessment. Which should the nurse plan to implement with regard to using an interpreter? (Select all that apply.)
A) Face the interpreter when speaking.
B) Listen carefully to what the client says.
C) Speak slowly and smile when appropriate.
D) Plan to use a male interpreter, even if a female interpreter is available.
E) Ask the interpreter to explain exactly what is said as much as possible, instead of paraphrasing.
Q2) Which of the following would be considered to be a system barrier to the birth of prenatal care?
A) Adolescent pregnant client
B) Inability to schedule an appointment with the health care provider because of a busy medical practice
C) Pregnant client has no health insurance
D) Having to sign in for the initial appointment and complete health history records
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2120
Sample Questions
Q1) To increase the absorption of iron in a pregnant client, with what should an iron preparation be given?
A) Tea
B) Milk
C) Coffee
D) Orange juice
Q2) The pregnant client with significant iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. The client confides to the nurse that she can't take iron because it makes her nauseous. What is the best response by the nurse?
A) "Iron will be absorbed more readily if taken with orange juice."
B) "It is important to take this drug regardless of this side effect."
C) "Taking the drug with milk may decrease your symptoms."
D) "Try taking the iron at bedtime on an empty stomach."
Q3) Vitamin D
A)Necessary for metabolism of calcium
B)Necessary for mineralization of fetal bones and teeth
C)Deficiency in first weeks of pregnancy may cause spontaneous abortion and neural tube defects
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is the earliest that chorionic villus sampling can be performed during pregnancy?
A) 4 weeks
B) 8 weeks
C) 10 weeks
D) 12 weeks
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the procedure for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening with a patient at 16 weeks' gestation. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching when she mentions that which fluid will be collected for the initial screening process?
A) Urine
B) Blood
C) Saliva
D) Amniotic
Q3) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels in maternal serum is to determine whether the fetus has which?
A) Hemophilia
B) Sickle cell anemia
C) A neural tube defect
D) A normal lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2122
Sample Questions
Q1) The support person for your labor client has been applying gentle massage to the client's upper back frequently over the past hour. Now, the labor client states that "it just isn't helping anymore." Both the support person and labor client are becoming frustrated with each other's inability to make things less stressful during the labor process. What would be the best nursing response at this time?
A) Have the client change position and tell the support person to take a break.
B) Discuss the effects of habituation and suggest alternate measures that could be used to relieve pain.
C) Advise the client that this may be the best time to ask for an epidural.
D) Tell the client and support person that she must be progressing further and you will do a vaginal exam to determine progress.
Q2) What does a birth plan help the parents accomplish?
A) Avoidance of an episiotomy
B) Determining the outcome of the birth
C) Assuming complete control of the situation
D) Taking an active part in planning the birth experience
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13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining to a group of nursing students what occurs during active labor as the uterus contracts. Which statement explains the maternal-fetal exchange of oxygen and waste products during a contraction?
A) Is not significantly affected
B) Increases as blood pressure decreases
C) Diminishes as the spiral arteries are compressed
D) Continues except when placental functions are reduced
Q2) The examiner indicates to the labor nurse that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position. To facilitate the labor process, how will the nurse position the laboring patient?
A) On her back
B) On her left side
C) On her right side
D) On her hands and knees
Q3) Position
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
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14
Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assesses the amniotic fluid. Which characteristic presents the lowest risk of fetal complications?
A) Bloody
B) Clear with bits of vernix caseosa
C) Green and thick
D) Yellow and cloudy with foul odor
Q2) When taking care of a client in labor who is not considered to be at risk, which assessments should be included in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
A) Check the DTR each shift.
B) Monitor and record vital signs frequently during the course of labor.
C) Document the FHR pattern, noting baseline and response to contraction patterns.
D) Indicate on the EFM tracing when maternal position changes are done.
E) Provide food, as tolerated, during the course of labor.
Q3) Which assessment finding could indicate hemorrhage in the postpartum patient?
A) Elevated pulse rate
B) Elevated blood pressure
C) Firm fundus at the midline
D) Saturation of two perineal pads in 4 hours
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15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which medications could potentially cause hyperstimulation of the uterus during labor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin (Pitocin)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Dinoprostone (Cervidil)
D) Methylergonovine maleate (Methergine)
Q2) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Q3) In which situation would a baseline fetal heart rate of 160 to 170 bpm be considered a normal finding?
A) The fetus is at 30 weeks of gestation.
B) The mother has a history of fast labors.
C) The mother has been given an epidural block.
D) The mother has mild preeclampsia but is not in labor.
Q4) Early decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2126
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors would affect pain perception or tolerance for the laboring client?
A) Right occiput posterior fetal position during labor
B) Bishop score of 10 prior to the induction of labor
C) Gynecoid pelvis
D) Absence of Ferguson's reflex
Q2) When giving a narcotic to a laboring client, which statement explains why the nurse should inject the medication at the beginning of a contraction?
A) The medication will be rapidly circulated.
B) Less medication will be transferred to the fetus.
C) The maternal vital signs will not be adversely affected.
D) Full benefit of the medication is received during that contraction.
Q3) Which statement is true with regard to the type of pain associated with childbirth experience?
A) Pain is constant throughout the labor experience.
B) Labor pain during childbirth is considered to be an abnormal response.
C) Pain associated with childbirth is self-limiting.
D) Pain associated with childbirth does not allow for adequate preparation.
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2127
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse monitors the client in labor for signs and symptoms of water intoxication. Which finding indicates that this may be occurring?
A) Hypotension
B) Rales and wheezes
C) Slow shallow breathing
D) Tachycardia
Q2) The nurse knows that a urinary catheter is added to the instrument table if a forceps-assisted birth is anticipated. The correct rationale for this intervention is that:
A) a sterile urine specimen is needed preoperatively.
B) an empty bladder provides more room in the pelvis.
C) spontaneous release of urine might contaminate the sterile field.
D) a Foley catheter prevents the membranes from spontaneously rupturing.
Q3) Which assessment finding is indicative of a major complication 1 hour following a forceps birth?
A) Uterine fundus displaced at U + 1
B) Complaints of vaginal and uterine pain
C) Peripads showing moderate lochia rubra
D) Increase in pulse rate from 90 to 110 bpm
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning comfort measures to implement for a client after a vaginal birth. Which measures should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Sitz baths four times a day
B) Use of only warm water with the sitz baths
C) Topical anesthetic spray after perineal care
D) Ice pack to the perineum for the first 24 hours
E) Sitting while relaxing the perineal and buttock areas
Q2) A pregnant client asks when the dark line on her abdomen (linea nigra) will go away. The nurse knows the pigmentation will decrease after birth because of:
A) increased estrogen.
B) increased progesterone.
C) decreased human placental lactogen.
D) decreased melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
Q3) Rho(D) immune globulin will be ordered postpartum if which situation occurs?
A) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
B) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative
C) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-positive
D) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-negative
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most likely to have the least stress adjusting to her role as a mother?
A) A 26-year-old woman who is returning to work in 10 weeks
B) A 35-year-old anxious mother who has had no contact with babies or children
C) A 16-year-old teenager who lives with her parents and has a strained relationship with her mother
D) A 25-year-old woman who knew at 16 weeks of gestation that she was pregnant with twins, who were delivered by cesarean birth
Q2) Which action should the nurse do to provide support and encouragement to the new postpartum client?
A) Recount how she solved her own problems.
B) Correct the new mother at every opportunity.
C) Praise the mother's early attempts at infant care.
D) Explain to the new mother that everything will be fine.
Q3) Letting-go
A)Passive, dependent
B)Begins to see self as a mother
C)Autonomous, seeking information
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can nurses prevent evaporative heat loss in the newborn?
A) Placing the baby away from the outside wall and the windows
B) Keeping the baby out of drafts and away from air conditioners
C) Drying the baby after birth and wrapping the baby in a dry blanket
D) Warming the stethoscope and nurse's hands before touching the baby
Q2) The nurse is teaching the postpartum client about newborn transitional stools. Which should the nurse include in the teaching session with regard to transitional stools? (Select all that apply.)
A) They are a greenish brown color.
B) They are of a looser consistency.
C) They have a tarlike consistency.
D) They have a consistency of mustard.
E) They are seedy, with a sweet-sour smell.
Q3) A newborn is admitted to the newborn nursery with hypothermia. Which complication should the nurse monitor related to hypothermia in the newborn?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Respiratory acidosis
D) Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A maculopapular rash with a red base and a small white papule in the center is:
A) milia.
B) Mongolian spots.
C) erythema toxicum.
D) café-au-lait spots.
Q2) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse implement to prevent the kidnapping of a newborn from the hospital?
A) Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery
B) Questioning anyone who is seen walking in the hallways carrying an infant
C) Allowing no visitors in the maternity area except those who have identification bracelets
D) Instructing the parents to not give the baby to anyone except the nurse assigned that day
Q2) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take an action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37° C (98.6° F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
Q3) Which newborn testing must be performed prior to discharge from the hospital? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Hearing
C) Guthrie
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Galactosemia
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an important consideration about the storage of breast milk?
A) Can be thawed and refrozen
B) Can be frozen for up to 2 months
C) Should be stored only in glass bottles
D) Can be kept refrigerated for 48 hours
Q2) Late in pregnancy, the client's breasts should be assessed by the nurse to identify any potential concerns related to breastfeeding. Which of the following nipple conditions make it necessary to intervene before birth. (Select all that apply.)
A) Flat nipples
B) Cracked nipples
C) Everted nipples
D) Inverted nipples
E) Nipples that contract when compressed
Q3) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is calling a new mother to schedule a routine home visit planned for 48 to 72 hours after discharge. What is the nurse's priority question to help determine the best time for the visit?
A) "When will the baby's father be home?"
B) "Do you plan on having any visitors in the day or two?"
C) "At approximately what time do you think you will be nursing your baby?"
D) "When will your home be presentable enough for me to come and visit?"
Q2) The nurse is teaching new parents strategies to help with newborn colic. Which should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase the number of feedings.
B) Feed the infant in an upright position.
C) Burp the infant frequently during feedings.
D) Allow the infant to cry for a period of time.
E) Increase carrying time by use of a front carrier pack.
Q3) Which infant should be seen immediately by a health care provider?
A) A 1-week-old infant with a diaper rash
B) A 1-month-old infant with an axillary temperature of 99.8° F (37.7° C)
C) A 3-week-old breast-fed infant who has had two loose stools
D) A 2-week-old infant with nasal congestion and respirations of 64 breaths/min
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which environment can assist a pregnant teen to achieve the task of establishing a stable identity?
A) Home schooling
B) Alternative education program
C) School-based mothers' program
D) Continuing mainstream high school classes
Q2) Which nursing diagnoses may apply to the childbearing family with special needs?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Risk for spiritual distress
B) Risk for injury
C) Readiness for enhanced nutrition
D) Ineffective breathing pattern
E) Situational low self-esteem
Q3) Which complication of adolescent pregnancy should the nurse plan to monitor?
A) Anemia
B) Placenta previa
C) Abruptio placenta
D) Incompetent cervix
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26
Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is monitoring a client with severe preeclampsia who is on IV magnesium sulfate. Which signs of magnesium toxicity should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cool, clammy skin
B) Altered sensorium
C) Pulse oximeter reading of 95%
D) Respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths/min
E) Absence of deep tendon reflexes
Q2) Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
A) Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg
B) Complaint of frequent mild nausea
C) Fundal height measurement of 18 cm
D) History of bright red spotting for 1 day weeks ago
Q3) The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant client who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to:
A) monitor uterine contractions.
B) assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
C) place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
D) perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antiinfective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant client with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the client is at risk of developing:
A) hypertension.
B) postpartum infection.
C) bacterial endocarditis.
D) upper respiratory infections.
Q2) Which factor is known to increase the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus?
A) Previous birth of large infant
B) Maternal age younger than 25 years
C) Underweight prior to pregnancy
D) Previous diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus
Q3) Which disease process improves during pregnancy?
A) Epilepsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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28
Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant client who has had a prior obstetric history of preterm labors is pregnant with her third child. The physician has ordered an fFN (fetal fibronectin) test. Which instructions should be given to the client related to this clinical test?
A) Client must be NPO prior to testing.
B) Blood work will be drawn every week to help confirm the start of preterm labor.
C) Client should refrain from sexual activity prior to testing.
D) A urine specimen will be collected for testing.
Q2) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean birth because:
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the client delivers vaginally.
Q3) Which presentation is least likely to occur with a hypotonic labor pattern?
A) Prolonged labor duration
B) Fetal distress
C) Maternal comfort during labor
D) Irregular labor contraction pattern
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Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postpartum client would be at increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage if she delivered a(n):
A) 5-lb, 2-oz infant with outlet forceps.
B) 6.5-lb infant after a 2-hour labor.
C) 7-lb infant after an 8-hour labor.
D) 8-lb infant after a 12-hour labor.
Q2) Which labor and birth information on the client would suggest an increased risk for hemorrhage?
A) Precipitous birth after a 12-hour labor
B) Cesarean birth of an infant weighing 8 lb, 4 oz
C) Vaginal birth of 7-lb infant after a 2-hour labor
D) Vaginal birth of 6-lb infant after a 7-hour labor
Q3) A postpartum client has developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and treatment with warfarin (Coumadin) has been initiated. Which dietary selection should be modified in view of this treatment regimen?
A) Fresh fruits
B) Milk
C) Lentils
D) Soda
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Page 30
Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A characteristic of a post-term infant who weighs 7 lb, 12 oz, and who lost weight in utero, is:
A) Soft and supple skin.
B) A hematocrit level of 55%.
C) Lack of subcutaneous fat.
D) An abundance of vernix caseosa.
Q2) Following a traumatic birth of a 10-pound infant, the nurse should assess:
A) gestational age status.
B) flexion of both upper extremities.
C) infant's percentile on growth chart.
D) blood sugar to detect hyperglycemia.
Q3) Following the vaginal birth of a macrosomic infant, the nurse should assess the infant for:
A) Hyperglycemia.
B) Clavicle fractures.
C) Hyperthermia.
D) An increase in red blood cells.
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an infant with cyanotic cardiac anomaly, the nurse should expect to see:
A) feedings taken eagerly.
B) a consistent and rapid weight gain.
C) a decrease in the heart rate with activity.
D) little to no improvement in color with oxygen administration.
Q2) Newborns whose mothers are substance abusers frequently have which behaviors?
A) Hypothermia, decreased muscle tone, and weak sucking reflex
B) Excessive sleep, weak cry, and diminished grasp reflex
C) Circumoral cyanosis, hyperactive Babinski reflex, and constipation
D) Decreased amounts of sleep, hyperactive Moro reflex, and difficulty feeding
Q3) While in utero, the fetus passes meconium. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis takes priority for the newborn at birth?
A) Risk for infection related to release of meconium
B) Risk for injury related to high-risk birth interventions, such as amino infusion
C) Risk for aspiration related to retained secretions
D) Risk for thermoregulation because of high-risk labor status
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Family Planning
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Sample
Questions
Q1) The most appropriate statement for introducing the topic of family planning in the postpartum setting is:
A) "What are your plans for future pregnancies?"
B) "Do you plan on being sexually active in the future?"
C) "Let's talk about birth control, because breastfeeding is not 100% effective for preventing pregnancy."
D) "Here are some pamphlets on available methods of birth control. I'll come back later and discuss them with you."
Q2) Informed consent concerning contraceptive use is important because some of the methods:
A) may not be reliable.
B) require a surgical procedure to insert.
C) have potentially dangerous side effects.
D) are invasive procedures that require hospitalization.
Q3) The method of contraception that is considered the safest for women is a(n):
A) IUD.
B) diaphragm.
C) male condom.
D) oral contraceptive.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest:
A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q2) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's best response is:
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
Q3) Which of the following medical conditions could possible affect a woman's fertility status?
A) Past medical history of asthma during childhood that is presently under control with the use of an inhaler
B) Recently diagnosed with PCOS
C) Past surgical history of removal of external polyps on labial tissue
D) History of frequent sinus headaches that is seasonal in nature treated with over-the-counter medication
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which piece of the usual equipment setup for a pelvic examination is omitted with a Pap smear?
A) Lubricant
B) Speculum
C) Fixative agent
D) Gloves and eye protectors
Q2) Findings of a Pap smear exam denote atypical cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). The Pap test is repeated at 6 months and the same finding of ASCUS are reported. Which therapeutic treatment option would the nurse expect the practitioner to order?
A) Mammography
B) Bone scan
C) Transvaginal ultrasound
D) Biopsy
Q3) Which administration concern is included in the plan of care for the HPV (human papillomavirus) vaccine?
A) It is available in liquid form.
B) It involves a series of two injections.
C) Injections should be given over a 3-month period.
D) The individual should sit down for 15 minutes following the injection.
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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Q1) Which treatment option minimizes the development of lymphedema in the surgical management of a client with breast cancer?
A) Radical mastectomy procedure
B) Radiation therapy
C) Sentinel lymph node mapping
D) Ultrasound
Q2) Which option could be used for the treatment and management of a client who reports mild pain associated with a clinical diagnosis of fibrocystic breast disease?
A) Chamomile tea as a relaxant therapy
B) Danazol (Danocrine)
C) Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
D) Over-the-counter nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) therapy
Q3) The physician diagnoses a 3-cm cyst in the ovary of a 28-year-old client. You expect the initial treatment to include:
A) beginning hormone therapy.
B) scheduling a laparoscopy to remove the cyst.
C) examining the client after her next menstrual period.
D) aspirating the cyst and sending the fluid to pathology.
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