Perinatal Nursing Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Perinatal Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of women and their families throughout the stages of pregnancy, childbirth, and the immediate postpartum period. This course explores the physiological, psychological, and social aspects of perinatal care, including prenatal assessment, labor and delivery management, newborn care, and support for families experiencing complex or high-risk pregnancies. Students will learn evidence-based practices, critical thinking, and collaborative decision-making skills essential for promoting maternal and neonatal health, while considering cultural diversity, ethical considerations, and patient advocacy in perinatal nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations of Maternal Newborn and Womens Health Nursing 6th Edition by Murray
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37 Chapters
1131 Verified Questions
1131 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/167 Page 2
Chapter 1: Maternity and Women's Health Care Today
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2112
Sample Questions
Q1) Many communities now offer the availability of free-standing birth centers to provide care for low-risk women during pregnancy, birth, and postpartum. When counseling the newly pregnant client regarding this option, the nurse should be aware that this type of care setting includes which advantages? (Select all that apply.)
A) Staffing by lay midwives
B) Equipped for obstetric emergencies
C) Less expensive than acute care hospitals
D) Safe, homelike births in a familiar setting
E) Access to follow-up care for 6 weeks postpartum
Answer: C, D, E
Q2) The use of "twilight sleep" during the labor and birth process:
A) provided inadequate pain relief during the labor and birth process.
B) facilitated bonding between mother and infant.
C) resulted in a decreased incidence of puerperal infections.
D) affected the maternal level of consciousness.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: The Nurse's Role in Maternity and Women's Health Care
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse set as a priority for a laboring client?
A) Risk for anxiety related to upcoming birth
B) Risk for imbalanced nutrition related to NPO status
C) Risk for altered family processes related to new addition to the family
D) Risk for injury (maternal) related to altered sensations and positional or physical changes
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse is formulating a nursing care plan for a postpartum client. Which actions by the nurse indicate use of critical thinking skills when formulating the care plan? (Select all that apply).
A) Using a standardized postpartum care plan
B) Determining priorities for each diagnosis written
C) Writing interventions from a nursing diagnosis book
D) Reflecting and suspending judgment when writing the care plan
E) Clustering data during the assessment process according to normal versus abnormal
Answer: B, D, E
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4
Chapter 3: Ethical, Social, and Legal Issues
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) At the present time, surrogate parenting is governed by which of the following?
A) State law
B) Federal law
C) Individual court decision
D) Protective child services
Answer: C
Q2) A couple asks the nurse about the procedure for surrogate parenting. Which correct responses should the nurse give to the couple? (Select all that apply.)
A) Donated embryos can be implanted into the surrogate mother.
B) The surrogate mother needs to have carried one previous birth to term.
C) You both need to be infertile to be eligible for surrogate parenting.
D) Conception can take place outside the surrogate mother's body and then implanted.
E) The surrogate mother can be inseminated artificially with sperm from the intended father.
Answer: A, D, E
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Chapter 4: Reproductive Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Follicular phase of the female reproductive cycle
A)Ovulation marks the beginning of this stage and occurs about 14 days before the next menstrual period.
B)The period in which an ovum matures begins with the first day of menstruation and ends about 14 days later.
C)This occurs as the ovum matures and is released during the first half of the ovarian cycle.
Q2) A female client who has gone through puberty and started menstruating without any problems now has cessation of periods after 2 years of normal cycles. Which of the following would indicate a possible cause for this occurrence?
A) Lag in development of secondary sexual characteristics
B) Overproduction of androgenic hormones
C) Negative pregnancy test
D) Clinical diagnosis of primary amenorrhea
Q3) Which 16-year-old girl may experience secondary amenorrhea?
A) Jackie, 5 ft 2 in, 130 lb
B) Karen, 5 ft 9 in, 150 lb
C) Carol, 5 ft 7 in, 96 lb
D) Linda, 5 ft 4 in, 120 lb
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Hereditary and Environmental Influences on Childbearing
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse receives a report on an infant whose analysis indicates 47 total chromosomes, with the abnormality noted at chromosome 21. What additional assessments will the nurse include when evaluating the infant?
A) Cleft palate
B) Protruding tongue
C) Extra fingers or toes (polydactyly)
D) Intellectual developmental delay
Q2) Which question posed by the nurse will most likely promote the sharing of sensitive information during a genetic counseling interview?
A) "What kind of defects or diseases seem to run in the family?"
B) "How many people in your family are mentally retarded or handicapped?"
C) "Did you know that you can always have an abortion if the fetus is abnormal?"
D) "Are there any members of your family who have learning or developmental problems?"
Q3) X-linked recessive
A)Two genes are required to produce the trait.
B)A single copy of the gene is enough to produce the trait.
C)Only one copy of the gene is needed to cause the disorder in the male.
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Chapter 6: Conception and Prenatal Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An expectant father asks the nurse, "Which part of the mature sperm contains the male chromosomes?" What is the best response by the nurse?
A) X-bearing sperm
B) The tail of the sperm
C) The head of the sperm
D) The middle portion of the sperm
Q2) The nurse is explaining the function of the placenta to a pregnant client. Which statement indicates to the nurse the need for further client teaching?
A) "My baby gets oxygen from the placenta."
B) "The placenta functions to help excrete waste products."
C) "The nourishment that I take in passes through the placenta."
D) "The placenta helps maintain a stable temperature for my baby."
Q3) Which is the purpose of the ovum's zona pellucida?
A) Prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing the ovum
B) Stimulates the ovum to begin mitotic cell division
C) Allows the 46 chromosomes from each gamete to merge
D) Makes a pathway for more than one sperm to reach the ovum
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Physiologic Adaptations to Pregnancy
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which suggestion is appropriate for the pregnant client who is experiencing heartburn?
A) Drink plenty of fluids at bedtime.
B) Eat only three meals a day so the stomach is empty between meals.
C) Drink coffee or orange juice immediately on arising in the morning.
D) Use Tums or Alkamints to obtain relief, as directed by the health care provider.
Q2) Which advice to the client is one of the most effective methods for preventing venous stasis?
A) Sit with the legs crossed.
B) Rest often with the feet elevated.
C) Sleep with the foot of the bed elevated.
D) Wear elastic stockings in the afternoon.
Q3) Determine the obstetric history of a client in her fifth pregnancy who had two spontaneous abortions in the first trimester, one infant at 32 weeks' gestation, and one infant at 38 weeks' gestation.
A) G5 T1 P2 A2 L 2
B) G5 T1 P1 A1 L2
C) G5 T0 P2 A2 L2
D) G5 T1 P1 A2 L2
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Psychosocial Adaptations to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient arrives to the clinic 2 hours late for her prenatal appointment. This is the third time she has been late. What is the nurse's best action in response to this patient's tardiness?
A) Ask the patient if she has a way to tell the time.
B) Ask the patient if she is deliberately being late for her appointments.
C) Determine if the patient wants this baby and if this is her way of acting out.
D) Determine if the patient arrives after the start time for other types of appointments.
Q2) Margaret, a 36-year-old divorcee with a successful modeling career, finds out that her 18-year-old married daughter is expecting her first child. Which is a major factor in determining how Margaret will respond to becoming a grandmother?
A) Her age
B) Her career
C) Being divorced
D) Age of the daughter
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Chapter 9: Nutrition for Childbearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in the diet of the pregnant client who has phenylketonuria would include:
A) adding foods high in vitamin C.
B) eliminating drinks containing aspartame.
C) restricting protein intake to <20 g a day.
D) increasing caloric intake to at least 1800 cal/day.
Q2) In teaching a pregnant adolescent about nutrition, what should the nurse plan to do?
A) Determine the weight gain needed to meet adolescent growth and add 35 lb.
B) Suggest that she not eat at fast food restaurants to avoid foods of poor nutritional value.
C) Realize that most adolescents are unwilling to make dietary changes during pregnancy.
D) Emphasize the need to eliminate common teen snack foods because they are too high in fat and sodium.
Q3) Magnesium
A)Important in cell growth and neuromuscular function
B)Important in thyroid function
C)Important in DNA and RNA synthesis
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Chapter 10: Antepartum Fetal Assessment
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of initiating contractions in a contraction stress test (CST)?
A) Increase placental blood flow.
B) Identify fetal acceleration patterns.
C) Determine the degree of fetal activity.
D) Apply a stressful stimulus to the fetus.
Q2) A pregnant woman is scheduled to undergo chorionic villus sampling (CVS) based on genetic family history. Which medication does the nurse anticipate will be administered?
A) Magnesium sulfate
B) Prostaglandin suppository
C) RhoGAM if the client is Rh-negative
D) Betamethasone
Q3) Which nursing intervention is necessary prior to a second-trimester transabdominal ultrasound?
A) Perform an abdominal prep.
B) Administer a soap suds enema.
C) Ensure the client is NPO for 12 hours.
D) Instruct the client to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water.
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Chapter 11: Perinatal Education
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is most likely to experience pain during labor?
A) Gravida 1 whose fetus is in a breech presentation
B) Gravida 3 who is using Lamaze breathing techniques
C) Gravida 2 who is anxious because her last labor was difficult
D) Gravida 2 who has not attended childbirth preparation classes
Q2) Martha is a gravida 3, para 2, whose last child was born 5 years ago. She attended childbirth preparation classes with her first pregnancy. Which class would be most appropriate for her?
A) Refresher course
B) Infant care classes
C) Postpartum classes
D) Early pregnancy classes
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the option of childbirth classes with a patient in her second trimester. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the patient has understood the teaching?
A) "My labor will likely be shorter if I go to classes."
B) "I will likely perceive less pain during labor if I go to classes."
C) "I will likely be more satisfied with my labor if I go to classes."
D) "I will likely use fewer medications during labor if I go to classes."
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Processes of Birth
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On admission to the labor and birth unit, a 38-year-old female, gravida 4, para 3, at term in early labor is found to have a transverse lie on vaginal examination. What is the priority intervention at this time?
A) Perform a vaginal exam to denote progress.
B) Notify the health care provider.
C) Initiate parenteral therapy.
D) Apply oxygen via nasal cannula at 8 L/min.
Q2) A laboring patient states to the nurse, "I have to push!" What is the next nursing action?
A) Contact the health care provider.
B) Examine the patient's cervix for dilation.
C) Review with her how to bear down with contractions.
D) Ask her partner to support her head with each push.
Q3) Position
A)The fetal part that enters the pelvic inlet first
B)The orientation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the woman
C)Relation of a fixed reference point on the fetus to the quadrants of the maternal pelvis
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client at 40 weeks' gestation should be instructed to go to a hospital or birth center for evaluation when she experiences:
A) fetal movement.
B) irregular contractions for 1 hour.
C) a trickle of fluid from the vagina.
D) thick pink or dark red vaginal mucus.
Q2) If a woman's fundus is soft 30 minutes after birth, the nurse's first response should be to:
A) massage the fundus.
B) take the blood pressure.
C) notify the physician or nurse-midwife.
D) place the woman in Trendelenburg position.
Q3) Which interventions are required following an amniotomy procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Notation related to amount of fluid expelled
B) Color and consistency of fluid
C) Fetal heart rate
D) Maternal blood pressure
E) Maternal heart rate
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intrapartum Fetal Surveillance
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is concerned that a client's uterine activity is too intense and that her obesity is preventing accurate assessment of the actual intrauterine pressure. Based on this information, which action should the nurse take?
A) Reposition the tocotransducer.
B) Reposition the Doppler transducer.
C) Obtain an order from the health care provider for a spiral electrode.
D) Obtain an order from the health care provider for an intrauterine pressure catheter.
Q2) Which maternal condition should be considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices?
A) Unruptured membranes
B) Cervix dilated to 4 cm
C) Fetus has known heart defect
D) External monitors currently being used
Q3) Variable decelerations
A)Caused by umbilical cord compression
B)Caused by fetal head compression
C)Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency
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Chapter 15: Pain Management During Childbirth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with a known heroin habit is admitted in early labor. Which drug is contraindicated with opiate-dependent patients?
A) Nalbuphine (Nubain)
B) Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
C) Promethazine (Phenergan)
D) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Q2) A patient in active labor requests an epidural for pain management. What is the nurse's priority action for this patient?
A) Assess the fetal heart rate pattern over the next 30 minutes.
B) Take the patient's blood pressure every 5 minutes for 15 minutes.
C) Determine the patient's contraction pattern for the next 30 minutes.
D) Initiate an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's solution at 2000 mL/hr over 30 minutes.
Q3) The nurse is administering fentanyl (Sublimaze) to a client in labor. The health care provider's prescription reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 100 mcg IV stat. The medication vial reads fentanyl (Sublimaze), 50 mcg/mL. The nurse should prepare how many milliliters to administer the correct dose? Record your answer as a whole number. _____ mL
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care During Obstetric Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) To monitor for potential hemorrhage in the client who has just had a cesarean birth, which action should the recovery room nurse implement?
A) Monitor her urinary output.
B) Maintain an intravenous infusion at 1 mL/hr.
C) Assess the abdominal dressings for drainage.
D) Assess the uterus for firmness every 15 minutes.
Q2) Which client is most at risk for a uterine rupture?
A) A gravida 4 who had a classic cesarean incision
B) A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and one cesarean birth
C) A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births
D) A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for birth of a 10-lb infant
Q3) The nurse is planning care for a client who just received 25 mcg of misoprostol (Cytotec) vaginally to ripen the cervix. Which interventions should the nurse plan to implement? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assist the client to the bathroom.
B) Position the client in a high Fowler position.
C) Assess the uterus for excessive contractions.
D) Monitor the fetal heart rate for at least 30 minutes.
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18
Chapter 17: Postpartum Physiologic Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding 24 hours after vaginal birth would indicate a need for further intervention?
A) Pain level 5 on scale of 0 to 10
B) Saturated pad over a 2-hour period
C) Urinary output of 500 mL in one voiding
D) Uterine fundus 2 cm above the umbilicus
Q2) The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who delivered by the vaginal route 12 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the health care provider?
A) Pulse rate of 50
B) Temperature of 38° C (100.4° F)
C) Firm fundus, but excessive lochia
D) Lightheaded when moving from a lying to standing position
Q3) When assessing the A of the acronym REEDA, the nurse should assess the:
A) skin color.
B) degree of edema.
C) edges of the episiotomy.
D) episiotomy for discharge.
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Chapter 18: Postpartum Psychosocial Adaptations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A husband calls the nurse's station stating that his wife, who delivered last week, is happy one minute and crying the next. He says, "She was never like this before the baby was born." Which should be the nurse's initial response?
A) Reassure him that this behavior is normal.
B) Advise him to get immediate psychological help for her.
C) Tell him to ignore the mood swings because they will go away.
D) Instruct him in the signs, symptoms, and duration of postpartum blues.
Q2) A postpartum patient calls the clinic and reports to the nurse feelings of fatigue, tearfulness, and anxiety. What is the nurse's best response?
A) "When did these symptoms begin?"
B) "Sounds like normal postpartum depression."
C) "Are you having trouble getting enough sleep?"
D) "Are you able to get out of bed and provide care for your baby?"
Q3) Which action should the nurse do to provide support and encouragement to the new postpartum client?
A) Recount how she solved her own problems.
B) Correct the new mother at every opportunity.
C) Praise the mother's early attempts at infant care.
D) Explain to the new mother that everything will be fine.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Normal Newborn: Processes of Adaptation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which infant is at greater risk to develop cold stress?
A) Full-term infant delivered vaginally without complications
B) 36-week infant with an Apgar score of 7 to 9
C) 38-week female infant delivered via cesarean section because of cephalopelvic disproportion
D) Term infant delivered vaginally with epidural anesthesia
Q2) The process in which bilirubin is changed from a fat-soluble product to a water-soluble product is known as:
A) albumin binding.
B) enterohepatic circuit.
C) conjugation of bilirubin.
D) deconjugation of bilirubin.
Q3) A reported hematocrit level for a newborn vaginal birth is 75%. Based on this lab value, which complication is the newborn least at risk to develop?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Respiratory distress
C) Infection
D) Jaundice
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Chapter 20: Assessment of the Normal Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a newborn delivered 24 hours ago for jaundice. What is the best way to evaluate for this finding?
A) Depress the tip of the nose.
B) Stroke the outer aspect of the foot.
C) Place a finger in the palm of the hand.
D) Rotate the hips in an upward and outward direction.
Q2) The clients says, "My baby is so thin and wrinkled. It looks like he has too much skin." Which is the most therapeutic response by the nurse to the new client's statement?
A) "You sound disappointed about how your infant looks."
B) "All mothers are concerned about how their babies look."
C) "Don't worry. In no time he'll fill out his skin and look just fine."
D) "You know, all the cigarettes you smoked interfered with the nourishment he needed."
Q3) Infants who develop cephalohematoma are at increased risk for:
A) infection.
B) jaundice.
C) caput succedaneum.
D) erythema toxicum.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Care of the Normal Newborn
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Q1) When an infant's temperature drops from 98.7° to 97.4° F (37° to 36.3° C), the nurse should:
A) instruct parents on cold stress.
B) determine time and amount of last feeding.
C) increase the temperature in the mother's room.
D) evaluate infant for the presence of a blood sugar level higher than 50 mg/dL.
Q2) A yellow crust has formed over the circumcision site. The mother calls the hotline at the local hospital 5 days after her son was circumcised. She is very concerned. On which rationale should the nurse base a reply?
A) The yellow crust should not be removed.
B) This yellow crust is an early sign of infection.
C) Discontinue the use of petroleum jelly to the tip of the penis.
D) After circumcision, the diaper should be changed frequently and fastened snugly.
Q3) Which newborn assessment finding requires the nurse to take an action?
A) Glucose level of 40 mg/dL
B) Axillary temperature of 37° C (98.6° F)
C) Mild yellow tinge to skin at 32 hours of age
D) Mild inflammation of conjunctiva after eye prophylaxis
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Chapter 22: Infant Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which condition is breastfeeding contraindicated?
A) Triplet birth
B) Flat or inverted nipples
C) Human immunodeficiency virus infection
D) Inactive, previously treated tuberculosis
Q2) To prevent breast engorgement, what should the new breastfeeding mother be instructed to do?
A) Feed her infant no more than every 4 hours.
B) Limit her intake of fluids for the first few days.
C) Apply cold packs to the breast prior to feeding.
D) Breast-feed frequently and for adequate lengths of time.
Q3) Which recommendation should the nurse make to a client to initiate the milk ejection reflex?
A) Wear a well-fitting firm bra.
B) Drink plenty of fluids.
C) Place the infant to the breast.
D) Apply cool packs to the breast.
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24
Chapter 23: Home Care of the Infant
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Q1) Which statement made by a new mother should be a cause of concern to the nurse?
A) "I will start my baby on solid foods at 5 months."
B) "I usually keep the temperature in my house at 72° F."
C) "I plan to position my infant on his back when sleeping."
D) "I don't intend to spoil my baby by picking him up every time he cries."
Q2) As the nurse assists a newly discharged client and her infant to the waiting car, the nurse notes that the infant seat is in the front seat of the car facing the front and secured by the seat belt. The nurse should explain to the parents that the car seat should be placed:
A) in an upright position.
B) at a 30-degree angle.
C) not secured by the seat belt.
D) in the back seat facing the rear of the car.
Q3) Which should be included in the home care of a high-risk infant?
A) Feeding the infant on a strict schedule
B) Keeping the infant in the supine or prone position
C) Providing continued respiratory support and oxygen
D) Cleaning the umbilical cord several times daily with alcohol
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25
Chapter 24: The Childbearing Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In planning sex education classes for the 12- to 15-year-old age group, more emphasis should be placed on which?
A) How to set limits for sexual behavior
B) The inaccuracy of information from peers
C) The use of oral contraceptives to prevent unwanted pregnancy
D) The use of condoms to prevent sexually transmitted diseases as well as pregnancy
Q2) Which characteristics of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) should the nurse expect to assess in affected neonates? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hydrocephaly
B) Low activity
C) Epicanthal folds
D) Short palpebral fissures
E) Flat midface, with a low nasal bridge
Q3) Which antidepressant is no longer recommended for use during pregnancy?
A) Sertraline (Zoloft)
B) Paroxetine (Paxil)
C) Fluoxetine (Prozac)
D) Citalopram (Celexa)
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Chapter 25: Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency room charge nurse calls the labor and birth charge nurse and reports the ambulance is en route with a seizing pregnant patient at 36 weeks' gestation. What medication will the charge nurse most likely direct the staff nurse to prepare to administer immediately on the patient's arrival to the labor and birth unit?
A) Magnesium sulfate (magnesium)
B) Hydralazine (Apresoline)
C) Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
D) Terbutaline (Brethine)
Q2) You are taking care of a client who had a therapeutic abortion following an episode of vaginal bleeding and ultrasound confirmation of a blighted ovum. Lab work is ordered 2 weeks postprocedure as a follow-up to medical care. Which result indicates that additional intervention is needed?
A) Hemoglobin, 13.2 mg/dL
B) White blood cell count, 10,000 mmS1U1P13S1S1P0
C) Beta-hCG detected in serum
D) Fasting blood glucose level, 80 mg/dL
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Chapter 26: Concurrent Disorders During Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client who has type 2 diabetes is pregnant with her second child. She was not diagnosed with diabetes until after her first pregnancy. Past obstetric history is unremarkable-spontaneous vaginal birth of a male weighing 7 pounds, 15 ounces. The client is now concerned over what will happen during this subsequent pregnancy as a result of her disease process. What impact could the disease process have on her upcoming birth?
A) Client will not be able to receive an epidural for pain management.
B) Client will not be able to have a vaginal birth.
C) A planned birth will be instituted by her health care provider.
D) It is likely that she will deliver a fetus who is small for gestational age (SGA).
Q2) Which postpartum client requires further assessment?
A) G4 P4 who has had four saturated pads during the last 12 hours
B) G1 P1 with Class II heart disease who complains of frequent coughing
C) G2 P2 with gestational diabetes whose fasting blood sugar level is 100 mg/dL
D) G3 P2 postcesarean client who has active herpes lesions on the labia
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Chapter 27: Intrapartum Complications
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2138
Sample Questions
Q1) A laboring client in the latent phase is experiencing uncoordinated irregular contractions of low intensity. How should the nurse respond to complaints of constant cramping pain?
A) "You are only 2 cm dilated, so you should rest and save your energy for when the contractions get stronger."
B) "Let me take off the monitor belts and help you get into a more comfortable position."
C) "You must breathe more slowly and deeply so there is greater oxygen supply for your uterus. That will decrease the pain."
D) "I have notified the doctor that you are having a lot of discomfort. Let me rub your back and see if that helps."
Q2) Which client situation presents the greatest risk for the occurrence of hypotonic dysfunction during labor?
A) A primigravida who is 17 years old
B) A 22-year-old multiparous client with ruptured membranes
C) A primigravida who has requested no analgesia during her labor
D) A multiparous client at 39 weeks of gestation who is expecting twins
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29
Chapter 28: Postpartum Maternal Complications
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2139
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a postpartum client indicates that further teaching is not needed regarding thrombus formation?
A) "I'll keep my legs elevated with pillows."
B) "I'll sit in my rocking chair most of the time."
C) "I'll stay in bed for the first 3 days after my baby is born."
D) "I'll put my support stockings on every morning before rising."
Q2) Which observation of your client as she ambulates could indicate development of a DVT (deep vein thrombosis)?
A) Slow gait
B) Shuffling gait
C) Stiffness of right leg
D) Leans on husband for support
Q3) The nurse notes that the fundus of a postpartum patient is boggy, shifted to the left of the midline, and 2 cm above the umbilicus. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Massage the fundus of the uterus.
B) Assist the patient out of bed to void.
C) Increase the infusion of oxytocin (Pitocin).
D) Ask another nurse to bring in a straight catheter tray.
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Chapter 29: High-Risk Newborn: Complications Associated with Gestational Age and Development
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2140
Sample Questions
Q1) A preterm infant is on a respirator, with intravenous lines and much equipment. When the parents come to visit for the first time, which is an important response by the nurse?
A) Encourage the parents to touch their infant.
B) Reassure the parents that the infant is progressing well.
C) Discuss the care they will give their infant when the infant goes home.
D) Suggest that the parents visit for only a short time to reduce their anxiety.
Q2) In caring for the post-term infant, thermoregulation can be a concern, especially in an infant who also has a(n):
A) Hematocrit level of 58%.
B) RBC count of 5 million/mL.
C) WBC count of 15,000 cells/mmS1U1P13S1S1P0.
D) Blood glucose level of 25 mg/dL.
Q3) Which data should alert the nurse caring for an SGA infant that additional calories may be needed?
A) The latest hematocrit was 53%.
B) The infant's weight gain is 40 g/day.
C) The infant is taking 120 mL/kg every 24 hours.
D) Three successive temperature measurements were 97°, 96°, and 97° F.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: High-Risk Newborn: Acquired and Congenital Conditions
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2141
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is responsible for monitoring the feedings of the infant with hyperbilirubinemia every 2 to 3 hours around the clock. The purpose of these formula feedings or breastfeedings is to:
A) prevent hyperglycemia.
B) provide fluids and protein.
C) decrease gastrointestinal motility.
D) prevent rapid emptying of the bilirubin from the bowel.
Q2) The nurse must continually assess the infant who has meconium aspiration syndrome for the complication of:
A) persistent pulmonary hypertension.
B) bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C) transitory tachypnea of the newborn.
D) left-to-right shunting of blood through the foramen ovale.
Q3) The infant of a diabetic mother is hypoglycemic. Which type of feeding should be instituted first?
A) Glucose water
B) D5W intravenously
C) Formula via nasogastric tube
D) Small amount of glucose water followed by formula or breast milk
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Family Planning
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2142
Sample Questions
Q1) Which client is a safe candidate for the use of oral contraceptives?
A) 39-year-old with a history of thrombophlebitis
B) 16-year-old with a benign liver tumor
C) 20-year-old who suspects she may be pregnant
D) 43-year-old who does not smoke cigarettes
Q2) A woman who has a successful career and a busy lifestyle will most likely look for which type of contraceptive?
A) Requires extensive education to use
B) Is the easiest and most convenient to use
C) Costs the least
D) Is permanent
Q3) Which of the following is a potential disadvantage for a client who wishes to use an intrauterine device (IUD) as a method of birth control?
A) Insertion of the device prior to coitus resulting in decreased spontaneity
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Protection against STDs
D) Decrease in dysmenorrhea
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33
Chapter 32: Infertility
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12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2143
Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors would contribute to abnormalities of the fallopian tube associated with the development of infertility? (Select all that apply.)
A) History of conization of the cervix
B) History of pelvic surgical procedures
C) Incompetent cervix
D) Past treatments of STD with follow-up test of cure
E) Endometriosis
Q2) Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
A) Never conceived
B) Had repeated spontaneous abortions
C) Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
D) Has one child but cannot conceive a second time
Q3) A woman who is undergoing infertility testing states, "My husband won't discuss this with me. I don't think he cares about or wants a baby." The nurse's best response is:
A) "You should confront him about this."
B) "He probably doesn't understand your concern."
C) "Men are sometimes less eager to have children."
D) "It may be harder for him to express his feelings."
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Chapter 33: Preventive Care for Women
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2144
Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old client asks how often she should have a mammogram. The most appropriate answer is:
A) whenever she feels a lump.
B) every year beginning at age 40.
C) they are unnecessary until age 50.
D) every year if you have risk factors.
Q2) While interviewing a 48-year-old client during her annual physical examination, the nurse learns that she has never had a mammogram. The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammography screening starting at age 40. Before the nurse encourages this client to begin annual screening, it is important for her to understand the reasons why women avoid testing. These reasons include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fear of x-ray exposure
B) Expense of the procedure
C) Reluctance to hear bad news
D) Having heard that the test is painful
E) Belief that lack of family history makes this test unnecessary
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Chapter 34: Women's Health Problems
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2145
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by a client diagnosed with premenstrual syndrome indicates that further health teaching is needed?
A) "I will not eat chips or pickles."
B) "I'll eat only three meals per day."
C) "Drinking alcohol makes me more depressed."
D) "Coffee and chocolate can make me more irritable and nervous."
Q2) In reviewing genetic testing for a female client, you note the presence of BRCA1, BRCA2, and CHEK2. How should these findings be interpreted?
A) There is no increased likelihood that the client will develop breast or ovarian cancer.
B) There is an increased likelihood only for the development of breast cancer in a woman.
C) More information is needed to interpret these findings based on the client's family history and the client's current and past medical history.
D) A radical bilateral mastectomy is required immediately because the cancer may have already undergone sub-metastasis.
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