Pediatric Pathophysiology Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Pathophysiology explores the mechanisms and manifestations of diseases that affect infants, children, and adolescents. This course examines how pathologic processes differ in pediatric populations compared to adults, focusing on the unique genetic, developmental, and physiological factors influencing disease onset, progression, and response to treatment in young patients. Topics include congenital disorders, inherited metabolic diseases, pediatric cancers, infectious diseases, and immunologic conditions, emphasizing how growth and developmental stages impact clinical presentation and outcomes. By integrating case studies and evidence-based research, students gain a comprehensive understanding of pediatric disease processes to inform clinical assessment and management.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 6th Edition by
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Page 2
Kathryn L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Active transport occurs across membranes that:
A)have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell.
B)are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules.
C)have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported.
D)have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic.
Answer: C
Q2) Packages and transports proteins
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Secretory vesicle
D)Lysosomes
Answer: A
Q3) Fuses with the plasma membrane to release contents from the cell
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Secretory vesicle
D)Lysosomes
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What, if any, is the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?
A)There is no difference. These terms may be used interchangeably.
B)A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs under the dura.
C)A subdural hematoma usually is formed from venous blood that collects slowly, whereas an epidural hematoma is formed from arterial blood that collects rapidly.
D)A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull such as an aneurysm eruption, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull such as a blunt force trauma.
Answer: C
Q2) What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
A)Coagulative necrosis
B)Liquefactive necrosis
C)Caseous necrosis
D)Gangrene necrosis
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confusion, irritability, depression, headache, seizures
A)Hyponatremia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypercalcemia
D)Hypokalemia
E)Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A
Q2) The calcium and phosphate balance is influenced by which three substances?
A)Parathyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin D
B)Parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin D
C)Thyroid hormone, vasopressin, and vitamin A
D)Thyroid hormone, calcitonin, and vitamin A
Answer: B
Q3) Movement of water from the ICF to the ECF is primarily accomplished by active transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of DNA polymerase in DNA replication?
A)This enzyme travels along the single DNA strand adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand.
B)This enzyme travels along the double strand of DNA to unwind the nucleotides of the double helix.
C)This enzyme holds the double strand apart while the correct nucleotides are added to the strand.
D)This enzyme transports the double strand of DNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein formation.
Q2) The purpose of a staining technique of chromosomes such as Giemsa is to:
A)allow the mitotic process to be followed and monitored for variations.
B)allow the numbering of chromosomes and identification of variations.
C)identify new somatic cells formed through mitosis and cytokinesis.
D)distinguish the sex chromosome from the homologous chromosomes.
Q3) Two X chromosomes and one Y chromosome
A)Down syndrome
B)Klinefelter syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)Cri du chat
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genes, Environment, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer, her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be.
A)2
B)3
C)6
D)10
Q2) Which genes are responsible for an autosomal dominant form of breast cancer?
A)LCAT genes
B)CHK1 and CHK2 genes
C)BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
D)TP53 and TP54 genes
Q3) The body weight of adopted children correlates significantly with the body weights of their adopted parents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Environmental modification can reduce risk for developing diseases that have a genetic and environmental component.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A role of NK cells is to:
A)initiate the complement cascade.
B)eliminate malignant cells.
C)bind tightly to antigens.
D)proliferate after immunization with antigen.
Q2) The main functions of natural killer (NK) cells are recognition and elimination of bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Microorganisms are killed and digested
A)Opsonization
B)Engulfment
C)Phagosome
D)Fusion
E)Destruction
Q4) TNF- is secreted from:
A)virally infected cells.
B)bacterial infected cells.
C)macrophages.
D)mast cells.
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) At birth, samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels, if any, are near adult levels?
A)None of the immunoglobulins
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgE
Q2) Is the first antibody produced during initial or primary response to an antigen
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
Q3) Mediates many common allergic responses
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
Q4) Increased age may cause which of these changes in lymphocyte function?
A)Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens
B)Decreased number of circulating T cells
C)Decreased production of autoantibodies
D)Increased production of helper T cells
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a type II hypersensitivity reaction, when mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, the erythrocytes are destroyed by:
A)complement-mediated cell lysis.
B)phagocytosis by macrophages.
C)phagocytosis in the spleen.
D)natural killer cells.
Q2) What is the mechanism in type II hypersensitivity reactions?
A)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.
B)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.
C)Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.
D)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.
Q3) Atopic individuals tend to produce higher levels of IgM.
A)True
B)False
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10
Chapter 9: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) One person with HIV cannot transmit the virus to others until HIV antibodies are detected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endotoxins are contained in the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vaccines against viruses are made from:
A)killed organisms or extracts of antigens.
B)live organisms weakened to produce antigens, which limits controllable infection.
C)purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified without loss of immunogenicity.
D)recombinant pathogenic protein.
Q4) An important factor in determining a pathogen's ability to produce disease by production of a soluble toxin
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increases gastric secretions
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q2) The effect that low serum albumin has on the central stress response is to:
A)impair circulation of epinephrine and norepinephrine.
B)impair wound healing.
C)lessen circulation of cortisol.
D)diminish oncotic pressure.
Q3) What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?
A)Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells
B)Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells
C)Depression of B cells and T cells
D)Enhancement of B cells and T cells
Q4) "Flight or fight" occurs in the exhaustion stage in the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Buccal area
A)Pressure
B)Stretching
C)Obstruction
D)Tissue destruction
Q2) Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized.This is an example of:
A)dysplasia.
B)hyperplasia.
C)myoplasia.
D)anaplasia.
Q3) The major virus involved in cervical cancer is:
A)herpes simplex virus type 6.
B)herpes simplex virus type 2.
C)human papillomavirus.
D)human immunodeficiency virus.
Q4) For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost, only one chromosome (allele) of the gene must be inactivated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diagnostic tests provides the greatest exposure to ionizing radiation?
A)A four-view mammogram
B)A whole body DEXA scan
C)A CT scan of the abdomen
D)A PET scan of the brain
Q2) Research data support the relationship between ultraviolet sunlight exposure and the development of:
A)basal cell carcinoma.
B)squamous cell carcinoma.
C)melanoma.
D)non-Hodgkin lymphoma.
E)soft tissue sarcoma.
Q3) Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, breast, uterus, and kidney?
A)Women older than 45 years of age
B)Women who never had children
C)Women who had a high body mass index
D)Woman who smoked for more than 10 years
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are research data to support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to the _____ virus.
A)herpes simplex
B)influenza
C)varicella
D)Epstein-Barr
Q2) Leukemia is the most common malignancy in children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Childhood exposure to all of the following risk factors increases susceptibility to cancer except:
A)drugs.
B)ionizing radiation.
C)cigarette smoke.
D)viruses.
Q4) Cancer is the leading cause of death in children.
A)True
B)False
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is the membrane that separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum.
A)tentorium cerebelli
B)falx cerebri
C)arachnoid membrane
D)falx cerebelli
Q2) Chemical synapses between neurons can send messages in both directions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following transmit a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
A)Large nonmyelinated axons
B)Large myelinated axons
C)Small nonmyelinated axons
D)Small myelinated axons
Q4) What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral states?
A)Hypothalamus and subthalamus
B)Parietal and frontal lobes
C)Limbic system and prefrontal cortex
D)Basal ganglia
16
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Persistent chronic pain produces a physiologic response similar to that of acute pain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heat exhaustion is more serious than heat stroke.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What are expected changes in sleep patterns of older adults?
A)They experience frequent awakenings during the night with less time spent in stage IV sleep.
B)They experience sound sleep during the night with about 50% of the time spent in REM sleep and dreaming.
C)Commonly, they experience nocturia, which interrupts sleep and requires them to nap during the day.
D)They awaken often, but with rapid return to sleep; they often have difficulty awakening in the morning.
Q4) Fever is a normal adaptive response to cytokines.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brain death has occurred when there is no discernible evidence of cerebral hemisphere function or function of the brainstem's vital centers for 1 to 6 hours.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is the most critical index of nervous system dysfunction?
A)Size and reactivity of pupils
B)Pattern of breathing
C)Motor response
D)Level of consciousness
Q3) What are the areas of the brain that mediate several cognitive functions, including vigilance, reasoning, and executive functions?
A)Limbic
B)Prefrontal
C)Parietal
D)Occipital
Q4) In 66% of cases, the etiology of epilepsy is not identified.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myasthenia gravis:
A)is an acute autoimmune disease.
B)affects the nerve roots.
C)may result in adrenergic crisis.
D)causes muscle weakness.
Q2) Meningiomas characteristically compress:
A)from within neural tissues.
B)spinal nerve roots.
C)from outside the spinal cord.
D)from the subarachnoid space.
Q3) Cryptococcus neoformans
A)Complication of mastoiditis
B)Opportunistic infection
C)CNS manifestation of tuberculosis
D)Mosquito-borne viral infection
E)Tick-borne bacterial infection
Q4) Caused most commonly by motor vehicle accidents
A)Contusion
B)Extradural hematoma
C)Subdural hematoma
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characterized by a deficit in spontaneous or goal-directed activities
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
Q2) What is thought to be the alteration produced by electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) when treating individuals with depression?
A)It produces an alteration in the monoamine systems.
B)It produces an alteration in serotonin.
C)It produces an alteration in norepinephrine.
D)It produces an alteration in the limbic system.
Q3) Characterized by elevated levels of euphoria
A)Schizophrenia
B)Mania
C)Depression
D)Panic disorder
E)Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prompt surgical repair of a myelomeningocele is critical in the prevention of:
A)infection.
B)paternal abandonment.
C)mental retardation.
D)additional nervous system damage.
Q2) Seizures and seizure patterns may change as the child grows and develops.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disorientation, aggressiveness, hyperactive reflexes
A)Reye syndrome, stage I
B)Reye syndrome, stage II
C)Reye syndrome, stage III
D)Reye syndrome, stage IV
E)Reye syndrome, stage V
Q4) Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal dominant disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Children with Tay-Sachs disease usually die between ages 2 and 5 years.
A)True
B)False
21
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which mineral is needed for the synthesis of thyroid hormones?
A)Iron
B)Zinc
C)Iodide
D)Copper
Q2) Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?
A)Angiotensin II
B)Thyroxine
C)Estrogen
D)Testosterone
Q3) Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?
A)Thyroxine
B)Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
C)Growth hormone (GH)
D)Insulin
Q4) Aldosterone synthesis and secretion are primarily regulated by the: A)liver.
B)renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
C)adrenal glands.
D)hypothalamus.
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone all exhibit which of the following symptoms?
A)Polyuria
B)Edema
C)Vomiting
D)Thirst
Q2) Palpation of the neck of a person with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is:
A)left of midline.
B)small with discrete nodules.
C)normal in size.
D)enlarged diffusely.
Q3) Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteopenia are each caused by a:
A)posterior pituitary adenoma.
B)thymoma.
C)prolactinoma.
D)growth hormone adenoma.
Q4) Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Biopsy
A)Cytologic exam
B)Antigen-antibody reaction
C)Hormonal assay
D)Tissue sampling
E)Microbe identification
Q2) Estrogen is needed for the closure of long bones after the growth spurt in puberty.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ is the point at which the:
A)squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
B)columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
C)squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
D)columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.
Q4) The vaginal wall does not contain mucus-secreting glands.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tumor-related gene or protein is an oncogene that transmits a growth signal to the nucleus to stimulate tumor growth?
A)Her-2/neu
B)Bcl-2
C)TP53
D)C-myc
Q2) The pathogenesis of polycystic ovarian syndrome is described as:
A)a decrease in leptin levels that reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature.
B)a disorder in the anterior pituitary that increases the follicle-stimulating hormone, which reduces the luteinizing hormone released.
C)excessive androgens that affect follicular decline by suppressing apoptosis, enabling follicles, which normally disintegrate to survive.
D)testosterone that stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and reduces sex hormone-binding globulin indirectly.
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The treatment of genital warts includes:
A)topical application of 5-FU.
B)topical application of acyclovir.
C)systemic penicillin.
D)systemic tetracycline.
Q2) Which statement is false about the factors that facilitate the ascent of gonococci into the uterus and fallopian tubes?
A)Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the cervical plug disintegrates during menstruation.
B)Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3.
C)Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the uterine contractions may cause retrograde menstruation into the fallopian tubes.
D)Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the bacteria may adhere to sperm and be transported to the fallopian tubes.
Q3) There have been no recent sexually transmitted disease epidemics.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mature erythrocytes are removed from the bloodstream by the: A)liver.
B)lymph nodes.
C)thymus.
D)spleen.
Q2) Fetal hematopoiesis occurs in the: A)gut.
B)spleen.
C)bone marrow.
D)thymus.
Q3) The role of thromboxane A (TXA ) in the secretion stage of hemostasis is to: A)stimulate the synthesis of serotonin.
B)promote vasodilation.
C)stimulate platelet aggregation.
D)promote formation of cyclooxygenase.
Q4) Once activated, the clotting cascade is immediately controlled by counteracting anticoagulants.
A)True
B)False
27
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?
A)Folic acid
B)Hemolytic
C)Iron deficiency
D)Pernicious
Q2) Atrophy of gastric mucosal cells results in pernicious anemia because of:
A)erythrocyte destruction.
B)folic acid malabsorption.
C)vitamin B malabsorption.
D)poor nutritional intake.
Q3) Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of:
A)brain hypoxia.
B)liver hypoxia.
C)heart failure.
D)renal failure.
Q4) Anemia of chronic disease (ACD) is initially a normochromic and normocytic anemia, but as the condition progresses, it becomes hypochromic and microcytic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The two major forms of leukemia, acute and chronic, are classified by a predominant cell type and the rate at which the affected person develops clinical symptoms.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect?
A)IgE
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgA
Q3) Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
A)Epstein-Barr virus
B)Bence Jones protein
C)Diagnosed by the Reed-Sternberg (RS) cell
D)Diagnosed by the Philadelphia chromosome
Q4) Which electrolyte imbalance accompanies multiple myeloma (MM)?
A)Hyperkalemia
B)Hypercalcemia
C)Hyperphosphatemia
D)Hypernatremia
Chapter 28: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Q1) HDN can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Occurs in association with certain drugs or infection
A)Vaso-occlusive crisis
B)Aplastic crisis
C)Sequestration crisis
D)Hyperhemolytic crisis
Q3) Rh incompatibility occurs in less than 10% of pregnancies and rarely causes hemolytic disease of the newborn in the first incompatible fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency.
A)V
B)VIII
C)IX
D)X
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Chapter 29: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) Which of the following events occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?
A)Repolarization when potassium moves out of the cells
B)Repolarization when sodium rapidly enters into cells
C)Early repolarization when sodium slowly enters cells
D)Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells
Q2) Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle
A)a wave
B)v wave
C)c wave
D)x descent
E)y descent
Q3) Which of the following can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node?
A)Parasympathetic nervous system
B)Catecholamines
C)Vagal stimulation
D)Sinoatrial node (SA)
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by:
A)causing ischemia of the intima.
B)increasing nitric oxide.
C)eroding the vessel wall.
D)obstructing the vessel.
Q2) Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?
A)Inflammatory cardiomyopathy
B)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C)Dilated cardiomyopathy
D)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Q4) What pathologic change occurs to the kidney's glomeruli as a result of hypertension?
A)Compression of the renal tubules
B)Ischemia of the tubule
C)Increased pressure from within the tubule
D)Obstruction of the renal tubule To view all questions and flashcards with answers,
Chapter 31: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32194
Sample Questions
Q1) Acquired heart disease is the most common cardiovascular disease in children.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is likely to present:
A)an intermittent murmur.
B)asymptomatically.
C)a need for surgical repair.
D)with a triad of congenital defects.
Q3) Ostium primum
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Q4) Complete transposition of the great vessels is a congenital heart defect in which the left ventricle pumps blood to the pulmonary circulation.
A)True
B)False
33
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32195
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypoventilation that results in the retention carbon dioxide will stimulate which of the following receptors in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state?
A)Irritant receptors
B)Central chemoreceptors
C)Peripheral chemoreceptors
D)Stretch receptors
Q2) Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
A)Trachea
B)Segmental bronchi
C)Alveolocapillary membrane
D)Main bronchus
Q3) Hering-Breuer expiratory reflex
A)Irritant receptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
E)Central chemoreceptors
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include:
A)systemic blood pressure greater than 130/90.
B)productive cough and rhonchi bilaterally.
C)dyspnea on exertion and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
D)peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.
Q2) Aspiration
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Lung tissue collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q3) Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted from person to person through airborne droplets.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pneumoconiosis is a pneumonia caused by pneumococci.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is best described as a(n):
A)obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation.
B)pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.
C)respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens.
D)pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency.
Q2) What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?
A)An immature immune system
B)Small alveoli
C)A surfactant deficiency
D)Anemia
Q3) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infects nearly 100% of children in the United States by 2 or 3 years of age.
A)True
B)False
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36
Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32198
Sample Questions
Q1) The best estimate of functioning renal tissue is:
A)glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
B)hourly urine output.
C)serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine.
D)the specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine.
Q2) Kidneys hypertrophy throughout life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Urodilatin:
A)inhibits sodium chloride and water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
B)inhibits antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to prevent water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
C)is stimulated by a rise in blood pressure and an increase in extracellular volume.
D)is stimulated by a fall in blood pressure and a decrease in extracellular volume.
Q4) Renal blood vessels are innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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43 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32199
Sample Questions
Q1) Complications of urinary obstruction include infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Movement of organisms from the urethra into the bladder with infection and retrograde spread to the kidney
A)Kidney stones
B)Vesicoureteral reflux
C)Pregnancy
D)Neurogenic bladder
E)Female sexual trauma
Q3) Smoking is a risk factor for bladder and kidney cancers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which urine characteristics below are indicative of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) caused by intrinsic (intrarenal) failure?
A)Urine sodium >30 mEq/L
B)Urine osmolality >500 mOsm
C)Fraction excretion of sodium (FENa) <1%
D)Urine sediment has no cells, some hyaline casts
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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35 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine formation and excretion do not begin until the eighth month of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organic causes of enuresis are the most common.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following represents the final stage in the embryonic development of the kidney?
A)Metanephros
B)Mesonephros
C)Pronephros
D)Endonephros
Q4) Urine formation and excretion begin at:
A)birth.
B)the third month of gestation.
C)the sixth month of gestation.
D)the ninth month of gestation.
Q5) The number of nephrons in the kidneys increases from birth until puberty. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32201
Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulates pancreas to secrete alkaline pancreatic juice
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the characteristics of vitamin B ?
A)Normally the liver can store vitamin B for years.
B)Vitamin B attaches to the carrier protein transcobalamin and is transported into tissue.
C)Vitamin B is necessary for platelet maturation.
D)Vitamin B binds to intrinsic factor and is absorbed in the terminal ileum.
Q3) Which water-soluble vitamin is absorbed by passive diffusion?
A)Vitamin B
B)Vitamin B
C)Vitamin C
D)Folic acid
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Digestive Function
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54 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis D virus (HDV) occurs in individuals with hepatitis B.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy?
A)End products of intestinal protein digestion
B)Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices
C)Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids attaches to ammonia
D)Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon
Q3) Chronic gastritis tends to occur in older adults and causes thinning and degeneration of the stomach wall.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endoscopy and biopsy may show long-standing inflammatory process and gastric atrophy indicating chronic gastritis in an individual with no history of abdominal distress.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incomplete fusion of the nasomedial or intermaxillary process during the fourth week of embryonic development causes:
A)cleft palate.
B)sinus dysfunction.
C)cleft lip.
D)esophageal malformation.
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by an increase in the percentages in T cells and complement together with IgA and IgM antigliadin antibodies found in jejunum fluid?
A)Wilson disease
B)Cystic fibrosis
C)Gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)
D)Galactosemia
Q3) Celiac sprue
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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48 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synovial fluid consists of chondrocytes (cartilage cells), intercellular matrix, protein polysaccharides, and water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The movement of synovial fluid through cartilage is controlled by the pumping movement of:
A)cartiloregulins.
B)hyaluronate.
C)proteoglycans.
D)chondroitin.
Q3) When bone is "resorbed" during the process of growth and repair the original bone: A)is replaced.
B)hardens.
C)is removed.
D)is synthesized.
Q4) In adults, hematopoiesis takes place exclusively in the long bones of the extremities.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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55 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of toxic myopathy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In ankylosing spondylitis, the CD8<sup>+</sup> T cells are presented with which of the following antigens?
A)Synovium
B)Cartilage
C)Tendons
D)Ligaments
Q3) After prolonged muscle compression, which pathophysiologic alteration precedes crush syndrome?
A)Muscle ischemia
B)Myoglobinuria
C)Volkmann contracture
D)Neural injury
Q4) People with gout are at high risk for:
A)renal calculi.
B)joint trauma.
C)anemia.
D)hearing loss.
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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40 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which skeletal deformity is normal at birth, but disappears by age 2 1/2 years?
A)Genu varum (bowleg)
B)Genu valgum (knock knee)
C)Equinovarus (clubfoot)
D)Pes planus (flat feet)
Q2) Osteosarcomas usually metastasize to the:
A)pancreas.
B)liver.
C)lungs.
D)brain.
Q3) Often called benign Duchenne muscular dystrophy because it shares the inheritance link, but produces milder symptoms
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
C)Scapuloperoneal muscular dystrophy
D)Myotonic dystrophy
E)Becker muscular dystrophy
Q4) Staphylococcus aureus may cause osteomyelitis in newborns and older children.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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54 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32207
Sample Questions
Q1) Women who develop hirsutism may be secreting hormones associated with:
A)posterior pituitary adenoma.
B)Cushing disease.
C)polycystic ovaries.
D)Addison disease.
Q2) A furuncle may be a folliculitis that has spread through the follicular wall to the dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the term for the skin lesions that are elevated, rounded, and firm with irregular claw-like margins that extend beyond the original site of injury?
A)Psoriasis
B)Dermatitis
C)Acne
D)Keloid
Q4) The initiating site of inflammation in vasculitis may be blood, vessel wall, or adjacent tissue.
A)True
B)False
Chapter 45: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?
A)Pediculosis
B)Tinea capitis
C)Scabies
D)Rubeola
Q2) Pregnant women who contract rubella during the first trimester may have a fetus with congenital defects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which skin disorder is characterized by a vesicular eruption after prolonged exposure to perspiration, with subsequent obstruction of the eccrine ducts?
A)Scabies
B)Tinea corporis
C)Pediculosis
D)Miliaria
Q4) Koplik spots are characteristic of rubella.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and
Burns in Adult
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44 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32209
Sample Questions
Q1) A clinical syndrome involving a systemic response to infection, which is manifested by two or more of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria is the definition of:
A)bacteremia.
B)sepsis.
C)severe sepsis. D)septic shock.
Q2) The cause of organ failure in shock is depletion of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blistering of the skin occurs in _____ burns.
A)first-degree
B)superficial second-degree
C)deep second-degree
D)third-degree
Q4) The gastrointestinal system is very sensitive to inflammatory injury resulting from mediators released by macrophages.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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36 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32210
Sample Questions
Q1) In cardiogenic shock, hepatomegaly and periorbital edema occur because:
A)there is mass vasodilation due to chemical mediators released from the myocardium.
B)there is low cardiac output causing a high central venous pressure.
C)the tissue damage to the myocardium causes increased capillary permeability. D)low perfusion of the kidneys has stimulated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to retain sodium and water.
Q2) Excessive skin blood flow may be present in _____ shock.
A)hemorrhagic
B)septic
C)compensated
D)cardiogenic
Q3) The most common type of shock in children is:
A)hypovolemic.
B)cardiogenic.
C)neurogenic.
D)septic.
Q4) Hypotension is a late sign of shock in children.
A)True
B)False
Page 49
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