Perinatal Nursing Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing is a specialized area of nursing practice focused on providing care to women and their families during the preconception, pregnancy, labor, birth, and postpartum periods. This course covers comprehensive maternal assessment, fetal monitoring, management of normal and high-risk pregnancies, delivery techniques, newborn assessment, and support for breastfeeding and postpartum adaptation. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, interdisciplinary collaboration, patient education, and cultural competence to optimize health outcomes for both mothers and newborns. Students will develop critical thinking and clinical skills essential for safe and compassionate perinatal care.
Recommended Textbook
Maternity Nursing 8th Edition by Deitra Leonard Lowdermilk
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24 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing:
Competent, Family and Community Focused
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30715
Sample Questions
Q1) Recent trends in childbirth practices in the United States indicate that:
A) Only 15% of mothers receive prenatal care in the first trimester.
B) The percentage of Hispanics, non-Hispanic African-Americans, and Caucasians who received prenatal care was essentially the same.
C) Ninety-nine percent of births occurred in the hospital.
D) Cesarean births have been declining as a percentage of live births.
Answer: C
Q2) When managing health care for pregnant women at a prenatal clinic, the nurse should recognize that the most significant barrier to access to care is the pregnant woman's:
A) Age.
B) Minority status.
C) Educational level.
D) Inability to pay.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Assessment and Health Promotion
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30716
Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual assault is:
A) Limited to rape.
B) An act of force in which an unwanted and uncomfortable sexual act occurs.
C) A legal term for sexual violence.
D) An act of violence in which the partner is unknown.
Answer: B
Q2) Women with severe and persistent mental illness are likely to be more vulnerable to being involved in controlling and/or violent relationships. However, many women develop mental health problems as a result of long-term abuse. The psychologic consequences of continued abuse do not include:
A) Substance abuse.
B) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
C) Eating disorders.
D) Bipolar disorder.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Common Concerns
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30717
Sample Questions
Q1) To detect the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), most laboratory tests focus on:
A) HIV virus.
B) HIV antibodies.
C) CD<sub>4 </sub>counts.
D) CD<sub>8</sub> counts.
Answer: B
Q2) Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a patient with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
A) Acetaminophen.
B) Oral contraceptives (OCPs).
C) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D) Aspirin.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Contraception, Abortion, and Infertility
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. The nurse's most appropriate response would be:
A) "This is a highly effective method, but it has some side effects."
B) "Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill."
C) "The pill will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication."
D) "This is a good choice for a woman of your age and personal history."
Q2) An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A) "The IUD does not interfere with sex."
B) "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you."
C) "The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections (STIs)."
D) "Pregnancy rates are high with the IUD."
Q3) Which contraceptive method has a failure rate of less than 25%?
A) Standard days
B) Periodic abstinence
C) Ovulation method
D) Coitus interruptus
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetics, Conception, and Fetal Development
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30719
Sample Questions
Q1) A key finding from the Human Genome Project is:
A) Approximately 30,000 to 40,000 genes make up the genome.
B) All human beings are 80.99% identical at the DNA level.
C) Human genes produce only one protein per gene; other mammals produce three proteins per gene.
D) Single gene testing will become a standardized test for all pregnant patients in the future.
Q2) Regarding the development of the respiratory system, maternity nurses should be aware that:
A) The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage.
B) The infant's lungs are considered mature when the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is 1:1, at about 32 weeks.
C) Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity.
D) Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks.
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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is 6 weeks pregnant. She has had a previous spontaneous abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with the birth of a stillborn girl. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?
A) 2-0-0-1-1
B) 2-1-0-1-0
C) 3-1-0-1-0
D) 3-0-1-1-0
Q2) Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester?
A) Less audible heart sounds (S1, S2)
B) Increased pulse rate
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production
Q3) Appendicitis may be difficult to diagnose in pregnancy because the appendix is:
A) Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the right.
B) Displaced upward and laterally, high and to the left.
C) Deep at McBurney point.
D) Displaced downward and laterally, low and to the right.
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Chapter 7: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30721
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman at 18 weeks of gestation calls the clinic to report that she has been experiencing occasional backaches of mild-to-moderate intensity. The nurse would recommend that she:
A) Do Kegel exercises.
B) Do pelvic rock exercises.
C) Use a softer mattress.
D) Stay in bed for 24 hours.
Q2) With regard to work and travel during pregnancy, nurses should be aware that:
A) Women should sit for as long as possible and cross their legs at the knees from time to time for exercise.
B) Women should avoid seat belts and shoulder restraints in the car, because they press on the fetus.
C) Metal detectors at airport security checkpoints can harm the fetus if the woman passes through them a number of times.
D) While working or traveling in a car or on a plane, women should arrange to walk around at least every hour or so.
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Chapter 8: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30722
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman experiencing nausea and vomiting should:
A) Drink a glass of water with a fat-free carbohydrate before getting out of bed in the morning.
B) Eat small, frequent meals (every 2 to 3 hours).
C) Increase her intake of high-fat foods to keep the stomach full and coated.
D) Limit fluid intake throughout the day.
Q2) While taking a diet history, the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips, cornstarch, and baking soda. This represents a nutritional problem known as:
A) Preeclampsia.
B) Pyrosis.
C) Pica.
D) Purging.
Q3) Which of the following meals would provide the most absorbable iron?
A) Toasted cheese sandwich, celery sticks, tomato slices, and a grape drink
B) Oatmeal, whole wheat toast, jelly, and low-fat milk
C) Black bean soup, wheat crackers, ambrosia (orange sections, coconut, and pecans), and prunes
D) Red beans and rice, cornbread, mixed greens, and decaffeinated tea
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Labor and Birth Processes
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would expect which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor?
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Decreased pulse rate
C) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
D) Decreased blood pressure
Q2) With regard to fetal positioning during labor, nurses should be aware that:
A) Position is a measure of the degree of descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.
B) Birth is imminent when the presenting part is at +4 to +5 cm, below the spine.
C) The largest transverse diameter of the presenting part is the suboccipitobregmatic diameter.
D) Engagement is the term used to describe the beginning of labor.
Q3) Signs that precede labor include (choose all that apply):
A) Lightening.
B) Exhaustion.
C) Bloody show.
D) Rupture of membranes.
E) Decreased fetal movement.
Q4) The _________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
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Chapter 10: Management of Discomfort
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30724
Sample Questions
Q1) An 18-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 1, is admitted to the labor and birth unit with moderate contractions every 5 minutes that last 40 seconds. The woman states, "My contractions are so strong that I don't know what to do." The nurse should:
A) Assess for fetal well-being.
B) Encourage the woman to lie on her side.
C) Disturb the woman as little as possible.
D) Recognize that pain is personalized for each individual.
Q2) Opioids such as hydromorphone, fentanyl, and meperidine can cause excessive CNS depression in both the mother and newborn. Opioid antagonists such as naloxone (Narcan) can promptly reverse the CNS depressant effects, especially respiratory depression. The RN should use caution in administering naloxone to opioid dependent women in labor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The role of the nurse with regard to informed consent is to:
A) Inform the patient about the procedure and have her sign the consent form.
B) Act as a patient advocate and help clarify the procedure and the options.
C) Call the physician to see the patient.
D) Witness the signing of the consent form.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30725
Sample Questions
Q1) In assisting with the two factors that have an effect on fetal status (i.e., pushing and positioning), nurses should:
A) Encourage the woman's cooperation in avoiding the supine position.
B) Advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position.
C) Encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response.
D) Instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.
Q2) When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses should be aware that both:
A) Can be used when membranes are intact.
B) Measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions.
C) May need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring.
D) Can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.
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Chapter 12: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30726
Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman complains of back labor pain, the nurse might best suggest that she:
A) Lie on her back for a while with her knees bent.
B) Do less walking around.
C) Take some deep, cleansing breaths.
D) Lean over a birth ball with her knees on the floor.
Q2) Through vaginal examination the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated, and the external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every 3½ to 4 minutes. The nurse would report this as:
A) First stage, latent phase.
B) First stage, active phase.
C) First stage, transition phase.
D) Second stage, latent phase.
Q3) A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant expresses fear about her impending labor and how she will manage. The nurse's best response is:
A) "Don't worry about it. You'll do fine."
B) "It's normal to be anxious about labor. Let's discuss what makes you afraid."
C) "Labor is scary to think about, but the actual experience isn't."
D) "You can have an epidural. You won't feel anything."
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Chapter 13: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30727
Sample Questions
Q1) A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman?
A) Lochia rubra
B) Lochia sangra
C) Lochia alba
D) Lochia serosa
Q2) The nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that breast engorgement is caused by:
A) Overproduction of colostrum.
B) Accumulation of milk in the lactiferous ducts.
C) Hyperplasia of mammary tissue.
D) Congestion of veins and lymphatics.
Q3) Clotting factors and fibrinogen levels normally are decreased during pregnancy and remain low in the immediate puerperium. This hypocoagulable state increases the risk of thromboembolism, especially after cesarean birth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process in which the uterus returns to a non-pregnant state after birth is known as ____________________.
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Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During the Fourth Trimester
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30728
Sample Questions
Q1) A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week postpartum checkup. The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman:
A) Discusses her labor and birth experience excessively.
B) Believes that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others.
C) Has not given the baby a name.
D) Has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby.
Q2) If a mother and her family have freely chosen early discharge from the hospital, the nurse and the health care provider are not legally responsible if complications occur and her condition had not been stabilized within normal limits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse's first action is to:
A) Begin an intravenous (IV) infusion of Ringer's lactate solution.
B) Assess the woman's vital signs.
C) Call the woman's primary health care provider.
D) Massage the woman's fundus.
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Chapter 15: Transition to Parenthood
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When dealing with parents who have some form of sensory impairment, nurses should realize that all of these statements are true except:
A) One of the major difficulties visually impaired parents experience is the skepticism of health care professionals.
B) Visually impaired mothers cannot overcome the infant's need for eye-to-eye contact.
C) The best approach for the nurse is to assess the parents' capabilities rather than focusing on their disabilities.
D) Technologic advances, including the Internet, can provide deaf parents with a full range of parenting activities and information.
Q2) Hearing impaired parents face- many challenges in caregiving and parenting, particularly if their deafness dates back to infancy or early childhood. In order to ensure that the learning needs of these families are met, legislation has been passed that directs hospitals to use various communication techniques and resources with their deaf patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By knowing about variations in infants' blood count, nurses can explain to their patients that:
A) A somewhat lower than expected red blood cell count could be the result of delay in clamping the umbilical cord.
B) The early high white blood cell (WBC) count is normal at birth and should decrease rapidly.
C) Platelet counts are higher than in adults for a few months.
D) Even a modest vitamin K deficiency means a problem with the ability of the blood to clot properly.
Q2) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a "C" with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive:
A) Tonic neck reflex.
B) Glabellar (Myerson) reflex.
C) Babinski reflex.
D) Moro reflex.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Assessment and Care of the Newborn and Family
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early this morning, an infant boy was circumcised using the PlastiBell method. The nurse tells the mother that she and the infant can be discharged after:
A) The bleeding stops completely.
B) Yellow exudate forms over the glans.
C) The PlastiBell rim falls off.
D) The infant voids.
Q2) In the classification of newborns by gestational age and birth weight, the appropriate for gestational age (AGA) weight would:
A) Fall between the 25th and 75th percentiles for the infant's age.
B) Depend on the infant's length and the size of the head.
C) Fall between the 10th and 90th percentiles for the infant's age.
D) Be modified to consider intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
Q3) An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed:
A) Only if the newborn is in obvious distress.
B) Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth.
C) At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth.
D) Every 15 minutes during the newborn's first hour after birth.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman who recently arrived from Africa insists upon feeding her infant honey prior to her milk coming in. This statement leads the nurse to believe that the woman should receive further education on infant feeding practices.
A)True
B)False
Q2) With regard to the nutrient needs of breastfed and formula-fed infants, nurses should be aware that:
A) Breastfed infants need extra water in hot climates.
B) During the first 3 months, breastfed infants consume more energy than formula-fed infants.
C) Breastfeeding infants should receive oral vitamin D drops daily at least during the first 2 months.
D) Vitamin K injections at birth are not needed for infants fed on specially enriched formula.
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Chapter 19: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test indicates an elevated level. It is repeated and again is reported as higher than normal. What would be the next step in the assessment sequence to determine the well-being of the fetus?
A) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
B) Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
C) Biophysical profile (BPP) for fetal well-being
D) Amniocentesis for genetic anomalies
Q2) In comparison to contraction stress tests (CSTs), the nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment:
A) Has no known contraindications.
B) Has fewer false-positive results.
C) Is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise.
D) Is slightly more expensive.
Q3) Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP):
A) Is an accurate indicator of fetal well-being.
B) Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy.
C) Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index.
D) Involves an invasive form of ultrasonic examination.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In teaching the woman with pregestational diabetes about desired glucose levels, the nurse explains that a normal fasting glucose level, such as before breakfast, is in the range of:
A) 65 to 95 mg/dl.
B) 130 to 140 mg/dl.
C) 200 mg/dl.
D) 55 mg/dl.
Q2) Systemic lupus erythematosus is a chronic multisystem inflammatory disease that affects skin, joints, kidney, lungs, CNS, liver, and other organs. A lupus flare up during pregnancy or early postpartum occurs in 15% to 60% of women with this disorder. Maternal risks include (choose all that apply):
A) Miscarriage.
B) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
C) Nephritis.
D) Preeclampsia.
E) Caesarean birth.
Q3) The standard of care for women who are dependent on heroin or other narcotics is ____________________ maintenance treatment (MMT).
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Chapter 21: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is being induced because of her worsening preeclampsia. She is also receiving magnesium sulfate. It appears that her labor has not become active despite several hours of oxytocin administration. She asks the nurse, "Why is it taking so long?"
The most appropriate response by the nurse would be:
A) "The magnesium is relaxing your uterus and competing with the oxytocin. It may increase the duration of your labor."
B) "I don't know why it is taking so long."
C) "The length of labor varies for different women."
D) "Your baby is just being stubborn."
Q2) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is _____________________.
Q3) Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to:
A) Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency.
B) Shorten the duration of labor.
C) Prevent and treat convulsions.
D) Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow.
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Chapter 22: Labor and Birth at Risk
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for a patient in the active phase of labor. The woman's bag of waters spontaneously ruptures. Suddenly the woman complains of dyspnea and appears restless and cyanotic. In addition, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic. The nurse immediately suspects the presence of
Q2) A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1½ to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
A) She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
B) She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
C) She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
D) She is experiencing pelvic dystocia.
Q3) With regard to the process of inducing labor, nurses should be aware that:
A) Ripening the cervix usually results in a decreased success rate for induction.
B) Labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents.
C) Oxytocin is less expensive than prostaglandins and more effective but creates greater health risks.
D) Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ is the most common cause of postpartum infection.
Q2) When caring for a postpartum woman experiencing hemorrhagic shock, the nurse recognizes that the most objective and least invasive assessment of adequate organ perfusion and oxygenation is:
A) Absence of cyanosis in the buccal mucosa.
B) Cool, dry skin.
C) Diminished restlessness.
D) Urinary output of at least 30 ml/hr.
Q3) Abnormal adherence of the placenta occurs for reasons unknown. Attempts to remove the placenta in the usual manner are unsuccessful, and laceration and perforation of the uterine wall may result, putting the woman at risk for severe PPH and infection. Placental adherence may be partial or complete. Which is not a recognized degree of placental attachment?
A) Placenta accreta
B) Placenta previa
C) Placenta increta
D) Placenta percreta
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25
Chapter 24: The Newborn at Risk
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For diagnostic and treatment purposes, nurses should know the birth weight classifications of high risk infants. For example, extremely low birth weight (ELBW) is the designation for an infant whose weight is:
A) Less than 1500 g.
B) Less than 1000 g.
C) Less than 2000 g.
D) Dependent on the gestational age.
Q2) A pregnant woman was admitted for induction of labor at 43 weeks of gestation with sure dates. A nonstress test (NST) in the obstetrician's office revealed a nonreactive tracing. On artificial rupture of membranes, thick, meconium-stained fluid was noted. The nurse caring for the infant after birth should anticipate:
A) Meconium aspiration, hypoglycemia, and dry, cracked skin.
B) Excessive vernix caseosa covering the skin, lethargy, and respiratory distress syndrome.
C) Golden yellow- to green-stained skin and nails, absence of scalp hair, and an increased amount of subcutaneous fat.
D) Hyperglycemia, hyperthermia, and an alert, wide-eyed appearance.
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