Pediatric Physical Therapy Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Physical Therapy focuses on the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of motor and movement disorders in infants, children, and adolescents. This course covers the unique anatomical, physiological, and developmental considerations relevant to pediatric populations, including congenital, neuromuscular, orthopedic, and chronic health conditions. Students will learn evidence-based interventions, therapeutic exercises, and family-centered care approaches to improve functional mobility, independence, and quality of life. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary collaboration, adaptive equipment, and the impact of growth and development on intervention planning.
Recommended Textbook
Meeting the Physical Therapy Needs of Children 1st Edition by Susan K. Effgen PhD PT
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Chapter 1: Serving the Needs of Children and Their Families
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Sample Questions
Q1) Physical therapists first started to work with children
A) in the 1940s for the treatment of children with cerebral palsy.
B) when Sister Kenny came to the United States to meet the needs of children with polio.
C) when Berta Bobath introduced a treatment for children with cerebral palsy.
D) during the polio epidemic in the early part of the 20th century.
Answer: D
Q2) The sequence of the hierarchy of response competence is first skill acquisition followed by
A) fluency, maintenance, and generalization.
B) refinement of the skill, transfer, and attainment.
C) generalization, maintenance, and refinement.
D) transfer and performance in different environments.
Answer: A
Q3) Evidenced-based practice should include
A) expert opinion, continuing education, and personal experience.
B) intuition, unsystematic clinical experience.
C) explanations based on pathophysiology.
D) awareness, consultation, judgment, and creativity.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Child Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant demonstrates the asymmetrical tonic neck reflex has integrated by
A) turning his head to either side.
B) turning his head to one side and looking at the extended arm on that side.
C) turning his head and bringing his hand to the mouth on the same side.
D) turning his head to one side and bringing the opposite hand toward his mouth.
Answer: C
Q2) A full-term, typically developing neonate compared to a 12-month old will have the following range of motion:
A) Limitations in hip flexion and excessive plantar flexion.
B) Limitations in hip extension and excessive plantar flexion.
C) Limitations in plantar flexion and excessive hip flexion.
D) Limitations in hip extension and excessive dorisflexion.
Answer: D
Q3) Anticipatory postural control in sitting occurs once the infant is able to walk.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What factors have been shown to correlate with positive child development?
Answer: Adequate socioeconomic status, higher parent educational level, and availability of play toys.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Child Appraisal: Examination and Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain is considered the fifth vital sign. What behavioral pain scale would you use for a child who is preverbal or nonverbal and cannot participate in a self-reported scale?
Answer: The Face, Legs, Activity, Cry, and Consolability (FLACC) behavioral pain scale or the Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario Pain Scale (CHEOPS).
Explanation: These are the two scales that do not require verbal responses and are appropriate for children. There are other nonverbal scales for neonates.
Q2) What type of measure distinguishes children with or without a specific characteristic or impairment?
A) Criterion Referenced
B) Discriminative
C) Evaluative
D) Reliable
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Family-Centered Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Being a pediatric physical therapist who practices family-centered care means you will
A) Treat the mother's back pain as well as the child's condition.
B) Respect the culture and customs of your patient's family.
C) Defer to the parents/caregivers when you feel they are making a serious mistake in judgment.
D) Refrain from providing the family with recommendations
Q2) Respite care is defined as
A) home-based care for respiratory or pulmonary problems to minimize hospital admissions.
B) care for a patient who is terminally ill.
C) temporary care for a child with a disability so the primary caregiver can rest.
D) home-based medical care that allows the family to focus on the emotional well-being of the child rather than the medical condition.
Q3) It is appropriate for the physical, occupational, and speech therapists to collaboratively decide on the child's mode of communication.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal System: Structure, Function, and
Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing the hip prone extension test, you should
A) stabilize the pelvis prior to measuring.
B) allow the "non-testing" foot to rest gently on the floor.
C) position the child with one hip on the edge of the plinth and the other securely on the plinth.
D) test both sides at the same time.
Q2) The kinematics of a child's gait are generally mature by which age?
A) 2 years
B) 4 years
C) 7 years
D) 9 years
Q3) You are doing an orthopedic evaluation on a 13-month-old child. The parents are concerned that the child isn't walking. Select the finding that is atypical in a 13-month-old child.
A) The child has no visible longitudinal arch in standing (flat feet).
B) The child has a 3-degree hip flexion contracture.
C) The child has genu valgum.
D) The child has a straight lateral border of the foot.
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Chapter 6: Musculoskeletal System: Considerations and Interventions for Specific
Pediatric Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moderate exercise for children with juvenile idiopathic arthritis usually leads to A) increased joint pain.
B) increased joint inflammation.
C) improved fitness.
D) increased joint bleeds.
Q2) Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy
A) will have increased base of support, lateral trunk sway, and toe-walking during the late ambulatory stage.
B) will have loss of upper extremity function, scoliosis, and contractures during the late nonambulatory stage.
C) will have increased lumbar lordosis and weakness in the hip extensors and ankle dorisflexors
D) All of the above
Q3) Children with juvenile idiopathic arthritis in their hips
A) exacerbate (cause to flare up) their symptoms with exercise.
B) should lie in prone every day.
C) have lifelong joint inflammation.
D) should use a wheelchair as their main means of mobility.
Q4) Name two diagnoses where heightened reaction to trauma is common.
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Chapter 7: Neuromuscular System: Examination, Evaluation, and Diagnoses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements most accurately defines spasticity?
A) Constant resistance to passive movement
B) Hyperreflexia associated with increased resistance to passive movement
C) Upper motor neuron syndrome
D) Velocity-dependent increased resistance to passive movement
Q2) Which of the following activities would be more difficult for a 6-year-old child with developmental coordination disorder at school?
A) Interacting with peers
B) Jumping jacks in physical education class
C) Putting on a coat
D) Sitting in a chair
Q3) When performing a well-child screening for a 1-year old, which of the following signs could indicate a potential diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder?
A) Inability to independently dress
B) Inability to jump down off step
C) Inability to say "ball"
D) Inability to say "Daddy help"
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Neuromuscular System: the Plan of Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When providing physical guidance, the instructor should consider which of the following?
A) The phase of learning a task
B) The child's frustration in achieving the movement pattern required for the task
C) Methods for reducing or fading the use of manual guidance as the child gets the general idea of how to perform the task
D) All of the above
Q2) The objective for generalization of stair climbing for a child with spastic diplegia is that the child will climb stairs at school independently using his crutches and a step-by-step pattern. What is your plan for generalization?
A) Train and hope
B) Start with relaxation and range of motion exercises
C) Whole practice in different environments
D) Part practice in the clinic
Q3) The difference between learning and changes in performance is that learning is the immediate effect of practice.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the information processing perspective, memory
A) can interfere with creating new movement patterns.
B) enables a person to benefit from prior experience.
C) must be embedded within a task.
D) does not impact on performance, but is important in learning.
Q2) When learning a new motor skill, the novice learner may
A) engage all possible degrees of freedom, resulting in uncoordinated movements.
B) incorporate the motion-dependent forces from the leg and trunk movements and gravity, resulting in smoother movements.
C) selectively limit the degrees of freedom, resulting in "stiffer" movement patterns.
D) increase the number of synergies used, resulting in smoother movement patterns.
Q3) Which type of practice would best facilitate the generalization of motor skills?
A) Specific practice
B) Blocked practice
C) Part-task practice
D) Variable practice
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11
Chapter 10: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A wound dressing that contains gel-forming polymers and absorbs wound exudates, provides a moist wound environment, and conforms to the body shape is a A) film.
B) hydrogel.
C) alginate.
D) hydrocolloid.
Q2) ___________is the process of laying down of collagen matrix.
Q3) _________exercises are the exercises of choice for pediatric patients with thermal injuries.
Q4) Positioning for a patient with anterior neck burns would include all except A) neck extension.
B) neck flexion.
C) a pillow behind the shoulders.
D) neck orthosis.
Q5) All of the following are hallmark signs of the inflammatory process except A) a change in skin color.
B) a loss of sensation.
C) an increased temperature.
D) pain.
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Chapter 11: Early Intervention
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique(s) assist the therapist and family in integrating therapeutic objectives into the family's daily lives?
A) Intervention in the child's natural environment
B) Activity-based instruction
C) Use of catalogs and matrixes
D) All of the above
Q2) Evidence-based guidelines regarding motor prognosis for children with cerebral palsy are available.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To increase the likelihood of a young child achieving a functional task,
A) the intensity of physical therapy should be increased.
B) everyone should focus on just the motor goal.
C) intervention should be discipline specific.
D) everyone must help find opportunities for high-volume, task-specific practice.
Q4) Role release allows all therapists to complete the duties of all disciplines.
A)True
B)False
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Schools
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true except
A) An individual family service program must include family input.
B) Use of a least-restrictive environment encourages generalization.
C) Specific methodologies should be included in the IEP document.
D) Assistive technology may include electric wheelchairs.
E) Children with disabilities should be educated with children who do not have disabilities.
Q2) A written evaluation done in a school setting before an individualized education program meeting does not include
A) indications of the child's strengths.
B) results of standardized tests and measures.
C) goals and objectives.
D) evaluation of the examination.
Q3) List at least four themes/issues that should be included in "best" practice in transition.
Q4) In transition planning to postsecondary settings, it is common to use a technique called individualized backward planning. What is individualized backward planning?
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14
Chapter 13: Sports Settings for the School-Aged Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are the most common sports injuries noted in children?
A) Fractures, strains, heat stroke, and head trauma
B) Strains, ligamentous rupture, and sprains
C) Contusions, fractures, sprains, and strains
D) Contusions, heat exhaustion, and strains
Q2) Which factors should be monitored to assess hydration needs?
A) Humidity
B) Temperature
C) Age of athletes
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following characterizes the physiological structure of children?
A) Adult-size heart
B) Lower glycolytic capacity
C) Complete myelination of nervous system
D) Similar stroke volume
Q4) The purposes of the preparticipation screening include
A) identification of sports that can be played safely.
B) detection of conditions that predispose to injury or limit participation.
C) maturity assessment.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 14: Pediatric Acute Care Hospital
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Sample Questions
Q1) Used postoperatively at incision sites
A)Arterial line
B)Broviac
C)Chest tube
D)Endotracheal tube
E)Foley
F)Gastric tube
G)Jackson Pratt drain
Q2) Supports mechanical ventilation
A)Arterial line
B)Broviac
C)Chest tube
D)Endotracheal tube
E)Foley
F)Gastric tube
G)Jackson Pratt drain
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Neonatal Intensive Care Unit
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Sample Questions
Q1) Behavioral signs of stress in a neonate include
A) hyperalertness and apnea.
B) finger splays and gaze aversion.
C) decreased respiratory rate and bradycardia.
D) leg extension and increased blood pressure.
Q2) Physiological signs of stress in a neonate include
A) increased heart rate and skin color changes.
B) gaze aversion and leg extension.
C) increased respiration and oxygen saturation.
D) facial grimace and finger splays.
Q3) Which of the following can be a complication of premature birth that is often found in premature infants who have cerebral palsy?
A) Intraventicular hemorrhage
B) Periventricular leukomalacia
C) Microcephaly
D) Retinopathy of prematurity
Q4) Describe the behavioral state of "quiet alertness."
Q5) Name three neonatal methods of self-calming.
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Chapter 16: Rehabilitation Settings
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Q1) Pediatric rehabilitation is different from adult rehabilitation in that
A) there are no accrediting organizations to ensure safety and quality of care.
B) there are no standardized outcome measures for global independence in function.
C) caregivers require less training for discharge planning.
D) children often require a 1:1 staffing ratio during therapy sessions.
Q2) Discharge planning for a new patient entering the rehab unit should begin
A) the moment the child enters the rehabilitative setting.
B) when the child is reaching functional goals.
C) when the child is medically stable.
D) 1 week prior to expected discharge.
Q3) For a 7-year-old boy s/p posterior fossa tumor resection who is currently ambulating three steps in the parallel bars with maximal assistance of one, the following is the most appropriate goal for discharge from inpatient rehabilitation:
A) Ambulate 50 ft with a walker and moderate assistance
B) Ambulate 50 ft with a walker and contact guard assistance
C) Ambulate 50 ft independently without an assistive device
D) Run 50 ft independently without loss of balance
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Assistive Technology: Positioning and Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under the Technology Related Assistance Act and the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act, assistive technology includes any item, piece of equipment, or product system that is used to increase, maintain, or improve the functional capabilities of people with disabilities. These laws do not cover services to train either children or their caregivers and professionals involved in the use of that equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You are examining a 12-year-old with fixed deformities at the pelvis, trunk, and hips for a seating system. Which of the following supports would be most appropriate?
A) Firm, planar seat and custom contoured back support
B) Custom contoured seat and sling back support with knee blocks
C) Custom contoured seat and detachable lateral trunk supports on a planar back
D) Custom contoured seat and back support
E) Supine wedge for bed positioning, as the child should not be up in a wheelchair
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Chapter 18: Assistive Technology: Augmentative
Communication and Other Technologies
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Q1) Factors associated with successful long-term use of assistive technology include all of the following except
A) The level of detail included in the evaluation report written by the evaluation team
B) Child and family satisfaction
C) Continued maintenance of the device
D) Adequate training
Q2) For a child with serious limitations in activity, play can be facilitated with which of the following technologies?
A) Switches
B) Battery adaptors
C) Latch timers
D) Environmental control units
E) All of the above
Q3) Children who have literacy skills below a third-grade level can benefit from a communication device that is "text-to-speech."
A)True
B)False
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Cerebral Palsy
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Q1) The Peabody Developmental Motor Scales-2nd edition is an appropriate tool for assessing the level of motor development of a child with cerebral palsy who is
A) 3 years old.
B) 7 years old.
C) 13 years old.
D) 21 years old.
Q2) A 13-year-old child with spastic diplegic cerebral palsy has decreased dorsiflexion range of motion bilaterally. An appropriate activity to include in his home program to increase dorsiflexion range of motion is
A) passive range of motion of the ankle.
B) wear orthotics for at least 3 to 4 hrs daily.
C) strength training of the dorsiflexors.
D) heel lift exercises.
Q3) A child with cerebral palsy commonly presents with impairments of A) range of motion.
B) strength.
C) coordination.
D) soft tissue mobility.
E) All of the above
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Cystic Fibrosis
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Q1) Cystic fibrosis involves the exocrine mucous glands and typically affects the A) genitourinary tract.
B) pancreas.
C) sweat glands.
D) All of the above
Q2) You are examining a 2-month-old with cystic fibrosis. The family is meeting with you to learn postural drainage percussion and vibration (PDPV). You would teach them all the PDPV positions except
A) left side lying.
B) prone.
C) Trendelenberg.
D) right side lying.
Q3) The median predicted life expectancy for patients with cystic fibrosis is approximately
A) 18 years.
B) 28 years.
C) 38 years.
D) 48 years.
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22
Chapter 21: Down Syndrome
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Q1) There is evidence to suggest that the following intervention might be successful with infants with Down syndrome.
A) Constraint-induced movement therapy
B) Infant massage
C) Treadmill training
D) Therapy suit training
Q2) An individual with Down syndrome typically has ___muscle tone.
A) normal
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) rigid
Q3) Which of the following age-related changes are common for individuals with Down syndrome showing signs of dementia?
A) Hypotension
B) Weight loss
C) Hypotonia
D) All of the above
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Chapter 22: Leukemia
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Q1) Common physical therapy interventions for a child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia include
A) orthotics.
B) stretching exercises.
C) age-appropriate strengthening exercises.
D) age-appropriate gross motor developmental activities.
E) All of the above.
Q2) You have been asked to develop an exercise program for a child who has been admitted for a stem cell transplant. Appropriate exercise choices would include
A) wheelchair basketball.
B) resistive weight training.
C) a walking program.
D) All of the above
Q3) Intrathecal chemotherapy is administered directly into what area?
A) Muscle
B) Mouth
C) Vein
D) Cerebral spinal fluid
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24
Chapter 23: Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
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Q1) For boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, function can be maintained using all of the following interventions except
A) corticosteroids.
B) scoliosis surgery.
C) aggressive strengthening exercises.
D) knee-ankle-foot orthoses.
Q2) Ambulation can be prolonged for boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy through the use of knee-ankle-foot orthoses and contracture-release surgery, augmented by daily stretching, functional activities, and swimming.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Boys with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tend to use the Gowers' maneuver to rise from the floor because of weakness in
A) hip flexors, extensors, and abductors.
B) hip flexors and extensors, and knee extensors.
C) hip extensors, knee flexors, and extensors.
D) hip extensors and abductors and knee extensors.
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Chapter 24: Developmental Coordination Disorder
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Q1) A composite score on the Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency-2nd Edition that falls within 1 standard deviation below the mean is considered A) below average. B) average.
C) above average.
D) well below average.
Q2) A child who has developmental coordination disorder may frequently also have A) learning difficulties.
B) cerebral palsy.
C) pervasive development disorder.
D) a hearing impairment.
Q3) Interventions for children who have developmental coordination disorder are based on the top-down approach, which focuses on A) child and family goals.
B) impairments.
C) school goals and objectives.
D) activities of daily living.
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Chapter 25: Myelodysplasia
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Q1) Improved strength and aerobic capacity in obese children with spinal cord dysfunction or myelomeningocele was found after a 16-week
A) intervention program of nutrition and fitness.
B) wheelchair training program.
C) exercise program.
D) walking intervention program.
Q2) In the school environment, it is nice to have a translator available to interpret at the individualized education program meetings, but it is not required.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List five common complications of myelodysplasia.
Q4) Discuss what a child must learn when using a manual wheelchair in a natural school environment.
Q5) In the natural school environment, the physical therapist relies on the classroom staff to follow through with mobility and transfer activities on a daily basis for a child with a myelomeningocele.
A)True
B)False
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