Pediatric Pulmonology Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Pulmonology is a specialized course focusing on the respiratory health and diseases of infants, children, and adolescents. The course covers the anatomy, physiology, and development of the pediatric respiratory system, as well as the diagnosis, management, and prevention of common and complex pulmonary disorders in children, such as asthma, cystic fibrosis, pneumonia, and congenital lung anomalies. Emphasis is placed on clinical assessment techniques, interpretation of diagnostic tests, and the application of evidence-based therapeutic strategies, alongside considerations of growth, development, and the unique needs of pediatric patients.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding postnatal lung growth,by approximately what age do most of the alveoli that will be present in the lungs for life develop?
A)6 months
B)1 year
C)1.5 years
D)2 years
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following tests of the amniotic fluid have been shown to be sensitive indicators of lung maturity?
A)Levels of prednisone
B)Levels of epidermal growth factor
C)Levels of prostaglandins
D)Levels of phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylcholine
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following embryonic germ layers gives formation to the respiratory system?
A)Endoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)Periderm
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following organs is considered to be the first to form?
A)Heart
B)Brain
C)Lungs
D)Kidneys
Answer: A
Q3) What is the function of Wharton's jelly inside the umbilical cord?
A)To help provide nutrition to the fetus
B)To prevent the vessels inside the cord from kinking
C)To help protect the fetus
D)To regulate the temperature between the fetus and the mother
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is responsible for up to 40% of the preterm births in the United States?
A)Cervical insufficiency
B)Premature rupture of the fetal membranes
C)Obstetrical intervention mandated by fetal jeopardy
D)Hormonal treatment during pregnancy
Answer: B
Q2) A therapist is resuscitating a term newborn.The heart rate falls to 55 beats per minute.What is the best course of action?
A)Intubate and provide positive airway pressure
B)Administer IV or ET epinephrine
C)Apply bag-mask ventilation
D)Continue compressions until heart rate is greater than 60 Answer: B
Q3) What is the most common invasive procedure to assess the fetal condition?
A)Amniocentesis
B)Scalp fetal pH
C)Stress test
D)Needle ultrasound
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist notices that a preterm newborn has a grunting cry.Which of the following conditions is most consistent with this description?
A)Hypothyroidism
B)Neurologic injury
C)Respiratory distress syndrome
D)Laryngeal edema
Q2) As the head of a neonate contaminated with meconium emerges at birth,the heart rate monitor indicates 120 beats/minute,and the physician notices that the infant has good muscle tone and a strong respiratory effort.What should the physician do at this time to provide airway care?
A)Intubate the infant immediately.
B)Perform pharyngeal and tracheal suctioning immediately.
C)Perform tracheal suctioning only at this time.
D)Only routine monitoring of respiratory vital signs is needed at this time.
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is airway resistance calculated?
A)By dividing the airway occlusion pressure by the expiratory flow
B)By dividing the transpulmonary pressure by the expiratory flow
C)By multiplying the expiratory flow by the pressure gradient responsible for initiating inspiration
D)By multiplying the expiratory occlusion pressure by the transpulmonary pressure gradient
Q2) According to the ATS-ERS acceptability criteria for an FVC maneuver performed on a 9-year-old child,what is considered a satisfactory exhalation time?
A)1 second
B)2 seconds
C)3 seconds
D)6 seconds
Q3) A child has been diagnosed with vocal cord dysfunction.Which of the following flow-volume loops demonstrates this condition?
A)Figure 5-9C
B)Figure 5-9A
C)Figure 5-9B
D)Figure 5-8B
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of X-ray view is obtained when the radiographic plate is placed behind the patient's back with the x,and the side up may better define
A)Anteroposterior view
B)Posteroanterior view
C)Lateral view
D)Frontal view
Q2) A therapist is viewing frontal and lateral neck X-rays of a 12-month-old child and notices what is described as the "steeple" or "church steeple" sign: subglottic narrowing below the vocal cords,and an overdistended hypopharynx.Which of the following conditions does this child likely have?
A)Laryngotracheobronchitis
B)Tracheomalacia
C)Adenoidal enlargement
D)Epiglottitis
Q3) How will well-expanded,air-filled lungs appear on a chest radiograph?
A)Light colored
B)Gray
C)Black
D)White
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Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flexible bronchoscopy has been ordered in a child undergoing mechanical ventilation for acute respiratory distress syndrome.After several events of desaturation and therapeutic recruitment maneuvers,the physician wants to rule out mucus plugging.What should the therapist suggest to avoid alveolar derecruitment in this patient?
A)Take the patient off and bag throughout the procedure.
B)Increase PEEP on the ventilator until the procedure is completed.
C)Use a PEEP-Keep TM adaptor.
D)Increase tidal volume to sustain lung recruitment during the procedure.
Q2) Which of the following medications is administered to the patient's nasal mucosa for the purpose of reducing the risk of epistaxis during a bronchoscopy procedure?
A)Lidocaine
B)Hypertonic saline
C)Phenylephrine
D)Racemic epinephrine
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9
Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calculate a patient's total arterial oxygen content given the following data:
Arterial oxygen tension (PaO ),100 mm Hg
Arterial carbon dioxide tension (PacO ),45 mm Hg
Arterial oxygen saturation (SaO ),97.5%
Hemoglobin concentration ([Hb]),15 g/dL
Cardiac output,4.5 L/minute
Stroke volume,55 mL/beat
A)19.9 vol%
B)18.7 vol%
C)16.6 vol%
D)14.9 vol%
Q2) A respiratory therapist has been ordered to obtain a blood gas sample from a nonintubated premature baby.After selecting the best site to obtain the sample,what should the RT suggest to ameliorate the pain associated with the procedure?
A)Administer a small dose of fentanyl
B)Inject lidocaine at the injection site
C)Give a pacifier dipped in 24% sucrose
D)Administer a lidocaine drip
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10
Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist is assessing a mechanically ventilated infant and observes that the transcutaneous electrode temperature is set between 41° C and 44° C.What action does the therapist need to take at this time?
A)The temperature range set is appropriate;therefore,no action is necessary.
B)The therapist should increase the temperature range to 47° C to 48° C.
C)The temperature of the transcutaneous electrode needs to be reduced to 36° C to 38° C.
D)The electrode needs to be repositioned and maintained at the same temperature.
Q2) How is the percentage of functional hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen determined via pulse oximetry?
A)The percentage of red light that lands on the photodiode represents the SPo (oxygen saturation as determined by pulse oximetry).
B)The percentage of infrared light that reaches the photodetector reflects the SPo .
C)The ratio of the red and infrared light that reaches the photodiode signifies the SPo .
D)The sum of the amount of red and infrared absorbed by the tissue determines the SPo .
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) When weaning an infant receiving oxygen from a nasal cannula attached to a low-flow flow meter set at 100%,what range represents the recommended oxygen flow reduction from the flow meter?
A)Less than 0.1 L/minute
B)0.1 to 0.2 L/minute
C)0.2 to 0.3 L/minute
D)0.3 to 0.4 L/minute
Q2) For which of the following condition(s)is a high-flow nasal cannula contraindicated?
I.Pneumothorax
II.Apnea of prematurity
III.Severe upper airway obstruction
IV.Lack of spontaneous breathing
A)I,III,and IV only
B)I and III only
C)II and IV only
D)III and IV only
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Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following types of patients would using a dry powder inhaler (DPI)for medication delivery likely be contraindicated?
A)A 4-year-old child
B)A patient with COPD
C)A teenager able to generate an inspiratory flow of 40 L/min
D)An 11-year-old diagnosed with stable asthma
Q2) When a conventional jet nebulizer is operated at a flow of 10 L/min versus 5 L/min,what should the respiratory therapist expect?
A)The particle size gets larger.
B)The treatment time shortens.
C)The particle size remains stable.
D)The nebulizer will nebulize the full dose more slowly.
Q3) How can a patient avoid the problem of terminating inhalation when a plume from a pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI)impacts the oropharynx?
A)Hold the pMDI closer the mouth.
B)Use a valved holding chamber.
C)Depress the nozzle only half the full distance.
D)Instruct the patient to inspire a short,rapid breath.
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Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an excessive amount of secretions and atelectasis has been receiving ACT.What is the most commonly cited complication of ACT?
A)Hypoxemia
B)Hypercapnia
C)Alterations of blood pressure
D)Tachycardia
Q2) When performing endotracheal suctioning on a neonate,why should the therapist routinely avoid advancing the catheter tip beyond the distal end of the endotracheal tube?
A)To reduce the risk of inadvertent extubation with the suction catheter
B)To prevent the development of bronchial stenosis and granulomas
C)To decrease the chance of removing too much lung volume
D)To minimize the risk of oxygen desaturation
Q3) During autogenic drainage,at which of the following levels does the patient begin breathing?
A)Total lung capacity
B)Inspiratory reserve volume
C)Expiratory reserve volume
D)Tidal volume
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describe the laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?
A)The LMA should be used only with conscious patients.
B)The potential for aspiration is lower than with translaryngeal intubation.
C)The LMA is a good alternative as an emergency airway when positive-pressure ventilation is needed.
D)The LMA is placed into the larynx immediately above the epiglottis.
Q2) Which of the following criteria are used to define ventilatory and hypoxemic dysfunction in patients who may need intubation?
I.PaO < 80 mm Hg with FiO > 0.60
II.PaCO > 50-60 mm Hg
III.pH < 7.3
IV.PaO /FiO > 250
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of SP-D in human pulmonary surfactant?
I.Suppresses proinflammatory responses
II.Enhances phagocytosis
III.Enhances killing of microbes
IV.Functions as an opsonin for bacteria
A)II and III only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following is the most important component of pulmonary surfactant?
I.Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
II.Phosphatidylglycerine
III.Phosphatidylinositol
IV.Sphingomyelin
A)I only
B)I and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following outcomes are advantages of CPAP over mechanical ventilation in infants?
I.Lower risk of sepsis
II.Lower incidence of lung injury
III.Fewer cases of chronic lung disease
IV.Lower incidence of renal failure
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which form of CPAP has been associated with a "thoracic wiggle"?
A)IF-CPAP (infant flow CPAP)
B)MV-CPAP (mechanical ventilator CPAP)
C)B-CPAP (bubble CPAP)
D)V-CPAP (ventilator-derived CPAP)
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect should the therapist expect to observe after successful initiation of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)on a neonate who has a restrictive lung disorder?
A)Decreased arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO )
B)A lower mean airway pressure
C)A normal alveolar-arterial oxygen tension difference [P(A-a)O ] gradient
D)Increased lung volume
Q2) What is the only absolute contraindication to a trial of NPPV in pediatric patients with acute respiratory distress?
A)Cardiovascular instability
B)Nasopharyngeal obstruction
C)Inability to handle oral secretions
D)Extreme agitation or anxiety
Q3) When should NPPV be selected over CPAP in children with OSA?
A)For every patient who is hypoxemic
B)When OSA is complicated by alveolar hypoventilation and hypercarbia
C)When OSA is complicated by hypoxemia
D)For every patient who is hypoxemic and hypercapnic
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Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following modes of ventilation attempts to maintain a minimum target tidal volume with a constant pressure by manipulating the inspiratory flow?
A)Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
B)Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
C)Volume-assured pressure support (VAPS)
D)Pressure-regulated volume control (PRVC)
Q2) During HFOV manipulation of which of the following components establishes the continuous distending pressure?
A)Gas flow through the pneumotachometer during expiration
B)Peak inspiratory pressure-trough pressure gradient
C)Inspiratory valve aperture
D)Bias flow
Q3) How is the high-volume strategy achieved when the goal is to deliver a high lung volume to a neonate receiving HFV?
A)By increasing the continuous distending pressure
B)By reducing the peak-trough pressure gradient
C)By increasing the expiratory flow resistance
D)By decreasing the mean airway pressure
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Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the administration of aerosol therapy,how does a heliox mixture compare with an air-oxygen mixture as a carrier gas?
A)Less aerosol is deposited with heliox.
B)More aerosol is deposited with heliox.
C)The two gas mixtures are equally efficient.
D)Definitive data are not available.
Q2) What is the purpose of administering helium-oxygen gas mixtures to patients?
A)To reduce the work of breathing
B)To improve gas exchange
C)To increase the functional residual capacity
D)To improve pulmonary compliance
Q3) The therapist is using an oxygen flowmeter to deliver an 80:20 heliox mixture to a patient.The reading on the flowmeter is 10 L/minute.What is the actual flow received by the patient?
A)5.5 L/minute
B)10 L/minute
C)12.5 L/minute
D)18 L/minute
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions are considered contraindications for neonatal ECMO?
A)Meconium aspiration
B)Less than 2 kg of weight
C)Prolonged mechanical ventilation (7 to 10 days)
D)Less than 36 weeks of gestation
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms affect the output of VV ECMO?
I.Size of the tubing
II.The rotations per minute
III.Tension of the rollers
IV.Blood pressure
A)I.II,and III only
B)I and IV only
C)II,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q3) What is considered the most concerning complication of ECMO in the newborn?
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
B)Pneumonia
C)Intracranial hemorrhage
D)Hemosiderosis
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Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following agents should be considered in the rapid-sequence intubation of patients with status asthmaticus?
A)Atropine
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Halothane
D)Ketamine
Q2) A patient with status asthmaticus has been admitted to the emergency department.The physician would like to try a b -agonist that can be administered parenterally.Which of the following drugs should the therapist suggest?
A)Terbutaline
B)Levalbuterol
C)Epinephrine
D)Pirbuterol
Q3) Which of the following statements accurately describes levalbuterol?
A)It is composed of both (R)- and (S)-albuterol.
B)The d-isomer is the most active compound.
C)A dose of 0.63 mg is equipotent to 1.25 mg of racemic albuterol.
D)The d-isomer possesses a longer duration of action.
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Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is associated with a decreased white blood cell count caused by bone marrow suppression?
A)Cyclosporine
B)Tacrolimus
C)Azathioprine
D)Azithromycin
Q2) Which of the following is the most common indication for heart transplantation?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Massive myocardial infarction
C)External pacemaker placement
D)Primary pulmonary hypertension
Q3) What is the predominant problem leading to heart transplantation in children younger than 1 year of age?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Congenital cardiac lesions
C)Valvular problems
D)Lethal cardiac dysrhythmias
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following blood gas parameters should the therapist target when managing patients with PPHN?
I.SaO > 95%
II.PaCO 35-45 mm Hg
III.pH 7.35-7.45
IV.PaO > 95 mm Hg
A)I only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) When neonatal pneumonia is suspected,how long does an infant generally receive broad-spectrum antibiotics?
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)72 hours
D)96 hours
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of radiography in the determination of tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia?
A)The esophageal pouch can be observed.
B)The opening into the airway can be located.
C)The presence of left-to-right shunt can be seen.
D)The location of the nasogastric tube may confirm obstruction of the proximal esophagus caused by atresia.
Q2) A newborn presents with respiratory distress and has a chest radiograph that reveals a circular or ovoid mass with smooth edges.Which of the following lung bud anomalies is consistent with these clinical features?
A)Bronchogenic cysts
B)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformations
C)Pulmonary sequestration
D)Congenital lobar emphysema
Q3) Which of the following interventions is used to treat macroglossia?
A)Positioning the patient appropriately corrects most cases.
B)Most cases are corrected surgically.
C)Polysomnography to determine any effect on sleep is all that is required.
D)Treatment is based on the severity of airway obstruction and etiology.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with an atrial septal defect (ASD)?
A)An ASD often causes congestive heart failure (because of decreased pulmonary blood flow).
B)The right ventricle may become hypertrophic (right ventricular hypertrophy).
C)Most patients with an ASD are symptomatic in the neonatal intensive care unit,presenting with right atrial enlargement.
D)Chest radiographs are usually abnormal.
Q2) For which of the following congenital cardiac defects may spontaneous closure of the ductus arteriosus be catastrophic?
I.Tetralogy of Fallot with pulmonary atresia
II.Atrial septal defect
III.Severe coarctation of the aorta
IV.Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
A)I and III only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 7-year-old child was diagnosed with OSA due to tonsillar hypertrophy.Although adenotonsillectomy was performed,the child continues having daytime sleepiness and poor school performance.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Consider uvulectomy.
B)Administer antireflux medications.
C)Perform allergy tests to confirm that airway obstruction is due to other clinical condition.
D)Provide continuous positive airway pressure.
Q2) Which age group is more often affected by periodic breathing?
A)Newborns
B)Infants
C)Children
D)Adults
Q3) A 28-week-gestation newborn is demonstrating periods of apnea.In addition to ventilatory support,what other treatment can the therapist suggest?
A)Placement of an oropharyngeal airway
B)Caffeine
C)Theophylline
D)Beta blockers
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapist has been asked to evaluate a child suspected of having foreign body aspiration.Which of the following clinical conditions would guide the therapist to the diagnosis?
A)Recurrent bronchitis
B)Wheezing partially responsive to bronchodilators
C)Unilateral wheezing
D)Stridor
Q2) As the therapist auscultates over an infant's larynx,he hears a very low-pitched sound.On the basis of this finding,what impression is he likely to have regarding the nature of the upper airway obstruction?
A)Mild obstruction
B)Moderate obstruction
C)Severe obstruction
D)Complete obstruction
Q3) Relative to an adult's larynx,where is an infant's larynx situated?
A)C1-2
B)C2-3
C)C3-4
D)C4-5
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to establish the personal best peak flow,which instructions should the asthma educator give the patient?
I.Record peak flows when free of symptoms
II.Record peak flows once a week for 2 to 3 weeks
III.Record peak flows preferably in early afternoon
IV.Maintain peak flow values within 80% of the best peak flow
A)I,III,and IV only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,III,and IV only.
Q2) Which of the following spirometric measurements is sensitive to small changes in airway caliber and decreases in value with increasing obstructive disease?
A)Forced vital capacity (FVC)
B)Forced expiratory flow between 200 and 1200 mL of the FVC (FEF200-1200)
C)Mean forced expiratory flow during the middle half of the FVC (FEF25-75)
D)Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV )
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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) Which of the following medications should the therapist routinely administer during the management of hospitalized patients with cystic fibrosis?
I.Albuterol
II.Hypertonic saline
III.DNAse
IV.Salmeterol
A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)I and IV only
D)I,II,and III only
Q2) What are the chances of two CFTR gene carriers having a normal child?
A)100%
B)75%
C)50%
D)25%
Q3) Which of the following radiographic features is consistent with CF?
A)Air bronchograms
B)Dome-shaped diaphragms
C)Bronchiectatic changes
D)Meniscus sign
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapist is evaluating the progress of a patient with ARDS.The arterial blood gas reveals a PaO? of 55 mm Hg and a PaCO? of 65 mm Hg.The PEEP is set at 12 cm H?O,and the mean airway pressure is 18 on an FiO? of 0.60.What is the OI in this patient?
A)20.7
B)13.1
C)1.31
D)200
Q2) During the implementation of permissive hypercapnia,which of the following concepts is the most critical to prevent complications of this strategy?
A)The PaCO should never reach 100 mm Hg.
B)The pH should never remain below 7.30.
C)The rate at which the CO rises may be more important than the actual PaCO .
D)The target PaCO should be reached in 48 hours.
Q3) Which of the following indirect insults can cause ARDS?
A)Pneumonia
B)Chest trauma
C)Closed head injury
D)Cor pulmonale
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is receiving aggressive therapy for shock.Cardiac failure has developed.Which of the following inotropes is the most frequently used under these circumstances?
A)Epinephrine
B)Dopamine
C)Norepinephrine
D)Digitalis
Q2) During the treatment of sepsis,what intervention may be needed if hypotension persists despite the maximal application of inotropic and vasomotor support?
A)Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
B)High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
C)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D)Hyperbaric oxygenation
Q3) In which of the following clinical situations may the administration of packed red blood cells be indicated?
A)When a patient demonstrates leukopenia
B)When a patient shows evidence of anemia
C)When the risk of sepsis is present
D)When a patient shows evidence of hypovolemic shock
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should endotracheal intubation be performed on a smoke inhalation victim?
A)As soon as possible
B)Only if the patient demonstrates inspiratory and expiratory stridor
C)When the airway appears to be narrowing as determined by bronchoscopy
D)When the signs and symptoms of respiratory failure are present
Q2) When a victim's airway moves below the surface of a liquid,what is that person's first physiologic response?
A)Voluntary breath holding
B)Laryngospasm
C)Hypercarbia and hypoxemia
D)Aspiration
Q3) Why are infants and children highly vulnerable to head injury?
I.Their head is large and heavy compared with the rest of the body.
II.They lack mature judgment.
III.They are uncoordinated.
IV.They tend to move too fast.
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are the most common symptoms associated with pneumothorax?
A)Cough and headache
B)Shortness of breath and chest pain
C)Hemoptysis and chest pain
D)Dry cough and dyspnea
Q2) Excessive amounts of pleural fluid may require drainage through a chest tube.What is the normal amount of fluid present in the pleural space?
A)1 L
B)5 to 10 L
C)10 to 50 mL
D)1 to 5 mL
Q3) In which of the following body positions are radiographs generally taken to reveal the presence of excess fluid in the pleural space?
A)Anteroposterior (AP)recumbent
B)Posteroanterior (PA)recumbent
C)Fowler
D)Lateral decubitus
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Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic strategies should the therapist deem as the most important in patients with neuromuscular disease?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Oxygen therapy
C)Ventilatory support
D)Hydration
Q2) The therapist is asked to evaluate a young child with a diagnosis of Chiari malformation.Which of the following signs and symptoms should the therapist expect to see?
I.Irregular breathing
II.Difficulty swallowing
III.Vomiting
IV.Choking
A)II and IV only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,II,and IV only
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35
Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) How large should the interior of an ambulance be for accommodating equipment and personnel?
A)Large enough for two incubators and eight personnel
B)Large enough for one large incubator and two team members
C)Large enough to secure two transport incubators and room to seat enough team members to provide care
D)Large enough to be versatile regardless of the equipment and personnel needs
Q2) What are some of the operational features that characterize a pediatric transport unit?
I.110-V AC electrical power
II.Point-of-care radiographic equipment
III.Medical air and oxygen
IV.Suction capabilities and equipment
A)III and IV only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a major advantage of using a portable ventilator?
A)It is easy to analyze the inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio ).
B)No humidification is necessary.
C)It provides a variety of ventilation modes.
D)A variety of power sources can be used.
Q2) Before the patient is discharged home,who needs to meet and assess the needs of both the child and family?
A)The family and the physician
B)The nurse and the family
C)The physician and nurse
D)The family and the health care team
Q3) Before a ventilator-dependent child can be discharged home,which of the following criteria must be met?
A)The ventilator setting must be stable for at least 3 weeks.
B)Arterial blood gas measurements must be stable and within normal limits.
C)The patient's Fio must be 0.80 or less.
D)If PEEP is used,it must be no more than 10 cm H O.
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a statistical method that measures standard deviations or known variance and the degree to which almost perfect production can occur?
A)Six Sigma
B)Systemic variability
C)Analysis of variance
D)Power
Q2) Which of the following processes enables organizations to continuously measure services,practices,costs,and products using best practices to improve care?
A)Self-reporting
B)Benchmarking
C)Quality measure reporting
D)Quarterly budget
Q3) What is the most common serious error observed in the NICU?
A)Medication related
B)Patient misidentification
C)Error in the diagnosis
D)Delayed diagnosis
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