Perinatal Nursing Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women and their families during the preconception, pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum periods, as well as the care of newborns. This course explores the physiological, psychological, and social adaptations experienced during the perinatal period, and emphasizes evidence-based practices in assessment, planning, intervention, and evaluation to promote optimal maternal and neonatal outcomes. Topics include high-risk pregnancies, pain management, fetal assessment, childbirth education, family involvement, and cultural considerations. Students will also examine ethical issues, collaborative practices, and the role of perinatal nurses in supporting womens health and well-being throughout the childbearing process.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing 5th Edition by McKinney
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55 Chapters
1615 Verified Questions
1615 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/470
Page 2
Chapter 1: Foundations of Maternity, Womens Health, and Child Health Nursing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In most states,adolescents who are not emancipated minors must have the permission of their parents before
A) treatment for drug abuse.
B) treatment for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).
C) accessing birth control.
D) surgery.
Answer: D
Q2) A nurse is floated to a different unit.The nurse does not know how to perform a treatment that has been prescribed for one of his or her assigned patients.What should the nurse's first action be?
A) Delay the treatment until another nurse can do it.
B) Make the child's parents aware of the situation.
C) Inform the nursing supervisor of the problem.
D) Arrange to have the child transferred to another unit.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Nurses Role in Maternity, Womens Health, and Pediatric Nursing
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse wishes to incorporate the American Nurses Association Code of Ethics for Nurses in daily practice.Which of the following actions best demonstrates successful integration of the code into daily routines?
A) Strives to treat all patients equally and with caring kindness
B) Calls the provider when the patient's pain is not controlled with prescribed medications
C) Reads current literature related to practice area and brings ideas to unit management
D) Routinely stays overtime in order to visit and bond with new families
E) Decides to "play nicely" and not get involved in disputes about patient care
Answer: A,B,C
Q2) Which nursing intervention is correctly written?
A) Encourage turning, coughing, and deep breathing.
B) Force fluids as necessary.
C) Assist to ambulate for 10 minutes at 8 AM, 2 PM, and 6 PM.
D) Observe interaction with infant.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: The Childbearing and Child-Rearing Family
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Friedman's classifications,providing such physical necessities as food,clothing,and shelter is the __________ family function.
A) economic
B) socialization
C) reproductive
D) health care
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient from a different culture and is frustrated by what appears to be a lack of cooperation on the patient's part.A colleague states that the patient is "in America and should do what everyone else does." This is an example of what trait?
A) Ethnocentrism
B) Cultural congruency
C) Rudeness
D) Ignorance
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Communicating with Children and Families
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preschool-age child is being admitted for some diagnostic tests and possible surgery.The nurse planning care should use which phrases when explaining procedures to the child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fluids will be given through tubing connected to a tiny tube inserted into your arm.
B) After surgery we will be doing dressing changes.
C) You will get a shot before surgery.
D) The doctor will give you medicine that will help you go into a deep sleep.
E) We will take you to surgery on a bed on wheels.
Q2) An effective technique for communicating with toddlers is to
A) have the toddler make up a story from a picture.
B) involve the toddler in dramatic play with dress-up clothing.
C) use picture books.
D) ask the toddler to draw pictures of his fears.
Q3) Which strategy is most likely to encourage a child to express feelings about the hospital experience?
A) Avoiding periods of silence
B) Asking yes/no questions
C) Sharing personal experiences
D) Using open-ended questions
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Health Promotion for the Developing Child
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes development in infants and children?
A) Development, a predictable and orderly process, occurs at varying rates within normal limits.
B) Development is primarily related to the growth in the number and size of cells.
C) Development occurs in a proximodistal direction with fine muscle development occurring first.
D) Development is more easily and accurately measured than growth.
Q2) A student nurse is preparing to administer an Hib vaccination to an infant.What action by the student requires the registered nurse to intervene?
A) Gives the vaccine information statement prior to administering the vaccine
B) Wipes the dorsal gluteal area with alcohol prior to injection
C) Obtains written informed consent before giving the vaccine
D) Assesses the family's beliefs and values about vaccinations
Q3) Which child is most likely to be frightened by hospitalization?
A) A 4-month-old infant admitted with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis
B) A 2-year-old toddler admitted for cystic fibrosis
C) A 9-year-old child hospitalized with a fractured femur
D) A 15-year-old adolescent admitted for abdominal pain
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Chapter 6: Health Promotion for the Infant
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is making a home visit on a new mother with an infant.What action by the mother requires the nurse to intervene?
A) Cooks while holding and cuddling infant to provide comfort
B) Keeps hand on infant while reaching for supplies on changing table
C) Shows the nurse the water heater setting that is on 110° F (43.3° C)
D) Places baby to sleep in crib with no blankets, toys, or other objects
Q2) The parents of a newborn infant state,"We will probably not have our baby immunized because we are concerned about the risks." What is the nurse's best response?
A) "It is your decision to immunize your child or not."
B) "You should probably think about this decision."
C) "It is far riskier to not immunize your baby."
D) "This has to be reported to the health department."
Q3) A nurse is modeling play time with a 6-month-old infant.Which activity is appropriate?
A) Pat-a-cake, peek-a-boo
B) Ball rolling, hide-and-seek game
C) Bright rattles and tactile toys
D) Push-and-pull toys
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Health Promotion During Early Childhood
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do parents of preschool children need to understand about discipline?
A) Both parents and the child should agree on the method of discipline.
B) Discipline should involve some physical restriction.
C) The method of discipline should be consistent with that of the child's peers.
D) Discipline should include positive reinforcement of desired behaviors.
Q2) A 17-month-old child is expected to be in what stage according to Piaget?
A) Trust
B) Preoperations
C) Secondary circular reaction
D) Sensorimotor period
Q3) The nurse is assessing a preschool aged child during a well-child checkup.This child has gained 2 pounds in 1 year.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Ask the parent to provide a 3-day diet diary.
B) Assess the child's teeth and gums.
C) Plot the weight gain on the growth chart.
D) Instruct the parent on today's needed vaccinations.
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Chapter 8: Health Promotion for the School-Age Child
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent reports getting annoyed with a 6-year-old child who seems to always get cranky and irritable when playing with friends.What suggestion by the nurse is best?
A) Maybe he should not play with those friends anymore.
B) The parents should monitor the children's play more closely.
C) When the child gets cranky he should be told to rest.
D) The parents should assess the child's diet for protein.
Q2) Which interventions should the nurse teach that are appropriate for preventing childhood obesity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Establish consistent times for meals and snacks.
B) Sign your child up for sports teams.
C) Teach the family and child how to prepare foods in a healthy manner.
D) Show the family how to read food labels.
E) Limit computer and television time.
Q3) A nurse is assessing an 8-year-old child.Which finding leads the nurse to conduct further assessment?
A) Understands that his or her point of view is not the only one
B) Enjoys telling riddles and silly jokes
C) Demonstrates the principle of object conservation
D) Engages in fantasy and magical thinking
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Health Promotion for the Adolescent
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The school nurse is evaluating the school's athletic programs for safety.What factors should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Students get adequate rest periods.
B) Equipment is in good condition.
C) Practices are appropriate for students.
D) Post-game concussion assessment if needed
E) Adequate fluids are available at all times.
Q2) A nurse wants to volunteer for an organization that helps prevent death in older adolescents.What action by the nurse would have the most impact?
A) Volunteer for a suicide hotline.
B) Teach firework safety classes.
C) Work on a poison control hot line.
D) Educate teens on gun safety.
Q3) Which behavior suggests appropriate psychosocial development in the adolescent?
A) The adolescent seeks validation for socially acceptable behavior from older adults.
B) The adolescent is self-absorbed and self-centered and has sudden mood swings.
C) Adolescents move from peers and enjoy spending time with family members.
D) Conformity with the peer group increases in late adolescence.
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11
Chapter 10: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Development
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is born with blood type AB.The father is type A,and the mother is type B.The father asks why the baby has a blood type different from those of his parents.The nurse's answer should be based on the knowledge that
A) both A and B blood types are dominant.
B) the baby has a mutation of the parents' blood types.
C) type A is recessive and links more easily with type B.
D) types A and B are recessive when linked together.
Q2) A 35-year-old woman has an amniocentesis performed to find out whether her baby has a chromosome defect.Which statement by this patient indicates that she understands her situation?
A) "The doctor will tell me if I should have an abortion when the test results come back."
B) "I know support groups exist for parents who have a baby with birth defects, but we have plenty of insurance to cover what we need."
C) "When all the lab results come back, my husband and I will make a decision about the pregnancy."
D) "My mother must not find out about all this testing. If she does, she will think I'm having an abortion."
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a woman about spinnbarkeit.The student nurse asks why the woman would need this information.What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) To assist in becoming pregnant or preventing pregnancy
B) To determine if she can breastfeed
C) To assess risk for genetic defects in the fetus
D) To find out if her ova are suitable for fertilization
Q2) In describing the size and shape of the nonpregnant uterus to a patient,the nurse would say it is approximately the size and shape of a
A) cantaloupe.
B) grapefruit.
C) pear.
D) large orange.
Q3) The student nurse learns that follicle stimulating hormone is produced in which gland?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Posterior pituitary
C) Hypothalamus
D) Adrenal glands
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13
Chapter 12: Conception and Prenatal Development
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing faculty explains to students that the upper uterus is the best place for the fertilized ovum to implant because it is here that the
A) placenta attaches most firmly.
B) developing baby is best nourished.
C) uterine endometrium is softer.
D) maternal blood flow is lower.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a prenatal class.The nurse teaches that during weeks 25 to 28,which fetal development occurs?
A) Eyes reopen.
B) Vernix caseosa covers the skin.
C) Lanugo may develop.
D) Brown fat is deposited.
Q3) Which statement related to oogenesis is correct?
A) Two million primary oocytes will mature.
B) At birth, all ova are contained in the female's ovaries.
C) The oocytes complete their division during fetal life.
D) Monthly, at least two oocytes mature.
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14
Chapter 13: Adaptations to Pregnancy
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is at her first prenatal visit and is distressed at needing an HIV test.What response by the nurse is best?
A) "We ask all women to be tested for HIV during their pregnancy."
B) "This test is required by law for pregnant women."
C) "Infection with HIV will make your pregnancy very high risk."
D) "You could have been exposed and not know it."
Q2) To relieve a leg cramp,the patient should be instructed to
A) massage the affected muscle.
B) stretch and point the toe.
C) dorsiflex the foot.
D) apply a warm pack.
Q3) A nurse in labor and delivery is caring for a Muslim woman during the active phase of labor.You note that when you touch her,she quickly draws away.Which response by the nurse is best?
A) Continue to touch her as much as you need to while providing care.
B) Assume that she doesn't like you and decrease your time with her.
C) Limit touching to a minimum, as this may not be acceptable in her culture.
D) Ask the charge nurse to reassign you to another patient.
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Chapter 14: Nutrition for Childbearing
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse teaching a prenatal class is discussing nutrition.What foods does the nurse advise pregnant women to avoid?
A) Canned white tuna as a preferred choice
B) Shark, swordfish, and mackerel
C) Treating fish caught in local waterways as the safest
D) High levels of mercury in salmon and shrimp
Q2) A patient has the nursing diagnosis: Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements related to diet choices inadequate to meet nutrient requirements of pregnancy.What goal is most appropriate for this diagnosis?
A) Weight change from 135 pounds to 165 pounds at delivery
B) Take daily supplements consistently.
C) Decrease intake of snack foods.
D) Increase intake of complex carbohydrates.
Q3) The nurse teaches a pregnant woman that one danger in using nonfood supplementation of nutrients is
A) increased absorption of all vitamins.
B) development of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH).
C) increased caloric intake.
D) toxic effects on the fetus.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Prenatal Diagnostic Tests
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason for evaluating alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)levels in maternal serum is to determine if the fetus has
A) hemophilia.
B) a neural tube defect.
C) sickle cell anemia.
D) a normal lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio.
Q2) A pregnant woman states "This test isn't my idea,but my husband insists." Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) "Don't worry. Everything will be fine."
B) "Why don't you want to have this test?"
C) "You're concerned about having this test?"
D) "It's your decision."
Q3) The nurse providing care for the pregnant woman understands that a factor indicating the need for fetal diagnostic procedures is A) maternal diabetes.
B) maternal age older than 30 years.
C) previous infant more than 3000 g at birth.
D) weight gain of 25 pounds.
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17
Chapter 16: Giving Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) What results from the adaptation of the fetus to the size and shape of the pelvis?
A) Lightening
B) Lie
C) Molding
D) Presentation
Q2) The nurse is caring for a woman whose fetus has a breech presentation.What complication does the nurse prepare to assist with?
A) Umbilical cord compression
B) More rapid labor
C) A high risk of infection
D) Maternal perineal trauma
Q3) The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is the
A) amount of cervical dilation.
B) total duration of labor.
C) level of pain experienced.
D) sequence of labor mechanisms.
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Chapter 17: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the low-risk patient assessments for variability and periodic changes if using the fetal monitor should be done how often?
A) Every 15 to 30 minutes
B) Every 5 to 15 minutes
C) Every 30 to 60 minutes
D) Only before and after ambulation
Q2) A new nurse notes a fetal heart rate pattern of late deceleration with minimal variability in a laboring woman with vaginal bleeding.Which action by the new nurse warrants intervention by the charge nurse?
A) Assesses maternal blood pressure
B) Assesses for a prolapsed cord
C) Prepares to administer terbutaline
D) Discontinues oxytocin
Q3) Which nursing action is correct when initiating electronic fetal monitoring?
A) Lubricate the tocotransducer with an ultrasound gel.
B) Inform the patient that she should remain in the semi-Fowler's position.
C) Securely apply the tocotransducer with a strap or belt.
D) Determine the position of the fetus before attaching the electrode.
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Chapter 18: Pain Management for Childbirth
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cutaneous stimulation involves massage of the abdomen?
A) Thermal stimulation
B) Imagery
C) Mental stimulation
D) Effleurage
Q2) In order to help patients manage discomfort and pain during labor,nurses should be aware that
A) the predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.
B) somatic pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions.
C) the somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue.
D) pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.
Q3) One of the greatest risks to the mother during administration of general anesthesia is
A) respiratory depression.
B) uterine relaxation.
C) inadequate muscle relaxation.
D) aspiration of stomach contents.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nursing Care during Obstetric Procedures
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While assisting with a vacuum extraction birth,what should the nurse immediately report to the provider?
A) Persistent fetal bradycardia below 100 bpm
B) Maternal pulse rate of 100 bpm
C) Maternal blood pressure of 120/70 mm Hg
D) Decrease in intensity of uterine contractions
Q2) After a forceps-assisted birth,the mother is observed to have continuous bright red lochia but a firm fundus.What other finding is important to correlate with these data?
A) Mild, intermittent perineal pain
B) Edema and discoloration of the labia and perineum
C) Lack of an episiotomy
D) Lack of pain in the perineal area
Q3) The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin (Pitocin)infusion is
A) measuring urinary output.
B) increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes.
C) monitoring uterine response.
D) evaluating cervical dilation.
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Chapter 20: Postpartum Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best way for the nurse to promote and support the maternal-infant bonding process?
A) Help the mother identify her positive feelings toward the newborn.
B) Encourage the mother to provide all newborn care.
C) Assist the family with rooming-in.
D) Return the newborn to the nursery during sleep periods.
Q2) A nurse observes a mother on her first postpartum day sitting in bed while her newborn lies awake in the bassinet.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Realize that this situation is perfectly acceptable.
B) Offer to hand the baby to the woman.
C) Hand the baby to the woman.
D) Explain "taking in" to the woman.
Q3) If the patient's white blood cell (WBC)count is 25,000/mm³ on her second postpartum day,the nurse should
A) tell the physician immediately.
B) have the laboratory draw blood for reanalysis.
C) recognize that this is an acceptable range at this point.
D) begin antibiotic therapy immediately.
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22
Chapter 21: The Normal Newborn: Adaptation and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A maculopapular rash with a red base and a small white papule in the center is A) milia.
B) mongolian spots.
C) erythema toxicum.
D) café au lait spots.
Q2) After giving birth the nurse suggests that the woman place the infant to her breast within 15 minutes.The nurse knows that breastfeeding is effective during the first 30 minutes after birth because this is the
A) transition period.
B) first period of reactivity.
C) organizational stage.
D) second period of reactivity.
Q3) What is a result of hypothermia in the newborn?
A) Shivering to generate heat
B) Decreased oxygen demands
C) Increased glucose demands
D) Decreased metabolic rate
Q4) An infant was born weighing 7.2 pounds.Calculate this infant's oral intake needs._______
23
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Chapter 22: The Normal Newborn: Nursing Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student nurse asks why gloves are needed when handling a newborn because the newborn "hasn't been exposed to anything." What response by the nurse is best?
A) It is part of standard precautions.
B) It is hospital policy.
C) Amniotic fluid and maternal blood pose risks to us.
D) We are protecting the infant from our bacteria.
Q2) A yellow crust has formed over the circumcision site.The mother calls the hotline at the local hospital,5 days after her son was circumcised.She is very concerned.On which rationale should the nurse base her reply?
A) After circumcision, the diaper should be changed frequently and fastened snugly.
B) This yellow crust is an early sign of infection.
C) The yellow crust should not be removed.
D) Discontinue the use of petroleum jelly to the tip of the penis.
Q3) In providing and teaching cord care,what is an important principle?
A) Cord care is done only to control bleeding.
B) Alcohol is the only agent used for cord care.
C) It takes a minimum of 24 days for the cord to separate.
D) The process of keeping the cord dry will decrease bacterial growth.
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24
Chapter 23: Newborn Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the first step in assisting the breastfeeding mother?
A) Provide instruction on the composition of breast milk.
B) Discuss the hormonal changes that trigger the milk ejection reflex.
C) Assess the woman's knowledge of and feelings toward breastfeeding.
D) Help her obtain a comfortable position and place the infant to the breast.
Q2) A newborn weighs 8.7 pounds.How many kilocalories does this breastfed term infant require each day? _________
Q3) The nurse notes a new mother is waiting until her newborn begins crying prior to breastfeeding her.What response by the nurse is best?
A) Praise the mother for her efforts to nurse.
B) Teach the mother signs of hunger in the newborn.
C) Inform the mother she is inhibiting bonding.
D) Demonstrate calming methods prior to feeding.
Q4) The mother who is pumping for an occasional bottle would be most suited for which type of breast pump?
A) Manual or hand pump
B) Hospital-grade pump
C) Electric self-cycling double pumps
D) Smaller electric or battery-operated pump
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Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the nurse is alone with a battered patient,the patient seems extremely anxious and says,"It was all my fault.The house was so messy when he got home and I know he hates that." The best response by the nurse is
A) "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?"
B) "What else do you do that makes him angry enough to hurt you?"
C) "He will never find out what we talk about. Don't worry. We're here to help you."
D) "You have to remember that he is frustrated and angry so he takes it out on you."
Q2) Many teens wait until the second or even third trimester to seek prenatal care.The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Lack of realization that they are pregnant
B) Uncertainty as to where to go for care
C) Continuing to deny the pregnancy
D) A desire to gain control over their situation
E) Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible
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Chapter 25: Pregnancy-Related Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum should expect that initial treatment involves
A) corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
B) IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
C) an antiemetic, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting.
D) enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits.
Q2) A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.Nursing care is based on the knowledge that
A) bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment.
B) she will be unable to conceive in the future.
C) a D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception.
D) hemorrhage is the major concern.
Q3) The nursing student learns that spontaneous termination of a pregnancy is considered to be an abortion if
A) the pregnancy is less than 20 weeks.
B) the fetus weighs less than 1000 g.
C) the products of conception are passed intact.
D) no evidence exists of intrauterine infection.
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders during Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose metabolism is profoundly affected during pregnancy because
A) pancreatic function in the islets of Langerhans is affected by pregnancy.
B) the pregnant woman uses glucose at a more rapid rate than the nonpregnant woman.
C) the pregnant woman increases her dietary intake significantly.
D) placental hormones are antagonistic to insulin, resulting in insulin resistance.
Q2) Prophylaxis of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)is given before and after birth when a pregnant woman has
A) valvular disease.
B) congestive heart disease.
C) dysrhythmias.
D) postmyocardial infarction.
Q3) When teaching the pregnant woman with class II heart disease,what information should the nurse provide?
A) Advise her to gain at least 30 lb.
B) Explain the importance of a diet high in calcium.
C) Instruct her to avoid strenuous activity.
D) Inform her of the need to limit fluid intake.
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Chapter 27: The Woman with an Intrapartum Complication
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fetus in a breech presentation is often born by cesarean delivery because
A) the buttocks are much larger than the head.
B) postpartum hemorrhage is more likely if the woman delivers vaginally.
C) internal rotation cannot occur if the fetus is breech.
D) compression of the umbilical cord is more likely.
Q2) The provider orders an infusion of magnesium sulfate to run at 4 g/hour.The pharmacy delivers a bag of 4 g magnesium sulfate in 250 mL.At what rate does the nurse set the pump? ___________________
Q3) The nurse should suspect uterine rupture if
A) fetal tachycardia occurs.
B) the woman becomes dyspneic.
C) contractions abruptly stop during labor.
D) labor progresses unusually quickly.
Q4) Which actions by the nurse may prevent infections in the labor and delivery area?
A) Vaginal examinations every hour while the woman is in active labor
B) Use of clean techniques for all procedures
C) Cleaning secretions from the vaginal area by using back-to-front motion
D) Keeping underpads and linens as dry as possible
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Chapter 28: The Woman with a Postpartum Complication
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medications used to manage postpartum hemorrhage include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Oxytocin
B) Methergine
C) Terbutaline
D) Hemabate
E) Magnesium sulfate
Q2) Which nursing measure is appropriate to prevent thrombophlebitis in the recovery period after a cesarean birth?
A) Roll a bath blanket and place it firmly behind the knees.
B) Limit oral intake of fluids for the first 24 hours.
C) Assist the patient in performing gentle leg exercises.
D) Ambulate the patient as soon as her vital signs are stable.
Q3) Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as signs and symptoms of hypovolemia with which of the following descriptions of blood loss?
A) Cumulative blood loss >1000 mL in the first 24 hours after the birth process.
B) 750 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery
C) Cumulative blood loss >1000 mL in the first 48 hours after the birth process
D) 1500 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The High-Risk Newborn: Problems Related to
Gestational Age and Development
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While caring for the postterm infant,the nurse recognizes that the fetus may have passed meconium prior to birth as a result of
A) hypoxia in utero.
B) NEC.
C) placental insufficiency.
D) rapid use of glycogen stores.
Q2) Because of the premature infant's decreased immune functioning,what nursing diagnosis should the nurse include in a plan of care for a premature infant?
A) Delayed growth and development
B) Ineffective thermoregulation
C) Ineffective infant feeding pattern
D) Risk for infection
Q3) The nurse is observing a parent holding a preterm infant.The infant is sneezing,yawning,and extending the arms and legs.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Cover the infant with a warmed blanket.
B) Encourage the parent to do kangaroo care.
C) Encourage the parent to place the infant back in the warmer
D) Have the parent fold the infant's arms across the chest.
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Chapter 30: The High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some infants develop hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy after asphyxia.Therapeutic hypothermia has been used to improve neurologic outcomes for these infants.Criteria for the use of this modality include (Select all that apply.)
A) The infant must be 28 weeks gestation or greater.
B) Have evidence of an acute hypoxic event.
C) Be in a facility they can initiate treatment within 6 hours.
D) The infant must be 36 or more weeks' gestation.
E) The treatment must be initiated within the first 12 hours of life.
Q2) An infant with hypocalcemia is receiving an intravenous bolus of calcium.The infant's heart rate changes from 144 beats/minute to 62 beats/minute.What action by the nurse is best?
A) Call for a stat EGG.
B) Stop the infusion.
C) Stimulate the infant.
D) Administer magnesium.
Q3) The nurse is preparing a dose of naloxone for a newborn who weighs 6.9 pounds.How much naloxone does the nurse administer? ______ mg
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Management of Fertility and Infertility
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is teaching a couple about basal body temperature.What information is most accurate?
A) Measures the man's scrotal temperature related to sperm production.
B) Basal body temperature is the average resting temperature in the woman.
C) It detects slight temperature elevation just prior to ovulation in the woman
D) Ovulation is the only event that affects the change in body temperature.
Q2) The nurse is reviewing the educational packet provided to a patient about tubal ligation.What important facts should the nurse point out? (Select all that apply.)
A) "It is highly unlikely that you will become pregnant after the procedure."
B) "This is an effective form of 100% permanent sterilization."
C) "Sterilization offers protection against sexually transmitted diseases."
D) "Sterilization offers no protection against sexually transmitted diseases."
E) "Your menstrual cycle will greatly increase after your sterilization."
Q3) Injectable progestins (DMPA,Depo-Provera)are a good contraceptive choice for women who
A) want menstrual regularity and predictability.
B) have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
C) have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.
D) are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Womens HealthCare
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse providing education regarding breast care should explain to the woman that fibrocystic changes in breasts are
A) a disease of the milk ducts and glands in the breasts.
B) a pre-malignant disorder characterized by lumps found in the breast tissue.
C) lumpiness with pain and tenderness found in the breasts of healthy women.
D) lumpiness accompanied by tenderness after menses.
Q2) To assist the woman in regaining control of the urinary sphincter,the nurse should teach her to
A) practice Kegel exercises.
B) void every hour while awake.
C) allow the bladder to become full before voiding.
D) restrict fluids to limit incontinent episodes.
Q3) Which medications can be taken by postmenopausal women to treat and/or prevent osteoporosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Calcium
B) Evista
C) Fosamax
D) Actonel
E) Vitamin C
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Physical Assessment of Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) When palpating the child's cervical lymph nodes,the nurse notes that they are tender,enlarged,and warm.What is the best explanation for this?
A) Some form of cancer
B) Local scalp infection common in children
C) Infection or inflammation distal to the site
D) Infection or inflammation close to the site
Q2) The nurse has a 2-year-old boy sit in a "tailor" position during palpation for the testes.What is the rationale for this position?
A) It prevents cremasteric reflex.
B) Undescended testes can be palpated.
C) This tests the child for an inguinal hernia.
D) The child does not yet have a need for privacy.
Q3) Examination of the abdomen is performed correctly by the nurse in which order?
A) Inspection, palpation, and auscultation
B) Palpation, inspection, and auscultation
C) Palpation, auscultation, and inspection
D) Inspection, auscultation, and palpation
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Chapter 34: Emergency Care of the Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been brought to the emergency department with carbon monoxide poisoning.After the child is stabilized,what action by the nurse is best?
A) Have all family members tested for carbon monoxide poisoning.
B) Help family determine source of the carbon monoxide.
C) Prepare to administer syrup of ipecac.
D) Notify social services about the child's condition.
Q2) What is the goal of the initial intervention for a child in cardiopulmonary arrest?
A) Establishing a patent airway
B) Determining a pulse rate
C) Removing clothing
D) Reassuring the parents
Q3) Which observations made by an emergency department nurse raises the suspicion that a 3-year-old child has been maltreated?
A) The parents are extremely calm in the emergency department.
B) The injury is unusual for a child of that age.
C) The child does not remember how he got hurt.
D) The child was doing something unsafe when the injury occurred.
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Chapter 35: The Ill Child in the Hospital and Other Care Settings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Having explanations for all procedures and selecting their own meals from hospital menus is an important coping mechanism for which age-group?
A) Toddlers
B) Preschoolers
C) School-age children
D) Adolescents
Q2) A preschool-aged child tells the nurse "I was bad,that's why I got sick." What is the best rationale for this child's statement?
A) The child has a fear that mutilation will lead to death.
B) The child's imagination is very active, and he may believe the illness is a result of something he did.
C) The child has a general understanding of body integrity at this age.
D) The child will not have fear related to an IV catheter initiation but will have fear of an impending surgery.
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Chapter 36: The Child with a Chronic Condition or Terminal Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child born with disabilities ask the nurse for advice about discipline.The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that discipline is A) essential for the child.
B) too difficult to implement with special-needs child. C) not needed unless the child becomes problematic.
D) best achieved with punishment for misbehavior.
Q2) The nurse is providing support to a family who is experiencing anticipatory grief related to their child's imminent death.An appropriate nursing intervention is to A) be available to family.
B) attempt to "lighten the mood."
C) not allow visitors at this time.
D) discourage crying because the child can hear it.
Q3) The feeling of guilt that the child "caused" the disability or illness is especially critical in which child?
A) Toddler
B) Preschooler
C) School-age child
D) Adolescent
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Chapter 37: Principles and Procedures for Nursing Care of Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student nurse in the emergency department is preparing to obtain a throat culture on a child with suspected epiglottis secondary to a strep infection.What action by the registered nurse is best?
A) Remind the student to wear personal protective equipment.
B) Tell the student to get the child to say "ahhh."
C) Consult with the provider prior to obtaining the culture.
D) Inform the parents and child that a throat culture is needed.
Q2) A parent wants to know why acetaminophen should only be given for 2 days for a fever without checking with the provider.What response by the nurse is best?
A) Acetaminophen is a dangerous drug with bad side effects.
B) Long-term acetaminophen use can cause liver damage.
C) There may be better fever relievers you could use.
D) What if there were something seriously wrong with your child?
Q3) What is critical for the nurse to know when using restraints on a child?
A) Use the least restrictive type of restraint.
B) Tie knots securely so they cannot be untied easily.
C) Secure the ties to the mattress or side rails.
D) Remove restraints every 4 hours to assess skin integrity.
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Chapter 38: Medication Administration and Safety for
Infants and Children
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic difference affects the absorption of oral medications administered to a 3-month-old infant?
A) More rapid peristaltic activity
B) More acidic gastric secretions
C) Usually more rapid gastric emptying
D) Variable pancreatic enzyme activity
Q2) What is the 24-hour maintenance fluid requirement for a child weighing 18.7 pounds?
Q3) What is the appropriate nursing response to a parent who asks,"What should I do if my child cannot take a tablet?"
A) "You can crush the tablet and put it in some food."
B) "Find out if the medication is available in a liquid form."
C) "If the child can't swallow the tablet, tell the child to chew it."
D) "Let me show you how to get your child to swallow tablets."
Q4) Which food is appropriate to mix with medication?
A) Formula or milk
B) Applesauce
C) Baby food
D) Orange juice
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Pain Management for Children
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement indicates the nurse's lack of understanding about the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)therapy?
A) Children as young as 3 years old can effectively and successfully use a PCA pump.
B) Two registered nurses (RNs) are required to double-check the dosage and programmed administration of opioids.
C) The child should be carefully monitored for signs and symptoms of overmedication with opioids.
D) Naloxone (Narcan) should be readily available.
Q2) The appropriate tool(s)to assess pain in a 3-year-old child is the (Select all that apply.)
A) Visual Analogue Scale (VAS)
B) adolescent and pediatric pain tool
C) Oucher tool
D) poker chip tool
E) FACES pain rating scale
Q3) A student nurse is preparing to administer fentanyl 2-mcg/kg IV push to a child who weighs 26.4 pounds.The pharmacy delivers a vial with 50 mcg/10 mL.How much fentanyl does the student draw up?
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Chapter 40: The Child with a Fluid and Electrolyte Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a child with acid-base imbalance ask the nurse about mechanisms that regulate acid-base balance.Which statement by the nurse accurately explains the mechanisms regulating acid-base balance in children?
A) The respiratory, renal, and chemical-buffering systems
B) The kidneys balance acid; the lungs balance base.
C) The cardiovascular and integumentary systems
D) The skin, kidney, and endocrine systems
Q2) A child has a 2-day history of vomiting and diarrhea.He has hypoactive bowel sounds and an irregular pulse.Electrolyte values are sodium,139 mEq/L; potassium,3.3 mEq/L; and calcium,9.5 mg/dL.This child is likely to have which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
A) Hyponatremia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypokalemia
Q3) You are caring for a 44-lb child who is hospitalized with vomiting and severe dehydration.The physician has ordered parenteral rehydration therapy to restore circulation.The order is for sodium chloride (0.9%)solution in a 20-mL/kg bolus.How much will you give?
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Page 42
Chapter 41: The Child with an Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent brings a child to the emergency department and reports fever,foul smell coming from the throat,and a gray covering over the tonsils.What action by the nurse takes priority?
A) Place the child on a cardiac monitor.
B) Attach a pulse oximeter to the child.
C) Assess respiratory status immediately.
D) Start an IV and draw blood cultures.
Q2) The mother of an infant with multiple anomalies tells the nurse that she had a viral infection in the beginning of her pregnancy.Which viral infection is associated with fetal anomalies?
A) Measles
B) Roseola
C) Rubella
D) Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Q3) What should the nurse expect to observe in the prodromal phase of rubeola?
A) Macular rash on the face
B) Koplik spots
C) Petechiae on the soft palate
D) Crops of vesicles on the trunk
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Page 43
Chapter 42: The Child with an Immunologic Alteration
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nursing student learns how infants acquire immunity.Which statement about this process is correct?
A) The infant acquires humoral and cell-mediated immunity in response to infections and immunizations.
B) The infant acquires maternal antibodies that ensure immunity up to 12 months age.
C) Active immunity is acquired from the mother and lasts 6 to 7 months.
D) Passive immunity develops in response to immunizations.
Q2) A nurse in a well-child clinic is teaching parents about their child's immune system.Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A) The immune system distinguishes and actively protects the body's own cells from foreign substances.
B) The immune system is fully developed by 1 year of age.
C) The immune system protects the child against communicable diseases in the first 6 years of life.
D) The immune system responds to an offending agent by producing antigens.
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Chapter 43: The Child with a Gastrointestinal Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important action to prevent the spread of gastroenteritis in a daycare setting?
A) Administering prophylactic medications to children and staff
B) Frequent handwashing
C) Having parents bring food from home
D) Directing the staff to wear gloves at all times
Q2) The child with lactose intolerance is most at risk for which imbalance?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypocalcemia
Q3) What is an expected outcome for a 1-month-old infant with biliary atresia?
A) Correction of the defect with the Kasai procedure
B) Adequate nutrition and age-appropriate growth and development
C) Adherence to a salt-free diet with vitamin B<sub>12</sub> supplementation
D) Remaining compliant with a high-protein diet
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Chapter 44: The Child with a Genitourinary Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection?
A) Increased fluid intake
B) Short urethra in young girls
C) Prostatic secretions in males
D) Frequent emptying of the bladder
Q2) A child with secondary enuresis who complains of dysuria or urgency should be evaluated for what conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypocalciuria
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Glomerulonephritis
D) UTI
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) The mother of a child who was recently diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why the physician keeps talking about "casts" in the urine.The nurse explains that casts in the urine indicate
A) glomerular injury.
B) glomerular healing.
C) recent streptococcal infection.
D) excessive amounts of protein in the urine.
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Chapter 45: The Child with a Respiratory Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding about the genetic transmission of cystic fibrosis (CF)?
A) "Only one parent carries the cystic fibrosis gene."
B) "Both parents are carriers of the cystic fibrosis gene."
C) "The presence of the disease is most likely the result of a genetic mutation."
D) "The mother is usually the carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene."
Q2) What explanation should the nurse give to the parent of a child with asthma about using a peak flow meter?
A) It is used to monitor the child's breathing capacity.
B) It measures the child's lung volume.
C) It will help the medication reach the child's airways.
D) It measures the amount of air the child breathes in.
Q3) A child has a chronic,nonproductive cough and diffuse wheezing during the expiratory phase of respiration.What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Prepare to administer a bronchodilator.
B) Give ordered antibiotics on time.
C) Provide oxygen via face tent.
D) Assess the airway for a foreign body.
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Chapter 46: The Child with a Cardiovascular Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent being seen by the nurse practitioner for a sports physical is identified as having hypertension.On further testing,it is discovered the child has a cardiac abnormality.The initial treatment of secondary hypertension initially involves A) weight control and diet.
B) treating the underlying disease.
C) administration of digoxin.
D) administration of beta-adrenergic receptor blockers.
Q2) A common,serious complication of rheumatic fever is A) seizures.
B) cardiac dysrhythmias.
C) pulmonary hypertension.
D) cardiac valve damage.
Q3) Which postoperative intervention should be questioned for a child after a cardiac catheterization?
A) Continue intravenous (IV) fluids until the infant is tolerating oral fluids.
B) Check the dressing for bleeding.
C) Assess peripheral circulation on the affected extremity.
D) Keep the affected leg flexed and elevated.
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Chapter 47: The Child with a Hematologic Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother of a child with hemophilia asks the nurse how long her child will need to be treated for hemophilia.What is the best response to this question?
A) "Hemophilia is a lifelong blood disorder."
B) "There is a 25% chance that your child will have spontaneous remission."
C) "Treatment continues until after the toddler years."
D) "Since your first child did not have hemophilia, treatment for this child is temporary."
Q2) What is the best response to a parent who asks the nurse whether her 5-month-old infant can have cow's milk?
A) "You need to wait until she is 8 months old and eating solids well."
B) "Yes, if you think that she will eat enough meat to get the iron she needs."
C) "Infants younger than 12 months need iron-rich formula to get the iron they need."
D) "Try it and see how she tolerates it."
Q3) What is true about the genetic transmission of sickle cell disease?
A) Both parents must carry the sickle cell trait.
B) Both parents must have sickle cell disease.
C) One parent must have the sickle cell trait.
D) Sickle cell disease has no known pattern of inheritance.
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Chapter 48: The Child with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) When an adolescent with a new diagnosis of Ewing sarcoma asks the nurse about treatment,the nurse's response is based on the knowledge that (Select all that apply.)
A) this type of tumor invades the bone.
B) management includes chemotherapy, surgery, and radiation.
C) Ewing sarcoma is usually not responsive to either chemotherapy or radiation.
D) affected bones such as ribs and proximal fibula may be removed to excise the tumor.
E) is the most common bone tumor seen in children.
Q2) A nurse has taught parents about diagnostic testing for their child who is suspected of having leukemia.What test described by the parents shows good understanding of this information?
A) Complete blood cell count (CBC)
B) Lumbar puncture
C) Bone marrow biopsy
D) Computed tomography (CT) scan
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Chapter 49: The Child with an Alteration in Tissue Integrity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse working in a trauma center would facilitate referrals to a burn center for which of the following children? (Select all that apply.)
A) Electrical burn
B) Chemical burn
C) Burn from child abuse
D) Burn in the perineal area
E) 5% second-degree burn
Q2) The skin condition commonly known as "warts" is the result of an infection by which organism?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungus
C) Parasite
D) Virus
Q3) Which nursing assessment is applicable to the care of a child with herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A) Comparison of range of motion of the extremities
B) Urine output, mucous membranes, and skin turgor
C) Growth pattern since birth
D) Bowel elimination pattern
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Page 51
Chapter 50: The Child with a Musculoskeletal Alteration
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When infants are seen for fractures,which nursing intervention is a priority?
A) No intervention is necessary. It is not uncommon for infants to fracture bones.
B) Assess the family's safety practices. Fractures in infants usually result from falls.
C) Assess for child abuse. Fractures in infants are often nonaccidental.
D) Assess for genetic factors.
Q2) A 4-year-old child with a long leg cast complains of "fire" in his cast.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Notify the provider on his or her next rounds.
B) Note the complaint in the nurse's notes.
C) Notify the provider immediately.
D) Report the complaint to the next nurse on duty.
Q3) A child is upset because,when the cast is removed from her leg,the skin surface is caked with desquamated skin and sebaceous secretions.What should the nurse suggest to remove this material?
A) Wash the area with warm water and soap.
B) Vigorously scrub the leg.
C) Apply powder to absorb the material.
D) Carefully pick the material off the leg.
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52
Chapter 51: The Child with an Endocrine or Metabolic Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent.Which clinical manifestation may be present?
A) Moist skin
B) Weight gain
C) Fluid overload
D) Blurred vision
Q2) A neonate born with ambiguous genitalia is diagnosed with congenital adrenal hyperplasia.Therapeutic management includes administration of A) vitamin D.
B) cortisone acetate.
C) stool softeners.
D) calcium carbonate.
Q3) What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a child with diabetes insipidus who is receiving DDAVP?
A) Increase the dosage of DDAVP as the urine specific gravity (SG) increases.
B) Give DDAVP only if urine output decreases.
C) The child should have free access to water and toilet facilities at school.
D) Cleanse skin before administering the transdermal patch.
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Chapter 52: The Child with a Neurologic Alteration
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be the nurse's first action when a child with a head injury complains of double vision and a headache,and then vomits?
A) Immobilize the child's neck.
B) Report this information to the physician.
C) Darken the room and put a cool cloth on the child's forehead.
D) Restrict the child's oral fluid intake.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury.What is the most essential part of nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition?
A) Posturing
B) Vital signs
C) Focal neurologic signs
D) Level of consciousness
Q3) Latex allergy is suspected in a child with spina bifida.Appropriate nursing interventions include which of the following?
A) Avoiding using any latex product
B) Using only non-allergenic latex products
C) Administering medication for long-term desensitization
D) Teaching family about long-term management of allergic manifestations
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Psychosocial Problems in Children and Families
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent of a child with an anxiety disorder states,"I don't know how my child developed this problem." On what information should the nurse base a response?
A) Genetic factors, hormonal imbalances, and societal influences all contribute to the development of anxiety disorders in children.
B) Like many conditions affecting children, the etiology of anxiety disorders is unknown.
C) The majority of anxiety disorders has a clear pattern of genetic inheritance.
D) Dysfunctional family patterns are usually identified as the cause of an anxiety disorder.
Q2) The nurse is aware that suicide risk increases if the child displays which characteristics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Previous suicide attempt
B) No previous exposure to violence in the home
C) Recent loss
D) Effective social network
E) History of physical abuse
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Chapter
54: The Child With an Intellectual Disability or Developmental Disability
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is assessing a newborn for facial feature characteristics associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.Which characteristics should the nurse expect to assess? (Select all that apply.)
A) Short palpebral fissures
B) Smooth philtrum
C) Low-set ears
D) Inner epicanthal folds
E) Thin upper lip
Q2) Which is the best setting for daytime care for a 5-year-old autistic child whose mother works?
A) Private day care
B) Public school
C) His own home with a sitter
D) A specialized program that uses behavioral methods
Q3) A child with autism is hospitalized with asthma.The nurse should plan care so that the
A) parents' expectations are met.
B) child's routine habits and preferences are maintained.
C) child is supported through the autistic crisis.
D) parents need not be at the hospital.
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Chapter 55: The Child with a Sensory Alteration
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct position for the postoperative child who has had a cataract removed from the right eye is the ________ position.
A) supine
B) prone
C) knee-chest
D) right lateral Sims
Q2) A 10-year-old patient is talking to the nurse about wanting to try contact lenses instead of wearing glasses.The child states that the other children at school call her "four-eyes." Contact lenses should be prescribed for a child who is A) at least 12 years of age.
B) able to read all the written information and instructions.
C) able to independently care for the lenses in a responsible manner.
D) confident that she really wants contact lenses.
Q3) Adequate hearing depends on intact auditory structures and quality of sound.Failure to hear at 40 to 69 dB would be categorized as a __________ hearing loss.
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