Pediatric Pathophysiology Exam
Materials
Course Introduction
Pediatric Pathophysiology explores the mechanisms of disease processes unique to infants, children, and adolescents, emphasizing how developmental differences influence the onset, progression, and clinical manifestations of illness in the pediatric population. The course covers genetic, congenital, infectious, and acquired disorders, examining disruptions in major organ systems and their pathologic consequences. Students will analyze the interplay between growth and disease, host responses, and environmental factors, preparing them to apply foundational knowledge to the assessment, diagnosis, and management of pediatric health conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults And Children 5th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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47 Chapters
2350 Verified Questions
2350 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fuses with the plasma membrane to release contents from the cell
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Golgi complex
D)Secretory vesicle
E)Lysosomes
Answer: D
Q2) The chief function of ribosomes is to provide sites for lipid synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) What is the name of the method of transport that uses transmembrane proteins with receptors that have a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported?
A) Active transport
B) Mediated transport
C) Transmembranous transport
D) Passive transport
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
A) Acoustic trauma and noise-induced
B) High-frequency and low-frequency
C) High-frequency and acoustic trauma
D) Noise-induced and low-frequency
Answer: A
Q2) During cell injury caused by hypoxia,why do sodium and water move into the cell?
A) Because potassium moves out of the cell,and potassium and sodium are inversely related
B) Because the pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decreased in ATP
C) Because the osmotic pressure is increased,which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane
D) Because oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell
Answer: B
Q3) Hypertrophy and hyperplasia rarely occur together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acts as an intracellular and extracellular anion buffer
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: E
Q2) Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign indicate:
A) hypokalemiA.
B) hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia.
D) hypercalcemia.
Answer: C
Q3) Confusion,irritability,depression,headache,seizures
A)Hyponatremia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypercalcemia
D)Hypokalemia
E)Hypomagnesemia
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Single X chromosome with no homologous X or Y chromosome
A)Down Syndrome
B)Fragile X syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)Turner syndrome
E)Cri du chat
Q2) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)directs the synthesis of all of the body's proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) DNA formation and protein synthesis occur in the cell nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) RNA polymerase is the most important protein in DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
A) Paternal nondisjunction
B) Maternal translocations
C) Maternal nondisjunction
D) Paternal translocation
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does obesity act as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) By reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces
B) By increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
C) By obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas
D) By stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
Q2) Studies have identified several genes that play what role in obesity?
A) Regulating appetite
B) Metabolizing fat
C) Absorbing fat
D) Altering satiety
Q3) If a woman has one first-degree relative with breast cancer,her risk of developing breast cancer is _____ times what it would otherwise be.
A) two
B) three
C) six
D) ten
Q4) Breast cancer manifests in familial patterns.
A)True
B)False
7
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity Including Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perspiration
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria
Q2) Saliva
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria
Q3) What is the role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing?
A) To generate new capillaries from vascular endothelial cells around the wound
B) To establish connections between neighboring cells and contract their fibers
C) To synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins
D) To provide enzymes that debride the wound bed of dead cells
Q4) What is a purpose of the inflammatory process?
A) To provide specific responses toward antigens
B) To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms
C) To prevent infection of the injured tissue
D) To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury
Q5) Sebaceous glands
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) At birth,samples of blood from the umbilical cord indicate which immunoglobulin levels,if any,are near adult levels?
A) None of the immunoglobulins are near adult level.
B) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
C) Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
D) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
Q2) Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host's own tissues against an autoimmune response?
A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Helper 1 (Th1)cells
C) Helper 2 (Th2)cells
D) Regulatory T (Treg)cells
Q3) Develop into helper T cells
A)CD 4 cells
B)CD 8 cells
Q4) Recognize antigens presented by MHC II molecules
A)CD 4 cells
B)CD 8 cells
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
Including Hypersensitivies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is:
A) IgA.
B) IgE.
C) IgG.
D) IgM.
Q2) What mechanism occurs in Raynaud phenomenon that classify it as a type III hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Immune complexes are deposited in capillary beds blocking circulation.
B) Mast cells bind to specific endothelial receptors that cause them to degranulate creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation.
C) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues.
D) Antibodies detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species.
Q3) Atopic individuals tend to produce higher levels of IgM.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Infection Including Hivaids
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which microorganisms is the skin the site of reproduction?
A) Viruses
B) Bacteria and fungi
C) Protozoa and rickettsiae
D) Mycoplasma
Q2) Cytokines are thought to raise the thermoregulatory set point to cause fever by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?
A) Leukotriene
B) Histamine
C) Prostaglandin
D) Bradykinin
Q3) Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Use metabolism of hosts cells to proliferate
A)Bacteria
B)Viruses
C)Mycoses
D)Dermatophytes
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ (gland)regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity.
A) anterior pituitary
B) adrenal
C) basal ganglia
D) pineal
Q2) Increases gastric secretions
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
Q3) Perceived stress elicits an emotional,anticipatory response that begins in the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) anterior pituitary.
C) limbic system.
D) hypothalamus.
Q4) Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
A) B cells and eosinophils
B) Cytokines and neutrophils
C) Cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells
D) Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells
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Chapter 11: Biology of Cancer
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are tumor cell markers used?
A) To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer
B) To treat certain types of cancer
C) To predict where cancers will develop
D) To screen individuals at high risk for cancer
Q2) There appears to be no relation between the incidence of melanoma and age at the time of exposure to excessive UV radiation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For the function of tumor suppressor genes to be lost,only one chromosome (allele)of the gene must be inactivated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term "neoplasm" can refer to a benign tumor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A hallmark of cancer cells is their immortality.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Tumor Invasion and Metastasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small bowel
A)Pressure
B)Compression
C)Stretching
D)Obstruction
E)Tissue destruction
Q2) Which cytokine is involved in producing cachexia syndrome?
A) Interleukin 1 (Il-1)
B) Colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
C) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
D) Interleukin 15 (Il-15)
Q3) Cancer cells adhere to one another better than normal cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When patients who have lung cancer develop Cushing syndrome it is an example of a(n)_____ syndrome.
A) aberrant
B) paraneoplastic
C) carcinogenic
D) idiopathetic
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations of proto-oncogenes into oncogenes have been identified with pediatric lymphoma and leukemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most childhood cancers arise from the:
A) epithelium.
B) mesodermal germ layer.
C) embryologic ectodermal layer.
D) viscera.
Q3) What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A) 48%
B) 58%
C) 68%
D) 78%
Q4) There is a carcinogenic relationship between Hodgkin disease and the:
A) herpes simplex virus.
B) human immunodeficiency virus.
C) varicella virus.
D) Epstein-Barr virus.
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Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ has two main functions: maintenance of a constant internal environment and implementation of behavioral patterns.
A) thalamus
B) epithalamus
C) subthalamus
D) hypothalamus
Q2) Trigeminal nerve
A)Innervates muscles that move the eye downward and inward
B)Has both motor and sensory functions to face,mouth,nose,and eyes
C)Carries motor functions to tongue and sensory impulses from tongue to brain
D)Controls size,shape,and equality of pupils
E)Causes motor functions to pharynx and salivary glands and sensory functions from pharynx and tongue
F)Innervated muscles that move the eye laterally
G)Carries sensory and motor action to the tongue
H)Carries impulse for sense of smell
I)Carries motor and sensory fibers of abdominal organs
J)Transmits impulses for sense of hearing
K)Carries sensory and motor fibers to pharynx and larynx
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) During heat stroke,sweat production on the face is maintained even during dehydration to cool blood in the cerebral arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Early treatment of fever is important since fever has no therapeutic benefit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Scotoma
A)Loss of ability to smell
B)Perversion of sense of taste
C)Smelling nonexistent odors
D)Defective vision in half of a visual field
E)Defect in central field of vision
F)Involuntary movement of eyeballs
Q4) _____ pain is a warning of actual or impending tissue injury.
A) Chronic
B) Psychogenic
C) Acute
D) Phantom
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Chapter 16: Concepts of Neurologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tonic phase of a generalized seizure is characterized by alternating contractions and relaxation of muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most critical aspect in diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
A) computed tomography (CT)scan.
B) cerebrospinal fluid analysis.
C) skull x-ray films.
D) health history.
Q3) Upper motor neuron disorders
A)Paroxysmal dyskinesia
B)Flaccidity
C)Wernicke disease
D)Spasticity
E)Akinesia
F)Broca area
Q4) Vegetative state is another term for locked-in syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiculopathies are disorders of the roots of spinal nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient begins having problems with tiredness,weakness,and visual changes.Her diagnosis is multiple sclerosis (MS).Which is the best description of MS?
A) It is a central nervous system demyelination,possibly from an immunogenetic virus.
B) It is an inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder.
C) It is a depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system as a result of a virus.
D) It is a degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors.
Q3) May be acute or chronic accumulation of venous blood
A)Concussion
B)Contusion
C)Extradural hematoma
D)Subdural hematoma
E)Intracerebral hematoma
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fluent speech that is difficult to comprehend
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
Q2) Which neurotransmitter receptors are blocked by antipsychotic drugs?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)
C) Serotonin
D) Dopamine
Q3) Prenatal and perinatal factors that result in the onset of schizophrenia include:
A) viral infection.
B) maternal depression.
C) maternal smoking.
D) exposure to toxic waste.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial meningitis in children with otitis media generally follows bacteremia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) True microcephaly can be caused by an _____ gene.
A) autosomal dominant
B) autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Q3) Children with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy commonly have normal neurologic examinations,normal intelligence,and positive family history of seizures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin C
C) Zinc
D) Folate
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hormone or electrolyte imbalance slows down the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone?
A) Increased serum calcium levels
B) Decreased serum calcium levels
C) Decreased levels of TSH
D) Increased levels of TSH
Q2) Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?
A) Increased triiodothyronine (T<sub>3</sub>)
B) Increased thyroxine (T<sub>4</sub>)
C) Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
D) Increased calcitonin
Q3) Antidiuretic hormone has no direct effect on electrolyte levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located:
A) inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm.
B) on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
C) inside the mitochondria.
D) on the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
A) Pituitary hyposecretion
B) Parathyroid adenoma
C) Parathyroid gland damage
D) Autoimmune parathyroid disease
Q2) How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?
A) The tumor metastasizes to the thyroid and adrenal glands through the lymphatic system causing reduce secretion of necessary hormones.
B) The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells,which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.
C) The tumor invades the hypothalamus adjacent to it and causes a reduction in the amount of hormones produced.
D) The tumor releases tumor markers that occupy the hormone receptor sites of other endocrine organs.
Q3) Why does polyuria occur with diabetes mellitus?
A) Because of formation of ketones
B) Because of insulin resistance
C) Because of an elevated serum glucose
D) Because of an increase in antidiuretic hormone
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Production of sperm begins during fetal life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for arteriolar constriction necessary for penile erections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major difference between male and female sex hormone production is:
A) LH has no apparent action in the male.
B) in the male,sex hormone production is relatively constant.
C) estradiol is not produced in the male.
D) in the male,GnRH does not cause the release of FSH.
Q4) Prolactin helps maintain biosynthesis of testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) At puberty the uterus descends from the abdomen to the lower pelvis between the bladder and rectum.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
A) Heterosexual
B) Incomplete
C) Isosexual
D) Homosexual
Q2) Which are clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?
A) Firm,nontender testicular mass
B) Painful,mobile,firm testicular mass
C) Painful fluid-filled testicular mass
D) Soft,nontender testicular mass
Q3) How does the epididymis become infected?
A) The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vas deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
B) The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
C) The pathogenic microorganisms from the tunica vaginalis are transported to the epididymis.
D) The pathogenic microorganism from the prostate fluid ascend to the epididymis
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is false about the factors that facilitate the ascent of gonococci into the uterus and fallopian tubes?
A) Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the cervical plug disintegrates during menstruation.
B) Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3.
C) Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the uterine contractions may cause retrograde menstruation into the fallopian tubes.
D) Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the bacteria may adhere to sperm and be transported to the fallopian tubes.
Q2) Sexually transmitted infections are seen in all socioeconomic classes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Entamoeba histolytica
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Bacterial vaginosis
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the life span of platelets?
A) 10 days
B) 30 days
C) 90 days
D) 120 days
Q2) Which characteristic of albumin is false?
A) Albumin retains sodium to maintain water balance.
B) Albumin provides colloid osmotic pressure.
C) Albumin is synthesized in the liver.
D) Albumin is a carrier for calcium and some drugs.
Q3) What is the role of nitric oxide (NO)in hemostasis?
A) Nitric oxide (NO)stimulates the release of fibrinogen to maintain the platelet plug.
B) Nitric oxide (NO)stimulates the release of clotting factors V and VII.
C) Nitric oxide (NO)causes vasoconstriction and stimulates platelet aggregation.
D) Nitric oxide (NO)causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation.
Q4) Erythrocytes and platelets lack cell nuclei.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurologic symptoms in vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency anemia are not reversed even with appropriate treatment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person with sideroblastic anemia would be likely to have _____ plasma levels of iron.
A) high
B) low
C) normal
D) absent
Q3) Folate deficiency anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q4) Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal,usually because of:
A) brain hypoxiA.
B) liver hypoxia.
C) heart failure.
D) renal failure.
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Chapter 27: Alterations in Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia B is caused by clotting factor _____ deficiency.
A) V
B) VIII
C) IX
D) X
Q2) Which blood cells are elevated at birth,but decrease to adult levels the first year of life?
A) Monocytes
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Lymphocytes
Q3) Occurs in association with certain drugs or infection
A)Vaso-occlusive crisis
B)Aplastic crisis
C)Sequestration crisis
D)Hyperhemolytic crisis
Q4) Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur only if antigens on fetal erythrocytes differ from antigens on maternal erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated.
A) refractory period
B) hyperpolarization period
C) threshold period
D) SA period
Q2) The resting heart in a healthy person is primarily under the control of the _____ nervous system.
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) somatic
D) spinal
Q3) Which statement is false about the way in which substances pass from capillaries and the interstitial fluid?
A) Substances pass through junctions between endothelial cells.
B) Substances pass through pores or oval windows.
C) Substances pass through vesicles by active transport across the endothelial cell membrane.
D) Substances pass through by osmosis across the endothelial cell membrane.
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) What is the effect of oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDL)in atherosclerosis?
A) It causes smooth muscle proliferation.
B) It causes regression of atherosclerotic plaques.
C) It increases levels of inflammatory cytokines.
D) It directs macrophages to the site within the endothelium.
Q2) _____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium,such as amyloidosis,hemochromatosis,or glycogen storage disease.
A) Infiltrative
B) Restrictive
C) Septal
D) Hypertrophic
Q3) Usually caused by infiltrative disease,such as amyloidosis
A)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C)Dilated cardiomyopathy
Q4) In high output failure,the heart increases its output,but the body's metabolic needs are still not met.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Q1) Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection click at the upper left sternal border with a thrill palpated at the upper left sternal border?
A) Coarctation of the aorta
B) Pulmonic stenosis
C) Aortic stenosis
D) Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Q2) Which of the following is consistent with the cardiac defect of transposition of the great vessels?
A) The aorta arises from the right ventricle.
B) The pulmonary trunk arises from the right ventricle.
C) The right ventricle pumps blood to the lungs.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Classic manifestations of epistaxis,cyanosis of the lower extremities,and decreased or absent femoral pulse are indicative of which congenital defect?
A) Tetralogy of Fallot
B) Aortic stenosis
C) Ventricular septum defect
D) Postductal aortic coarctation
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Q1) Which datum is used to assess the adequacy of a patient's alveolar ventilation?
A) Ventilatory rate
B) Ventilatory pattern
C) Respiratory effort
D) Arterial blood gas
Q2) How is most carbon dioxide carried in the blood?
A) Attached to oxygen
B) In the form of bicarbonate
C) Combined with albumin
D) Dissolved in the plasma
Q3) Which endogenous substance causes bronchoconstriction?
A) Epinephrine and acetylcholine
B) Histamine and prostaglandin
C) Bradykinin and thromboxane A
D) Leukotrienes and prostacyclin
Q4) Pressure in the pleural space is:
A) atmospheric.
B) below atmospheric.
C) above atmospheric.
D) variable.
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Q1) Persons with an I-antiprotease deficiency are predisposed to asthma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which bacteria become embedded in the airway secretions in chronic bronchitis?
A) Legionella pneumophila and Chlamydia pneumoniae
B) Klebsiella pneumoniae and Pneumocystis jirovici
C) Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus
Q3) High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through:
A) shunting.
B) hypoventilation.
C) decreased inspired oxygen.
D) diffusion abnormalities.
Q4) Pneumothorax
A)Accumulation of air in pleural space
B)Pus in the pleural space
C)Accumulation of fluid in the pleural space
D)Inflammation of the pleura
E)Result of rib or sternal fractures
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ring of smooth muscle,the ureteral sphincter,surrounds the ureters where they enter the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which cells have contractile and phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and produce vasoactive substances that influence the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A) Principle cells
B) Podocin cells
C) Mesangial cells
D) Intercalated cells
Q3) What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow,glomerular filtration,and renin secretion?
A) Macula densa
B) Visceral epithelium
C) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
D) Filtration slits
Q4) The kidney has endocrine functions.
A)True
B)False
35
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Q1) Considering the innervation of the circular muscles of the bladder neck,which classification of drug is used to treat bladder neck obstruction?
A) -adrenergic blocking medications
B) -adrenergic blocking medications
C) Parasympathomimetic medications
D) Anticholinesterase medications
Q2) Which statement is false about the usual causes of hypercalciuria?
A) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to hyperthyroidism.
B) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium.
C) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization.
D) Hypercalciuria is usually attributable to hyperparathyroidism.
Q3) Pyelonephritis is usually caused by antibody-coated:
A) bacteriA.
B) fungi.
C) viruses.
D) parasites.
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately one third of individuals with horseshoe kidneys are asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On examination of a male child,it is determined that the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis.This condition is called: A) hypospadias.
B) epispadias.
C) hyperspadias.
D) chordee.
Q3) Autosomal dominant inherited disorder
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q4) _____ is an anomaly often associated with Wilms' tumor.
A) Renal anaplasia
B) Aniridia (lack of an iris in the eye)
C) Anemia
D) Hypothyroidism
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) Exposure to which substances protect the mucosal barrier of the stomach?
A) Prostaglandins
B) Aspirin
C) Helicobacter pylori
D) Regurgitated bile
Q2) Decreases gastric motility and constricts pyloric sphincter
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q3) Delays gastric and small bowel emptying
A)Peptide YY
B)Secretin
C)Cholecystokinin
D)Enteroglucagon
E)Pancreatic polypeptide
Q4) Potassium concentration in gastric juice is greater than in plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What regulates eating behavior,energy metabolism,and body fat mass?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Hypothalamus
C) Posterior pituitary
D) Parietal lobe
Q2) The most common clinical manifestation of portal hypertension is _____ bleeding.
A) rectal
B) duodenal
C) esophageal
D) intestinal
Q3) Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which type of ulcer is characterized by an increase in concentration of bile salts that damages the mucosal barrier by permitting hydrogen ions to diffuse into the mucosa,where they disrupt permeability and cellular structure?
A) Ischemic ulcer
B) Curling ulcer
C) Gastric ulcers
D) Duodenal ulcers
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) An infant suddenly develops abdominal pain,becomes irritable (colicky),and draws up the knees.Vomiting occurs soon afterward.The mother reports that after the infant passed a normal stool,the stools currently look like currant jelly.Based on these data,which disorder does the nurse suspect?
A) Congenital aganglionic megacolon
B) Intussusception
C) Malrotation
D) Volvulus
Q2) Why does an infant with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)bruise and bleed easily?
A) Because he has a vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
B) Because his bone marrow function is depressed
C) Because he has iron,folate,and B<sub>12</sub> deficiency anemias
D) Because he is taking Coumadin
Q3) Marasmus and kwashiorkor
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
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Chapter 39: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) Which part of a joint is insensitive to pain and regenerates slowly and minimally after injury?
A) Synovium
B) Articular cartilage
C) Bursa
D) Tendon
Q2) The outer layer of the periosteum contains blood vessels and nerves,some of which penetrate to the inner structures of the bone by way of:
A) Volkmann canals.
B) canaliculi.
C) Sharpey canals.
D) trabeculae.
Q3) Articular cartilage is anchored to the underlying bone via:
A) Sharpey fibers.
B) collagen.
C) glycoproteins.
D) elastin fibers.
Q4) Diarthroses are the most movable and the most complex joints.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) Alcohol abuse is the most common cause of toxic myopathy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In considering osteomyelitis,what is sequestrum?
A) An area of devascularized and devitalized bone
B) An enzyme that phagocytizes necrotic bone
C) A subperiosteal abscess
D) A layer of new bone surrounding the infected bone
Q3) _____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.
A) Dislocation
B) Subluxation
C) Malunion
D) Nonunion
Q4) The pathophysiology of gout is closely linked to _____ metabolism.
A) purine
B) pyrimidine
C) vitamin E
D) amino acid
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) Which serum laboratory test is elevated in all forms of osteogenesis imperfecta?
A) Phosphorous
B) Calcium
C) Alkaline phosphatase
D) Total protein
Q2) The appendicular skeleton grows faster than the axial skeleton during childhood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is Osgood-Schlatter disease?
A) Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow
B) Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament
C) Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint
D) Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon
Q4) Autosomal dominant with a slow rate of progression and frequent mental retardation
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
C)Scapuloperoneal muscular dystrophy
D)Myotonic dystrophy
E)Becker muscular dystrophy
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Chapter 42: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tinea corporis (ringworm)is a _____ infection of the skin.
A) nematode
B) fungal
C) viral
D) bacterial
Q2) When taking a history from a patient with psoriasis,which medications does the nurse ask about that may exacerbate existing psoriasis?
A) Antibiotics
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAID)
D) Antilipidemics
Q3) Pain experienced by patients during the thawing period after frostbite is mild since the nerve endings are anesthetized by the cold.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Warts are benign lesions of the skin caused by human papillomavirus.
A)True
B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) Thrush may be defined as:
A) the presence of Candida in the mucous membranes of the mouths of infants.
B) the presence of bacteria in the nasal mucous membranes of infants.
C) any viral infection of the mucous membranes of the mouths of infants.
D) an acute immune response to oral medication,located in the mucosal lining of the mouths of infants.
Q2) Fungal disorders of the skin are known as mycoses and when caused by dermatophytes,the mycoses are termed tinea.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the most significant complication of streptococcal impetigo?
A) Acute glomerulonephritis
B) Valvular heart disease
C) Streptococcal pneumonia
D) Liver failure
Q4) What is a common source of tinea corporis?
A) Mites
B) Kittens and puppies
C) Fleas
D) Ticks
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Chapter 44: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) What parameter of stroke volume is affected by cardiogenic shock?
A) Preload is increased.
B) Preload is decreased.
C) Contractility is increased.
D) Afterload is increased.
E) Afterload is decreased.
Q2) What effect does fatal burn injury have on interleukins?
A) Decreases levels of interleukin 2 (IL-2),which may decrease T helper 1 (Th1)lymphocytes
B) Decreases levels of interleukin 4 (IL-4),which causes a shift in production from Th1 to Th2 lymphocytes
C) Decreases levels of interleukin 6 (IL-6),which produces cytokines
D) Decreases levels of interleukin 12 (IL-12),which stimulates the production of immunoglobulins
Q3) Follows infection
A)Cardiogenic shock
B)Hypovolemic shock
C)Neurogenic shock
D)Anaphylactic shock
E)Septic shock
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Q1) Compared with the ebb phase,what are characteristics of the catabolic flow phase in metabolism after a burn injury in a child?
A) Reduced oxygen consumption
B) Elevation of catecholamines
C) Impaired circulation
D) Cellular shock
Q2) Hypotension is a late sign of shock in children.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Involve flammable liquids such as gasoline
A)Scald burns
B)Contact burns
C)Flame burns
D)Electrical burns
E)Chemical burns
Q4) The most common cause of bradycardia in young children is:
A) cardiogenic shock.
B) neurogenic shock.
C) dehydration.
D) hypoxia.
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Q1) Which electrolyte imbalance accompanies multiple myeloma?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hyperphosphatemia
D) Hypernatremia
Q2) Frequently the initial sign of Hodgkin disease is a painless mass,lump,or swelling,most commonly on the neck.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In both Hodgkin disease and non-Hodgkin lymphoma,T cell function is severely decreased.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the most reliable and specific test for diagnosing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
C) Fibrin degradation products (FDP)
D) D-dimer
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Chapter 47: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about the advances in the treatment of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)of the newborn is false?
A) Administering glucocorticoids to women in preterm labor accelerates the maturation of the fetus's lungs.
B) Administering oxygen to mothers during preterm labor to increase their arterial oxygen before birth of the fetus.
C) Instilling exogenous surfactant down an endotracheal tube of infants weighing less than 1000g.
D) Supporting the infant's respiratory function by using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
Q2) Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?
A) CD4 T-helper Th<sub>1</sub> lymphocytes
B) CD4 T-helper Th<sub>2</sub> lymphocytes
C) CD8 cytotoxic T-lymphocyte
D) Memory T-lymphocyte
Q3) Surfactant production is being produced by the fourth week of gestation.
A)True
B)False
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