Perinatal Nursing Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing is a specialized field focused on the care of women and their families throughout the stages of pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. This course covers the physiological, psychological, and social aspects of perinatal health, emphasizing assessment, planning, and intervention strategies to promote optimal maternal and neonatal outcomes. Students learn evidence-based practices in prenatal care, labor and delivery management, newborn assessment, and family education, as well as risk identification and the management of common complications. The course also highlights the importance of cultural competence, patient advocacy, and interdisciplinary collaboration within perinatal care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 7th Edition Murray
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27 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Maternity and Womens Health Care Today
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse identify as a priority for a patient in active labor?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
Q2) In which step of the nursing process does the nurse determine the appropriate interventions for the identified nursing diagnosis?
A) Planning
B) Evaluation
C) Assessment
D) Intervention
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Social, Ethical, and Legal Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to an obstetric litigation case, a nurse working in labor and birth is found to be negligent. Which intervention performed by the nurse indicates that a breach of duty has occurred?
A) The nurse did not document fetal heart tones (FHR) during the second stage of labor.
B) The patient was only provided ice chips during the labor period, which lasted 8 hours.
C) The nurse allowed the patient to use the bathroom rather than a bedpan during the first stage of labor.
D) The nurse asked family members to leave the room when she prepared to do a pelvic exam on the patient.
Answer: A
Q2) Which situation is most representative of an extended family?
A) It includes adoptive children.
B) It is headed by a single-parent.
C) It contains children from previous marriages.
D) It is composed of children, parents, and grandparents living in the same house.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing normal female development with a mother of a 10-year-old daughter. The mother states, "I noticed that my daughter developed breast buds about a year ago. When do you think she will start her menstrual cycle?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "In about a year."
B) "Likely any time now."
C) "Does your daughter know what to expect?"
D) "It is impossible to predict when she will start her cycle."
Answer: A
Q2) Delayed onset of menstruation or primary amenorrhea is considered if the girl's periods have not begun by which age in years? Record your answer in a whole number.
Answer: 16
Delayed onset of menstruation is called primary amenorrhea if the girl's periods have not begun within 2 years after the onset of breast development or by age 16, or if the girl is more than 1 year older than her mother or sisters were when their menarche occurred.
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Chapter 4: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinic nurse is reviewing charts on prenatal patients. Which patient histories indicate that a referral to a genetic counselor is warranted? (Select all that apply.)
A) A father who is aged 35
B) A patient having a first baby at age 30
C) A family history of unexplained stillbirths
D) A patient with a family history of birth defects
E) A patient who is a carrier of an X-linked disorder
Q2) The patient indicates to the clinic nurse that she is trying to become pregnant. The clinic nurse reviews the patient's chart and notes the following laboratory values: Blood type O-, RPR nonreactive, rubella non-immune, HCT 35%. Which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?
A) HCT 35%
B) Blood type O-
C) RPR nonreactive
D) Rubella non-immune
Q3) Two healthy parents who carry the same abnormal autosomal recessive gene have what percentage chance of having a child affected with the disorder caused by this gene? Record your answer as a whole number. _____%
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Chapter 5: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn immediately after birth. After assigning the first Apgar score of 9, the nurse notes two vessels in the umbilical cord. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Assess for other abnormalities of the infant.
B) Note the assessment finding in the infant's chart.
C) Notify the health care provider of the assessment finding.
D) Call for the neonatal resuscitation team to attend the infant immediately.
Q2) A patient who is 16 weeks pregnant with her first baby asks how long it will be before she feels the baby move. Which is the nurse's best answer?
A) "You should have felt the baby move by now."
B) "The baby is moving, but you can't feel it yet."
C) "Some babies are quiet and you don't feel them move."
D) "Within the next month you should start to feel fluttering sensations."
Q3) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosome?" What is the correct response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Maternal Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic findings related to gallbladder function may lead to the development of gallstones during pregnancy?
A) Decrease in alkaline phosphatase levels compared with nonpregnant women
B) Increase in albumin and total protein as a result of hemodilution
C) Hypertonicity of gallbladder tissue
D) Prolonged emptying time
Q2) An expected change during pregnancy is a darkly pigmented vertical midabdominal line. The nurse recognizes this alteration as A) epulis.
B) linea nigra.
C) melasma.
D) striae gravidarum.
Q3) The capacity of the uterus in a term pregnancy is how many times its prepregnant capacity? Record your answer as a whole number. ______ times
Q4) Which situation best describes a man trying on fathering behaviors?
A) Reading books on newborn care
B) Spending more time with his siblings
C) Coaching a little league baseball team
D) Exhibiting physical symptoms related to pregnancy
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Chapter 7: Antepartum Assessment, Care, and Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information is covered by early pregnancy classes offered in the first and second trimesters?
A) Methods of pain relief
B) The phases and stages of labor
C) Coping with common discomforts of pregnancy
D) Prebirth and postbirth care of a patient having a cesarean birth
Q2) A pregnant patient reports that she works in a long-term care setting and is concerned about the impending flu season. She asks about receiving the flu vaccine. As the nurse, you are aware that some immunizations are safe to administer during pregnancy, whereas others are not. Which vaccines could this patient receive? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tetanus
B) Varicella
C) Influenza
D) Hepatitis A and B
E) Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)
Q3) Calculate the estimated date of birth (EDD) in October using Nägele's rule for a patient whose last normal menstrual period (LNMP) began on January 1. Record your answer as a whole number. _______
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in the diet of the pregnant patient who has phenylketonuria would include
A) adding foods high in vitamin C.
B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.
C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.
D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient taking prenatal vitamins how to avoid constipation. Which should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Advise taking a daily laxative for constipation.
B) Recommend a diet high in fruits and vegetables.
C) Encourage an increase in fluid consumption during the day.
D) Increase the intake of whole grains and whole grain products.
E) Suggest increasing the intake of dairy products, especially cheeses.
Q3) Which clinical finding is associated with inadequate maternal weight gain during pregnancy?
A) Prolonged labor
B) Preeclampsia
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Low-birth-weight infant
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Chapter 9: Assessing the Fetus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which analysis of maternal serum is the best predictor of chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Multiple-marker screening
C) Lecithin-to-sphingomyelin ratio
D) Blood type and crossmatch of maternal and fetal serum
Q2) A pregnant patient has received the results of her triple-screen testing and it is positive. She provides you with a copy of the test results that she obtained from the lab. What would the nurse anticipate as being implemented in the patient's plan of care?
A) No further testing is indicated at this time because results are normal.
B) Refer to the physician for additional testing.
C) Validate the results with the lab facility.
D) Repeat the test in 2 weeks and have the patient return for her regularly scheduled prenatal visit.
Q3) For which patient would an L/S ratio of 2:1 potentially be considered abnormal?
A) A 38-year-old gravida 2, para 1, who is 38 weeks' gestation
B) A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who has diabetes
C) A 44-year-old gravida 6, para 5, who is at term
D) An 18-year-old gravida 1, para 0, who is in early labor at term
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A blood-soaked peripad weighs 900g. The nurse would document a blood loss of _____ mL.
A) 1800
B) 450
C) 900
D) 90
Q2) The labor nurse is admitting a patient in active labor with a history of genital herpes. On assessment, the patient reports a recent outbreak, and the nurse verifies lesions on the perineum. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Ask the patient when she last had anything to eat or drink.
B) Take a culture of the lesions to verify the involved organism.
C) Ask the patient if she has had unprotected sex since her outbreak.
D) Use electronic fetal surveillance to determine a baseline fetal heart rate.
Q3) Spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if A) the pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
B) the fetus weighs less than 1000 G
C) the products of conception are passed intact.
D) there is no evidence of intrauterine infection.
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Chapter 11: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnoses may apply to the childbearing family with special needs? (Select all that apply.)
A) Risk for spiritual distress
B) Risk for injury
C) Readiness for enhanced nutrition
D) Ineffective breathing pattern
E) Situational low self-esteem
Q2) Which is the most dangerous effect on the fetus of a patient who smokes cigarettes while pregnant?
A) Intrauterine growth restriction
B) Genetic changes and anomalies
C) Extensive central nervous system damage
D) Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled
Q3) A pregnant patient who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior puts her at a greater risk for
A) postmature birth.
B) sexually transmitted diseases.
C) hypotension and vasodilation.
D) depression of the central nervous system.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) After birth of the placenta the patient states, "All of a sudden I feel very cold." What is the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
A) Place a warm blanket over the patient.
B) Place the baby on the patient's abdomen.
C) Tell the patient that chills are expected after birth.
D) "What do you mean by your words 'very cold'?"
Q2) The nurse assesses a laboring patient's contraction pattern and notes the frequency at every 3 to 4 minutes, duration 50 to 60 seconds, and the intensity is moderate by palpation. What is the most accurate documentation for this contraction pattern?
A) Stage 1, latent phase
B) Stage 2, latent phase
C) Stage 1, active phase
D) Stage 2, active phase
Q3) A patient whose cervix is dilated to 6 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor?
A) Latent phase
B) Active phase
C) Second stage
D) Third stage
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Chapter 13: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a childbirth education class. Which information regarding excessive pain in labor should the nurse include in the session?
A) It usually results in a more rapid labor.
B) It has no effect on the outcome of labor.
C) It is considered to be a normal occurrence.
D) It may result in decreased placental perfusion.
Q2) A patient in labor reports a feeling of burning pain during the second stage of labor. This type of pain is associated with A) visceral pain.
B) tissue ischemia.
C) somatic pain.
D) cervical dilation.
Q3) Excessive anxiety during labor heightens the patient's sensitivity to pain by increasing A) muscle tension.
B) the pain threshold.
C) blood flow to the uterus.
D) rest time between contractions.
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Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
C) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler position.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode to the maternal abdomen.
Q2) Which clinical finding can be determined only by electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Variability
B) Tachycardia
C) Bradycardia
D) Fetal response to contractions
Q3) Which of the following is the priority intervention for the patient in a left side-lying position whose monitor strip shows a deceleration that extends beyond the end of the contraction?
A) Administer OS1U1B12S1U1B0 at 8 to 10 L/minute.
B) Decrease the IV rate to 100 mL/hour.
C) Reposition the ultrasound transducer.
D) Perform a vaginal exam to assess for cord prolapse.
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who is gravida 3, para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments include
A) contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history.
B) fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the woman's nearness to birth.
C) last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.
D) identification of ruptured membranes, the woman's gravida and para, and access to a support person.
Q2) A nursing priority during admission of a laboring patient who has not had prenatal care is
A) obtaining admission labs.
B) identifying labor risk factors.
C) discussing her birth plan choices.
D) explaining importance of prenatal care.
Q3) Which comfort measure should the nurse utilize in order to enable a laboring woman to relax?
A) Recommend frequent position changes.
B) Palpate her filling bladder every 15 minutes.
C) Offer warm wet cloths to use on the patient's face and neck.
D) Keep the room lights lit so the patient and her coach can see everything.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Intrapartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the priority nursing assessment for the patient undergoing tocolytic therapy with terbutaline (Brethine)?
A) Intake and output
B) Maternal blood glucose level
C) Internal temperature and odor of amniotic fluid
D) Fetal heart rate, maternal pulse, and blood pressure
Q2) A patient with polyhydramnios is admitted to a labor-birth-recovery-postpartum (LDRP) suite. Her membranes rupture and the fluid is clear and odorless; however, the fetal heart monitor indicates bradycardia and variable decelerations. Which action should be taken next?
A) Perform Leopold maneuvers.
B) Perform a vaginal examination.
C) Apply warm saline soaks to the vagina.
D) Place the patient in a high Fowler position.
Q3) Which factor should alert the nurse to the potential for a prolapsed umbilical cord?
A) Oligohydramnios
B) Pregnancy at 38 weeks of gestation
C) Presenting part at a station of -3
D) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Adaptations and Nursing Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of binding in during the postpartum period is a
A) new mother telling her friends all about her labor and birth experience.
B) father looking at his newborn and stating that he "looks like I did when I was a baby."
C) mother reporting increasing anxiety during the postpartum period because she feels like she is without support.
D) mother wanting some time alone so that she can catch up on needed sleep.
Q2) Which situation would require the administration of Rho(D) immune globulin?
A) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-positive
B) Mother Rh-negative, baby Rh-negative
C) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-positive
D) Mother Rh-positive, baby Rh-negative
Q3) Which clinical finding should the nurse suspect if the fundus is palpated on the right side of the abdomen above the expected level?
A) Distended bladder
B) Normal involution
C) Been lying on her right side too long
D) Stretched ligaments that are unable to support the uterus
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) A white blood cell (WBC) count of 35,000 cells/mm³ on the morning of the first postpartum day indicates
A) possible infection.
B) normal WBC limit.
C) serious infection.
D) suspicion of a sexually transmitted disease.
Q2) The nurse should expect medical intervention for subinvolution to include
A) oral fluids to 3000 mL/day.
B) intravenous fluid and blood replacement.
C) oxytocin intravenous infusion for 8 hours.
D) oral methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) for 48 hours.
Q3) A patient with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. Which is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) Organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid.
B) Organisms that cause mastitis are not passed through the milk.
C) The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis.
D) The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postpartum nurse is administering vitamin K (phytonadione) to a newborn. The prescribed order is to administer one dose of 0.5 mg of vitamin K via the intramuscular (IM) route within 1 hour after birth. The ampule of vitamin K sent from the pharmacy is 1 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters does the nurse draw up to administer the correct dose?
Record your answer to two decimal points. _____ mL
Q2) A meconium stool can be differentiated from a transitional stool in the newborn because the meconium stool is
A) seen at 3 days of age.
B) the residue of a milk curd.
C) passed in the first 24 hours of life.
D) lighter in color and looser in consistency.
Q3) During the first few minutes after birth, which physiologic change occurs in the newborn as a response to vascular pressure changes in increased oxygen levels?
A) Increased pulmonary vascular resistance
B) Decreased systemic resistance
C) Decreased pressure in the left heart
D) Dilation of pulmonary vessels
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) To differentiate between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma in a newborn, the nurse would consider the following clinical information. (Select all that apply.)
A) These are both normal presentations because of the birth process and will resolve within 24 to 48 hours.
B) Cephalohematoma manifests as a localized area of swelling as compared with caput succedaneum, which appears as a general swelling of the head.
C) A cephalohematoma can develop several hours or days after the birth event, whereas caput succedaneum is noted shortly before or immediately after the birth event.
D) Edema that crosses suture lines is observed with caput succedaneum.
E) With a cephalohematoma, bleeding occurs between the bone and skull.
Q2) Which newborn reflex is elicited by stroking the lateral sole of the infant's foot from the heel to the ball of the foot?
A) Babinski
B) Stepping
C) Tonic neck
D) Plantar grasp
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Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) Which of the following guidelines should the nurse implement to prevent the abduction of a newborn from the hospital?
A) Restricting the amount of time infants are out of the nursery
B) Questioning anyone who is seen walking in the hallways carrying an infant
C) Allowing no visitors in the maternity area except those who have identification bracelets
D) Instructing the parents not to give the baby to anyone except the nurse assigned that day
Q2) During a prenatal education class regarding infant home care, the nurse is reviewing the simulated setting created by new mothers for putting the baby to bed. Which observation indicates to the nurse that the new mothers understood the nurse's teaching about infant safety?
A) The crib is lined with a bumper pad.
B) Stuffed animals are placed in the crib.
C) The baby mannequin is in the supine position.
D) The baby mannequin is covered with a handmade quilt.
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother is breastfeeding her newborn son and is experiencing signs of her breasts feeling tender and full in between infant feedings. She asks if there are any suggestions that you can provide to help alleviate this physical complaint. The ideal nursing response would be to
A) tell the patient to wear a bra at all times to provide more support to breast tissue.
B) have the patient put the infant to her breast more frequently.
C) place ice packs on breast tissue after infant feeding.
D) explain that this is a normal finding and will resolve as her breast tissue becomes more used to nursing.
Q2) Which recommendation should the nurse make to a patient to assist in initiating the milk-ejection reflex?
A) Wear a well-fitting firm bra.
B) Drink plenty of fluids.
C) Place the infant to the breast.
D) Apply cool packs to the breast.
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24
Chapter 23: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most useful factor in preventing premature birth?
A) High socioeconomic status
B) Adequate prenatal care
C) Aid to Families with Dependent Children
D) Women, Infants, and Children (WIC) nutritional program
Q2) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?
A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.
B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.
C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.
D) Three successive temperature measurements were 36.1°C, 35.5°C, and 36.1°C (97, 96, and 97°F).
Q3) An infant delivered prematurely at 28 weeks' gestation weighs 1200 g. Based on this information the infant is classified as
A) SGA.
B) VLBW.
C) ELBW.
D) low birth weight at term.
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Chapter 24: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be alert to a blood group incompatibility if A) both mother and infant are O-positive.
B) mother is A-positive and infant is A-negative.
C) mother is O-positive and infant is B-negative.
D) mother is B-positive and infant is O-negative.
Q2) Transitory tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is thought to occur as a result of A) a lack of surfactant.
B) hypoinflation of the lungs.
C) inadequate absorption of fetal lung fluid.
D) a delayed vaginal birth associated with meconium-stained fluid.
Q3) The difference between nonphysiologic jaundice (pathologic jaundice) and physiologic jaundice is that nonphysiologic jaundice
A) may result in kernicterus.
B) appears during the first 24 hours of life.
C) begins on the head and progresses down the body.
D) results from the breakdown of excessive erythrocytes not needed after birth.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Family Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which symptom in a patient using oral contraceptives should be reported to the physician immediately?
A) 5-lb weight gain
B) Leg pain and edema
C) Decrease in menstrual flow
D) Increased pigmentation of the face
Q2) When using the basal body temperature method of family planning, the woman should understand that
A) she will remain fertile for 5 days after ovulation.
B) she should take her temperature each night before going to bed.
C) her temperature will increase about 0.2 to 0.4°C (0.4 to 0.8°F) after ovulation.
D) her temperature is normally lower during the second half of her cycle.
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for the patient who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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Chapter 26: Infertility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large amounts of leukocytes in the seminal fluid suggest a clinical finding of A) inadequate fructose.
B) inflammation of the testes.
C) an infection of the genital tract.
D) an obstruction in the vas deferens.
Q2) The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
A) in vitro fertilization (IVF).
B) tubal embryo transfer (TET).
C) therapeutic insemination (IUI).
D) gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Q3) A couple who has not achieved a successful pregnancy is scheduled to meet with a fertility specialist. Which simple evaluation is usually the first test to be performed?
A) Semen analysis
B) Testicular biopsy
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Hysterosalpingography
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Chapter 27: Womens Health
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2175
Sample Questions
Q1) A 38-year-old patient presents to the clinic office complaining of increased bilateral tenderness of her breasts prior to the onset of menses. On questioning the patient, this presentation has occurred off and on for several years; however, the pain has increased. Physical examination reveals lumpy areas bilaterally on the upper outer quadrants of each breast tissue. The areas of concern are approximately 2 cm in size. Based on this assessment, which diagnostic testing would be necessary? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Open biopsy
C) Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy
D) CBC with differential
E) Mammogram
Q2) A benign breast condition that includes dilation and inflammation of the collecting ducts is known as
A) fibroadenoma.
B) ductal ectasia.
C) intraductal papilloma.
D) chronic cystic disease.
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