Pediatric Pulmonary Pathophysiology
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Pediatric Pulmonary Pathophysiology explores the fundamental mechanisms and disorders affecting the respiratory system in infants, children, and adolescents. This course covers normal lung development, gas exchange, respiratory mechanics, and the immune responses relevant to pediatric populations. Emphasis is placed on the pathogenesis of common and rare pulmonary diseases in children, including asthma, cystic fibrosis, respiratory distress syndromes, congenital anomalies, and chronic lung diseases. The course integrates clinical case studies and recent research to enhance understanding of diagnostic approaches, therapeutic strategies, and the impact of pulmonary dysfunction on overall pediatric health.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following mechanisms is (are)responsible for the possible association between oligohydramnios and lung hypoplasia?
I.Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
II.Mechanical restriction of the chest wall
III.Interference with fetal breathing
IV.Failure to produce fetal lung liquid
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Answer: D
Q2) What is the purpose of the substance secreted by the type II pneumocyte?
A)To increase the gas exchange surface area
B)To reduce surface tension
C)To maintain lung elasticity
D)To preserve the volume of the amniotic fluid
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following embryonic germ layers gives formation to the respiratory system?
A)Endoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)Periderm
Answer: A
Q2) What is the function of Wharton's jelly inside the umbilical cord?
A)To help provide nutrition to the fetus
B)To prevent the vessels inside the cord from kinking
C)To help protect the fetus
D)To regulate the temperature between the fetus and the mother
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following organs is considered to be the first to form?
A)Heart
B)Brain
C)Lungs
D)Kidneys
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the main potential problem associated with the premature rupture of membranes?
A)Fetal dehydration
B)Fetal infection
C)Maternal hypotension
D)Maternal renal failure
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following conditions are associated with preeclampsia?
I.Multiparity
II.Proteinuria
III.Generalized edema
IV.Hypertension
A)II and III
B)I,II,and III
C)I,III,and IV
D)II,III,and IV
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who demonstrates head bobbing,nasal flaring,and grunting is exhibiting signs of ____________________.
A)respiratory distress
B)hypoxemia
C)hypercapnia
D)acidemia
Q2) After the umbilical cord has been cut in the delivery room during the delivery of an infant who is large for gestational age,the therapist notices that the umbilical cord is large and fat.Which of the following maternal conditions is likely present?
A)Congestive heart failure
B)Renal insufficiency
C)Diabetes mellitus
D)Hypertension
Q3) Which of the following components compose the history of present illness section of a patient's medical history?
A)Immunizations
B)Symptoms exhibited by parents
C)Aggravating or alleviating factors
D)Symptoms resulting in hospitalizations
6
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist places a face mask on an infant to measure FRC.What should the therapist do to minimize the presence of air leaks and improve accuracy of the test?
A)Place a nose clip on the infant.
B)Minimize the amount of helium used during the test.
C)Minimize oxygen concentration and increase nitrogen concentration.
D)Apply petroleum jelly on the edges of the mask before applying the mask to the face.
Q2) Why must caution be exercised when using a face mask while performing pulmonary function testing on neonates?
A)To prevent trigeminal nerve stimulation
B)To avoid necrosis of the facial skin
C)To prevent vagal reflexes
D)To prevent gastric insufflations
Q3) Which of the following major forces opposes inspiration?
A)Inspiratory flow
B)Surface tension
C)Airway resistance
D)Respiratory rate
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How will well-expanded,air-filled lungs appear on a chest radiograph?
A)Light colored
B)Gray
C)Black
D)White
Q2) While viewing the chest X-ray of an 18-month-old boy,a therapist notices that the trachea is truncated and that the right lung is collapsed.Which of the following situations or conditions may have caused this situation?
A)An elevated right hemidiaphragm
B)A mucous plug in the right mainstem bronchus
C)A mass compressing the trachea
D)A right-sided pneumothorax
Q3) Which of the following radiographic views provides the best perspective for ascertaining the position of an endotracheal tube in the patient's esophagus?
A)Anteroposterior view
B)Left lateral decubitus
C)Lateral view
D)Oblique view
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Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is administered to the patient's nasal mucosa for the purpose of reducing the risk of epistaxis during a bronchoscopy procedure?
A)Lidocaine
B)Hypertonic saline
C)Phenylephrine
D)Racemic epinephrine
Q2) Which of the following organisms is often responsible for cross-contamination between bronchoscopies?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Mycoplasma
C)Pseudomonas
D)Klebsiella
Q3) Which of the following features are consistent with a large flexible bronchoscope compared with a smaller one?
A)Has a suction channel
B)Provides recording of the procedure
C)Is more rigid
D)Produces less heat
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9
Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 12-hour-old infant is experiencing respiratory distress,and the neonatologist orders a heel stick to assess the infant's oxygenation status.What action should the therapist take at this time?
A)Perform the heel stick as ordered.
B)Instead of using the newborn's heel,the therapist should use a finger as the site.
C)Inform the physician that this procedure is inappropriate at this time.
D)Explain to the doctor that an arterial puncture procedure is appropriate.
Q2) Which of the following conditions can cause methemoglobinemia?
A)Anemia
B)Inhalation of nitric oxide (NO)
C)Use of dobutamine
D)High fraction of inspired oxygen
Q3) With an umbilical artery catheter (UAC)in the "low position," which of the following blood vessels should be avoided?
A)Celiac artery
B)Superior mesenteric artery
C)Renal artery
D)Descending aorta
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) While attending to a neonatal patient in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU),the therapist notices that a transcutaneous electrode is affixed to the upper chest of the neonate.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)The therapist should only continue monitoring the patient since the transcutaneous electrode is properly placed.
B)The therapist should reposition the electrode on the neonate's abdomen.
C)The therapist needs to move the transcutaneous electrode to the infant's right shoulder.
D)The therapist should relocate the electrode on the sternum as close as possible to the heart.
Q2) The therapist has been asked to measure preductal oxygen saturation.Where could the therapist place the pulse oximeter probe?
A)Right thumb
B)Left thumb
C)Forehead
D)Left earlobe
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11
Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following problems occurs as a result of absorption atelectasis?
A)Pulmonary vasodilation
B)Increased intrapulmonary shunting
C)Decreased alveolar pressure
D)Increased partial pressure of nitrogen in the blood
Q2) A child with an exacerbation of asthma is a candidate for the administration of heliox.Which of the following gas delivery devices is most suitable for its administration?
A)Nasal catheter
B)Simple mask
C)Partial rebreathing mask
D)Nonrebreathing mask
Q3) What is the minimum level of oxygen tension in a child that requires oxygen administration?
A)PaO of 80 mm Hg
B)PaO of 60 mm Hg
C)SPo of 92%
D)SPo of 95%
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12
Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The physician in the emergency department is attending to a 12-year-old child who has an exacerbation of asthma.The physician asks the therapist to recommend a medication that has a synergistic effect with beta-2 agonists during asthma exacerbations.Which of the following medications should the therapist recommend?
A)Montelukast
B)Ipratropium bromide
C)Fluticasone
D)Triamcinolone
Q2) How can a patient avoid the problem of terminating inhalation when a plume from a pressurized metered-dose inhaler (pMDI)impacts the oropharynx?
A)Hold the pMDI closer the mouth.
B)Use a valved holding chamber.
C)Depress the nozzle only half the full distance.
D)Instruct the patient to inspire a short,rapid breath.
Q3) By what percentage can breath holding increase particle deposition in the lungs?
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the main components of the traditional airway clearance techniques?
I.Palpation of the chest wall
II.Postural drainage
III.Percussion
IV.Coughing
A)II only
B)I and III only
C)II,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) A respiratory therapist has been assigned to administer ACT to a number of patients on the ward.In which of the following conditions may ACT be contraindicated?
I.Foreign body aspiration
II.Frank hemoptysis
III.Empyema
IV.Untreated pneumothorax
A)I,II,III,and IV
B)II and IV only
C)III and IV only
D)I and IV only
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements describe the laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?
A)The LMA should be used only with conscious patients.
B)The potential for aspiration is lower than with translaryngeal intubation.
C)The LMA is a good alternative as an emergency airway when positive-pressure ventilation is needed.
D)The LMA is placed into the larynx immediately above the epiglottis.
Q2) What is considered the best predictor of a successful extubation?
A)An oxygen saturation > 95%
B)A respiratory rate < 35 breaths per minute
C)A cuff leak < 25 cm H O
D)A successful spontaneous breathing trial
Q3) Where is the tracheostomy tube usually placed in children?
A)Between the second and fourth tracheal rings
B)Between the fourth and fifth tracheal rings
C)Between the cricoid and the thyroid cartilage
D)Between the first and second tracheal rings
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A term baby with meconium aspiration syndrome is receiving mechanical ventilation per protocol.On the third day,the therapist observes that the FiO requirement is increasing and both lung compliance and oxygenation index are worsening.What should be suggested at this time?
A)Switch to a pressure-limited mode
B)High-frequency chest oscillation
C)ECMO
D)Administer surfactant
Q2) Which of the following is the most common form of surfactant abnormality associated with acute lung injury?
A)Inactivation by proteins
B)Altered surfactant metabolism
C)Altered surfactant pool
D)Altered surfactant composition
Q3) According to Laplace's law the pressure required to open an alveoli in the lung is:
A)Directly proportional to the radius
B)Inversely proportional to the length of the airway
C)Directly proportional to the surface tension
D)Indirectly proportional to the viscosity of the gas in the airway
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following features are often components of CPAP systems incorporated within infant ventilators?
I.Highly responsive demand flow systems
II.Apnea backup breaths
III.FiO compensation mechanisms
IV.Leak compensation capabilities
A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)III and IV only
D)I,II,and IV only
Q2) After initiating B-CPAP in an infant at 6 cm H O,the therapist notices that,although "bubbling" is present,the pressure in the manometer fluctuates between 2 and 5 cm
H O.What may have caused this situation?
A)The Fio was not increased sufficiently.
B)The CPAP level was not raised enough.
C)The flow through the CPAP system is too low.
D)A problem with the interface has likely developed.
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17
Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following NPPV interfaces should the therapist consider when a child complains of discomfort with a nasal mask?
I.Oronasal mask
II.Nasal plugs
III.Helmet
IV.Nasal pillows
A)I and II only
B)I and III only
C)II and IV only
D)III and IV only
Q2) Which of the following bilevel ventilator settings influences upper airway stability?
A)IPAP
B)Mode
C)Respiratory rate
D)EPAP
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18
Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adjustments should the therapist consider to improve ventilation on a patient undergoing HFV?
A)Increase frequency
B)Increase \(\overline{ { Paw }}\)
C)Increase inspiratory time
D)Decrease frequency
Q2) When airway pressure release ventilation is used,what physiologic process occurs as the higher pressure is released and the lower is achieved?
A)Increased functional residual capacity
B)Increased tidal volume
C)Improved oxygenation
D)Exhalation of carbon dioxide
Q3) Enhanced diffusion in HFV is a function of which of the following factors?
A)Inspiratory flow
B)Plateau pressure
C)Inspiratory time
D)Respiratory frequency
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist taking care of an infant on iNO observes that the NO levels have been increasing.In order to correct the situation he increases the inspiratory flow of the ventilator.What will be some of the limitations associated with this change?
I.It reduces time of contact between NO and O .
II.It affects the mean airway pressure because it changes the inspiratory time.
III.It may increase the delivered tidal volume.
IV.It reduces the mean airway pressure and increases the inspiratory time.
A)I only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) An infant on high-flow nasal cannula also requires administration of albuterol every 6 hours.The flow of the cannula was adjusted from 4 to 5 liters per minute.How could this affect the aerosol delivery to this infant?
A)It will be unchanged.
B)It will decrease.
C)It will increase.
D)It will increase only if the infant's respiratory rate increases.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions are cardiac applications of ECMO?
I.ECPR
II.CDH
III.Fulminant myocarditis
IV.Cardiomyopathy
A)I and II only
B)III and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) The therapist in charge of a patient on ECMO has noticed an increase in premembrane pressures.What is the most probable explanation?
A)Very high pump flow
B)Clotting in the circuit
C)Damage of the raceway
D)Excessive sweep flow
Q3) What is the key reason for making ECMO so successful in newborns?
A)Newborns do not have as a high risk for bleeding as other age groups.
B)Newborns require less ECMO flows.
C)Newborns have fewer side effects when treated with heparin drips.
D)Most clinical conditions treated with ECMO in newborns are reversible.
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Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications works to maintain the integrity of the mast cell?
A)Ipratropium bromide
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Cromolyn sodium
D)Methylprednisolone
Q2) Which of the following agents should be considered in the rapid-sequence intubation of patients with status asthmaticus?
A)Atropine
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Halothane
D)Ketamine
Q3) Which of the following adverse effects is likely to be experienced by patients who use nonselective b -adrenergic agonists?
A)Tremor
B)Tachypnea
C)Bradycardia
D)Blurred vision
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Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Twenty-four hours after a pediatric patient has undergone lung transplantation,the therapist notices on the patient's chest X-ray features consistent with pulmonary edema.How should the therapist interpret this finding?
A)The patient has experienced ischemia-reperfusion injury.
B)The patient is developing bronchiolitis obliterans.
C)A pneumonia-like infection has occurred.
D)Graft failure is present.
Q2) Which of the following medications are used as antirejection agents?
I.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
II.Cyclosporine
III.Azathioprine
IV.Mycophenolate mofetil
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood samples are simultaneously obtained from both the right radial artery and the umbilical artery,and the arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO )value from the right radial artery is 20 mm Hg greater than that analyzed from the umbilical artery sample.On the basis of this finding,which of the following conditions does the neonate likely have?
A)PPHN
B)MAS
C)Neonatal pneumonia
D)RDS
Q2) When neonatal pneumonia is suspected,how long does an infant generally receive broad-spectrum antibiotics?
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)72 hours
D)96 hours
Q3) What is the typical type of airway obstruction that occurs with MAS?
A)Ball valve
B)Complete
C)No obstruction
D)Airway inflammation
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patterns are commonly found in the presentation of lung bud anomalies?
I.Appear early in the newborn period
II.Emerge later in childhood
III.Frequent respiratory infections
IV.Systemic hypertension
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)II and IV only
D)I,II,and III only
Q2) A newborn presents with respiratory distress and has a chest radiograph that reveals a circular or ovoid mass with smooth edges.Which of the following lung bud anomalies is consistent with these clinical features?
A)Bronchogenic cysts
B)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformations
C)Pulmonary sequestration
D)Congenital lobar emphysema
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is the most common preoperative treatment to minimize preductal constriction until surgical correction of coarctation of the aorta can be achieved?
A)Indomethacin
B)Prostaglandin E
C)Negative inotropes
D)Diuretics
Q2) The therapist is setting pulse oximetry to determine the presence of right-to-left shunt in an infant suspected of having a heart defect.Where should the therapist place the pulse ox probe to obtain the most accurate measure of preductal oxygen saturation?
A)Any finger of the right hand
B)Any finger of the left hand
C)Left earlobe
D)Lower extremities
Q3) What factor is responsible for closure of the foramen ovale?
A)Increased PaO
B)Increased pressure on the left side of the heart
C)Blood flowing through the lungs
D)High pulmonary vascular resistance
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Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the age group with the highest prevalence of OSA?
A)First 6 months
B)6 months to 1 year
C)1 to 2 years
D)2 years to 8 years
Q2) Which of the following are typical features of the obstructive hypoventilation syndrome?
I.Disruption of sleep architecture
II.Degradation of sleep quality
III.Abnormal gas exchange
IV.Significant daytime symptoms
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q3) Which age group is more often affected by periodic breathing?
A)Newborns
B)Infants
C)Children
D)Adults
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following radiographic techniques is best for determining the presence of a ball-valve type obstruction?
A)A standard portable A-P chest X-ray
B)A lateral neck radiograph
C)Either a right or left lateral decubitus film
D)Inspiratory and expiratory A-P chest X-rays
Q2) A 3-year-old child has been diagnosed with epiglottitis and was intubated due to severe respiratory distress.After 24 hours of antibiotics the therapist is considering extubation.What will be an acceptable leak before considering extubation?
A)£20 cm H O
B)21-30 cm H O
C)31-35 cm H O
D)An audible leak at any pressure level is enough to consider extubation.
Q3) Why does an infant's respiratory distress from choanal atresia seem to lessen when the infant cries?
A)Because the anterior nares widen more
B)Because the infant breathes more through the mouth
C)Because the infant is able to generate a stronger inspiratory effort
D)Because accessory muscles of ventilation help stabilize the chest wall
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is performing an exercise challenge for a child suspected of having exercise-induced bronchospasm.After 30 minutes of stopping exercise,the FEV has decreased 15% from baseline.How should the therapist interpret this information?
A)The challenge is consistent with a positive test for EIB.
B)The challenge is consistent with a positive test for asthma.
C)The challenge test is inconclusive for EIB.
D)The therapist needs to wait 30 more minutes before interpreting the results.
Q2) Which of the following immunoglobulins has been identified as a key molecule in mediating allergic asthma and should be measured in serum?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgM
D)IgD
Q3) Which of the following events occurs during the first phase of airway inflammation?
A)Release of preformed mediators
B)Antigen-antibody reactions on the surface of mast cells
C)Inhalation of offending antigen
D)Bronchial mucosal edema
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Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of patients with adult cystic fibrosis are chronically infected with Pseudomonas?
A)More than 5%
B)More than 20%
C)More than 50%
D)More than 70%
Q2) Which of the following medications should the therapist routinely administer during the management of hospitalized patients with cystic fibrosis?
I.Albuterol
II.Hypertonic saline
III.DNAse
IV.Salmeterol
A)I and II only
B)II and III only
C)I and IV only
D)I,II,and III only
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the implementation of permissive hypercapnia,which of the following concepts is the most critical to prevent complications of this strategy?
A)The PaCO should never reach 100 mm Hg.
B)The pH should never remain below 7.30.
C)The rate at which the CO rises may be more important than the actual PaCO .
D)The target PaCO should be reached in 48 hours.
Q2) A therapist is evaluating the progress of a patient with ARDS.The arterial blood gas reveals a PaO? of 55 mm Hg and a PaCO? of 65 mm Hg.The PEEP is set at 12 cm H?O,and the mean airway pressure is 18 on an FiO? of 0.60.What is the OI in this patient?
A)20.7
B)13.1
C)1.31
D)200
Q3) Which of the following indirect insults can cause ARDS?
A)Pneumonia
B)Chest trauma
C)Closed head injury
D)Cor pulmonale
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has been treated for shock with 60 mL/kg of normal saline.What should be considered at this time?
A)Administer an additional 20 mL/kg bolus of fluids
B)Switch to lactated Ringer's solution
C)Start vasopressors
D)Alternate normal saline and Ringer's solution
Q2) How should the therapist interpret a capillary refill time of approximately 1 second in a pediatric patient?
A)Adequate cardiac output
B)Increased afterload
C)Inadequate cardiac output
D)Decreased preload
Q3) In which of the following clinical situations may the administration of packed red blood cells be indicated?
A)When a patient demonstrates leukopenia
B)When a patient shows evidence of anemia
C)When the risk of sepsis is present
D)When a patient shows evidence of hypovolemic shock
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Q1) Which of the following types of victims should be admitted to the hospital despite being stable in the emergency room after a submersion injury?
I.Patients with any degree of respiratory compromise
II.Victims who needed rescue breathing
III.Patients who experienced a loss of consciousness
IV.Victims who were combatant at the scene
A)I and III only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) During resuscitation after cold water submersion,which of the following cardiovascular responses tends to occur when the patient is rewarmed?
A)Cardiac dysrhythmia
B)Pulmonary hypertension
C)Hypotension
D)Myocardial infarction
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of pleural effusion in the pediatric population?
A)Empyema
B)Congestive heart failure
C)Parapneumonic effusion
D)Adenobacterial effusion
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms explains the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space of patients with ARDS?
A)Increased capillary permeability
B)Decreased osmotic pressure
C)Increased hydrostatic pressure
D)Obstructed lymphatic drainage
Q3) What procedure should the therapist suggest to relieve a tension pneumothorax while awaiting more definitive treatment?
A)Insertion of thoracostomy tubes
B)Thoracotomy
C)Thoracentesis with a large-bore needle
D)Needle thoracostomy
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34
Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) What are the consequences of bulbar muscle dysfunction?
I.Dysphagia
II.Impaired coughing
III.Dysarthria
IV.Impaired inspiration
A)II and IV only
B)I and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following glycogen storage diseases has the most severe respiratory symptoms?
A)Pompe disease
B)Diabetes
C)Von Gierke
D)Forbes-Cori disease
Q3) Which of the following muscles is considered a primary muscle of inspiration?
A)Internal intercostal muscles
B)Transversus abdominis
C)Sternocleidomastoid muscles
D)Diaphragm
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Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) Which of the following types of health care providers generally compose the crew for infant transport?
A)Discharge planner and nurse
B)Respiratory therapist and nurse
C)Physician and nurse
D)Discharge planner and physician
Q2) What are the negative effects of an aircraft flown with a sea-level cabin altitude?
A)A higher flight altitude is necessary.
B)Air-to-ground communications become difficult.
C)Fuel consumption often increases.
D)The aircraft may encounter more altitude-related concerns.
Q3) Which of the following communication systems is the most advantageous for fixed-wing ambulances to have to accomplish air-to-hospital communications?
A)UHF/AM transceiver
B)Walkie-talkie type phone
C)VHF radios
D)Satellite-type cell phone
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36
Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) Before the patient is discharged home,who needs to meet and assess the needs of both the child and family?
A)The family and the physician
B)The nurse and the family
C)The physician and nurse
D)The family and the health care team
Q2) Which of the following is the most important disadvantage of a liquid oxygen system?
A)It is very heavy.
B)It requires a power source.
C)It requires filling every 6 months.
D)It vents regardless of whether the flow is on or off.
Q3) What is a major advantage of using a portable ventilator?
A)It is easy to analyze the inspired fraction of oxygen (Fio ).
B)No humidification is necessary.
C)It provides a variety of ventilation modes.
D)A variety of power sources can be used.
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) Which of the following types of infections are considered HAIs?
I.Catheter-associated blood stream infections
II.Catheter-associated urinary tract infections
III.Ventilator-associated pneumonias
IV.Surgical site infections
A)II and III only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
Q2) What is the most common serious error observed in the NICU?
A)Medication related
B)Patient misidentification
C)Error in the diagnosis
D)Delayed diagnosis
Q3) Lack of skills and/or failure to follow or deviation from standard practices/procedures is known as:
A)Sentinel event
B)Six Sigma
C)Negligence
D)Health failure mode
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