Pediatric Nursing Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Nursing focuses on the care of infants, children, and adolescents, addressing their unique physiological, psychological, and developmental needs within a family and community context. Students learn assessment techniques, growth and development milestones, and strategies for communicating effectively with both children and their families. The course covers common pediatric illnesses, health promotion, disease prevention, and the management of chronic and acute health problems in children. Emphasis is placed on the role of the pediatric nurse as an advocate, educator, and member of the healthcare team, ensuring safe, ethical, and compassionate care for young patients across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care in Canada 1st Edition by Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1438 Verified Questions
1438 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1703 Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Perinatal Nursing in Canada
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/33731
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary role of practicing nurses in the research process?
A) Designing research studies
B) Collecting data for other researchers
C) Identifying areas for further research
D) Seeking funding to support research studies
Answer: C
Q2) The nurse knows that teaching to promote healthy living has been effective when the patient makes which comment?
A) "I'll do whatever you say; you're the nurse."
B) "I don't think I can quit smoking."
C) "I exercise for 30 minutes, 3 days a week."
D) "What do you think I should do?"
Answer: C
Q3) Which trend has a positive impact on the infant mortality rate?
A) Delayed second-stage pushing is now discouraged in labour.
B) Episiotomy rates are increasing.
C) Midwives perform more episiotomies than physicians.
D) Newborn infants remain with the mother and are encouraged to breastfeed.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning interventions for diverse families,you realize that acceptance of the interventions will be most influenced by which factor?
A) Educational achievement
B) Income level
C) Subcultural group
D) Individual beliefs
Answer: D
Q2) A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage.On the basis of the information given,what family form best describes this family?
A) Blended family
B) Extended family
C) Nuclear family
D) Same-sex family
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Community Care
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which health care service represents the primary level of prevention?
A) Immunizations
B) Breast self-examination
C) Home care for high-risk pregnancies
D) Blood pressure screening
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following represents a public health intervention that has contributed to increased health in the perinatal continuum of care?
A) Weight loss clinic
B) Caesarean birth support group
C) Campaign to highlight the importance of folic acid intake
D) Reductions in length of hospital stay for the woman's birth
Answer: C
Q3) Which health-related issue is on the rise currently in Canada?
A) Post-mature birth
B) Teenage pregnancy
C) Sexually transmitted infections
D) Maternal morbidity and mortality
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is most likely aware of the psychological symptoms of stress,such as anxiety and depression; however,a number of physiological symptoms may also occur.To best assist the patient in managing these symptoms,the nurse should be aware that stress may also result in which of the following?
A) Decreased heart rate and blood pressure
B) Rapid digestion resulting in heartburn
C) Decrease in hormone levels
D) Flare-ups of arthritis and asthma
Q2) What should nurses be aware of concerning the use and abuse of legal drugs or substances?
A) Although cigarette smoking causes a number of health problems, it has little direct effect on maternity-related health.
B) About 25% of women ages 18 to 24 report frequent excessive alcohol consumption.
C) Coffee is a stimulant that can interrupt body functions and has been related to birth defects.
D) Prescription psychotherapeutic drugs taken by the mother do not affect the fetus; otherwise, they would not have been prescribed.
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Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment is completed when microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix,endocervix,or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells occurs?
A) Bimanual palpation
B) Rectovaginal palpation
C) A Papanicolaou (Pap) test
D) A five A's procedure
Q2) At which age may a woman discontinue Pap screening?
A) Never
B) After childbearing years
C) After menopause
D) After the age of 70
Q3) What is the best time for breast self-examination (BSE)?
A) 5 to 7 days after menses ceases
B) Day 1 of the endometrial cycle
C) 7 days before the onset of menses
D) Any time during a shower or bath
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Chapter 6: Reproductive Health
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to dysfunctional uterine bleeding ( DUB )?
A) It is most commonly caused by anovulation.
B) It most often occurs in middle age.
C) DUB should be the initial consideration for abnormal menstrual bleeding.
D) The most effective medical treatment involves steroids.
Q2) A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy.What common adverse effects might she experience?
A) Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding
B) Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss
C) Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches
Q3) Nurses should be aware that which statement is true with regard to dysmenorrhea?
A) It is more common in older women.
B) It is more common in leaner women who exercise strenuously.
C) Symptoms can begin at any point in the ovulatory cycle.
D) Pain usually occurs in the suprapubic area or lower abdomen.
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Chapter 7: Infertility, contraception, and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman was treated recently for toxic shock syndrome (TSS).She has intercourse occasionally and uses over-the-counter protection.On the basis of her history,which contraceptive method should she and her partner avoid?
A) Cervical cap
B) Condom
C) Vaginal film
D) Vaginal sheath
Q2) A man smokes two packs of cigarettes a day.He wants to know if smoking is contributing to the difficulty he and his wife are having getting pregnant.What is the nurse's most appropriate response?
A) "Your sperm count seems to be okay in the first semen analysis."
B) "Only marijuana cigarettes affect sperm count."
C) "Smoking can give you lung cancer, but it has no effect on sperm."
D) "Smoking can reduce the quality of your sperm."
Q3) Which of the following contraceptive methods is least effective?
A) Standard days method
B) Periodic abstinence
C) Postovulation
D) Coitus interruptus
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Preconception, genetics, conception, and Fetal Development
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to chromosome abnormalities?
A) They occur in approximately 10% of newborns.
B) Abnormalities of number are the leading cause of pregnancy loss.
C) Down syndrome is a result of an abnormal chromosome structure.
D) Unbalanced translocation results in a mild abnormality that the child will outgrow.
Q2) Selina comes in for her first prenatal examination.This is her first child.She asks the nurse,"How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" What is the nurse's best response?
A) "The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
B) "The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system."
C) "The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream."
D) "The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen."
Q3) At what age is the embryo or fetus less susceptible to teratogens?
A) 4 weeks
B) 6 weeks
C) 8 weeks
D) 10 weeks
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Chapter 9: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over-the-counter ( OTC )pregnancy tests usually rely on which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin ( hCG )?
A) Radioimmunoassay
B) Radioreceptor assay
C) Latex agglutination test
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay ( ELISA )
Q2) A number of changes in the integumentary system occur during pregnancy.What change persists after birth?
A) Epulis
B) Chloasma
C) Telangiectasia
D) Striae gravidarum
Q3) Which statement about a condition of pregnancy is accurate?
A) Insufficient salivation (ptyalism) is caused by increases in estrogen.
B) Acid indigestion (pyrosis) begins early but declines throughout pregnancy.
C) Hyperthyroidism often develops (temporarily) because hormone production increases.
D) Nausea and vomiting rarely have harmful effects on the fetus and may be beneficial.
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11
Chapter 10: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should the nurse be aware of with regard to dental care during pregnancy?
A) Dental care need not be a priority because the woman is getting a lot of calcium anyway.
B) Dental surgery, in particular, is contraindicated because of psychological stress.
C) The woman will be most comfortable with dental treatment in the second trimester.
D) Dental care interferes with the need to practice conscious relaxation.
Q2) What type of cultural concern is the most likely deterrent to many women seeking prenatal care?
A) Religion
B) Modesty
C) Ignorance
D) Belief that physicians are evil
Q3) What is the purpose of the pinch test?
A) To check the sensitivity of the nipples
B) To determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted
C) To calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen
D) To see whether the fetus has become inactive
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Chapter 11: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should the nurse teach a pregnant woman who is still playing tennis at 32 weeks of gestation?
A) Increase fluid intake before, during, and after exercise.
B) Include extra protein sources, such as peanut butter, in your diet.
C) Eat salty foods to replace lost sodium.
D) Eat easily digested sources of carbohydrate.
Q2) Which of the following should the nurse be aware of with regard to nutritional needs during lactation?
A) The mother's intake of vitamin C, zinc, and protein now can be lower than during pregnancy.
B) Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who therefore may be unusually active and wakeful.
C) Critical iron and folic acid levels must be maintained.
D) Lactating women can go back to their prepregnant calorie intake.
Q3) Which meal would provide the most absorbable iron?
A) Toasted cheese sandwich, celery sticks, tomato slices, and a grape drink
B) Oatmeal, whole wheat toast, jelly, and low-fat milk
C) Black bean soup, wheat crackers, dried apricots, and prunes
D) Red beans and rice, cornbread, mixed greens, and decaffeinated tea
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Pregnancy Risk Factors and Assessment:
Maternal
and Fetal
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true in relation to the nonstress test (NST)for antepartum fetal assessment?
A) It has no known contraindications.
B) It has fewer false-positive results than the contraction stress test (CST).
C) It is more sensitive than the CST in detecting fetal compromise.
D) It is slightly more expensive than the CST.
Q2) At 35 weeks of pregnancy,a woman experiences preterm labour.Although tocolytics are administered and she is placed on bed rest,she continues to experience regular uterine contractions,and her cervix is beginning to dilate and efface.What would be an important test for fetal well-being at this time?
A) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
B) Ultrasound for fetal size
C) Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
D) Nonstress test
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Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulphate infusion for treatment of severe pre-eclampsia for 24 hours.On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3°C,pulse rate of 88 beats/min,respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min,blood pressure (BP)of 148/90 mm Hg,absent deep tendon reflexes,and no ankle clonus.The patient complains,"I'm so thirsty and warm." What is the nurse's initial intervention?
A) Call for a stat magnesium sulphate level.
B) Administer oxygen.
C) Discontinue the magnesium sulphate infusion.
D) Prepare to administer hydralazine.
Q2) A primigravida is being monitored in her prenatal clinic for pre-eclampsia.Which finding should concern her nurse?
A) Blood pressure (BP) increase to 138/86 mm Hg
B) Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks
C) Urine protein reading of 0.05 g/L on two occasions
D) Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day
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Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Pre-Existing Conditions
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following congenital anomalies may occur with the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)?
A) Gastroschisis
B) Congenital heart disease
C) Diaphragmatic hernia
D) Intrauterine growth restriction
Q2) Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM).In planning her care the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM.The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for which of the following?
A) Macrosomia
B) Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system
C) Preterm birth
D) Low birth weight
Q3) Which factor increases the risk of mother-to-child perinatal HIV transmission?
A) Treatment with antiretroviral
B) Presence of chorioamnionitis
C) Bottle feeding after delivery
D) Maternal plasma viral level less than 1000 copies per mL
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Labour and Birth Processes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents one of the factors that affect the process of labour and birth,known commonly as the five P's?
A) Pelvic diameters
B) Position
C) Powers
D) Pressure
Q2) What is the term for the slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labour?
A) Lightening
B) Moulding
C) Ferguson reflex
D) Valsalva manoeuvre
Q3) Which presentation is described accurately in terms of both presenting part and frequency of occurrence?
A) Cephalic: occiput; at least 95%
B) Breech: sacrum; 10% to 15%
C) Shoulder: scapula; 10% to 15%
D) Cephalic: cranial; 80% to 85%
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17
Chapter 16: Comfort Measures for Labour
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should be aware that a plan to achieve adequate pain relief without maternal risk is most effective if which of the following occurs?
A) The mother gives birth without any analgesic or anaesthetic.
B) The mother and family's priorities and preferences are incorporated into the plan.
C) The primary health care provider determines the best pain relief for the mother and family.
D) The nurse informs the family of all alternative methods of pain relief available in the hospital setting.
Q2) Nurses with an understanding of cultural differences regarding likely reactions to pain are better able to help patients.Women from which of the following ethnic groups would be most likely to be stoic in response to labour pain?
A) Chinese women
B) Arab or Middle Eastern women
C) First Nations women
D) African-Canadian women
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18
Chapter 17: Fetal Health Surveillance During Labour
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse know when assisting a patient with pushing and positioning during labour?
A) Encourage the woman's cooperation in avoiding the supine position.
B) Advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position.
C) Encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response.
D) Instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.
Q2) While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labour whose labour is being induced,the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR)begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends.What should the nurse do?
A) Change the woman's position.
B) Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
C) Insert an internal monitor.
D) Document the finding in the patient's record.
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labour and Birth
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description of the phases of the second stage of labour is accurate?
A) Latent phase: Feels sleepy, fetal station is 2+ to 4+, duration is 30 to 45 minutes
B) Active phase: Overwhelmingly strong contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, duration is 5 to 15 minutes
C) Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, average duration varies
D) Transitional phase: Woman "labouring down," fetal station is 0, duration is 15 minutes
Q2) When should a nurse not perform a vaginal examination?
A) On admission to the hospital at the start of labour
B) When accelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR) are noted
C) On maternal perception of perineal pressure or the urge to bear down
D) When membranes rupture
Q3) What is the priority nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth?
A) Keep the newborn's airway clear.
B) Foster parent-newborn attachment.
C) Dry the newborn and wrap the infant in a blanket.
D) Administer eye drops and vitamin K.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labour and Birth at Risk
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions.What clinical cue would alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation?
A) Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency
B) Uterine contractions lasting >60 seconds and occurring >3 minutes in frequency
C) Uterine tone 15 mm Hg
D) Uterine tone 10 mm Hg
Q2) The nurse knows that which of the following is the least common cause of dystocia?
A) Midplane contracture of the pelvis
B) Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication
C) Disproportion of the pelvis
D) Low-lying placenta
Q3) What assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation?
A) Meconium-stained amniotic fluid
B) Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus
C) Preterm labour and birth
D) Postterm gestation
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Chapter 20: Maternal Physiological Changes
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Childbirth may result in injuries to the vagina and uterus.Pelvic floor exercises,also known as Kegel exercises,will help to strengthen the perineal muscles and encourage healing.The nurse knows that the patient understands the correct process for completing these conditioning exercises when she reports which of the following?
A) "I contract my thighs, buttocks, and abdomen."
B) "I do 10 of these exercises every day."
C) "I stand while practicing this new exercise routine."
D) "I pretend that I am trying to stop the flow of urine midstream."
Q2) What statement by a newly delivered woman indicates that she knows what to expect about her menstrual activity after childbirth?
A) "My first menstrual cycle will be lighter than normal and then will get heavier every month thereafter."
B) "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and will return to my prepregnant volume within three or four cycles."
C) "I will not have a menstrual cycle for 6 months after childbirth."
D) "My first menstrual cycle will be heavier than normal and then will be light for several months after."
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse knows that combined care is when the mother and infant share a room,and the mother shares the care of the infant with which of the following?
A) The father of the infant
B) Her mother (the infant's grandmother)
C) Her eldest daughter (the infant's sister)
D) The nurse
Q2) How long should the nurse teach the woman who is not breastfeeding to wear a well-fitted support bra or breast binder to suppress lactation in the postpartum period?
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 72 hours
D) 7 days
Q3) If a woman is at risk for thrombus and is not ready to ambulate,which intervention should the nurse perform?
A) Put on antiembolic stockings (TED hose).
B) Have her avoid leg exercises.
C) Have her sit in a chair.
D) Keep her legs flat; do not elevate.
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Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse hears a primiparous woman talking to her son and telling him that his chin is just like his dad's chin.What does this woman's statement reflect?
A) Mutuality
B) Synchrony
C) Claiming
D) Reciprocity
Q2) New parents express concern that,because of the mother's emergency Caesarean birth under general anaesthesia,they did not have the opportunity to hold and bond with their daughter immediately after her birth.What should the nurse's response convey to the parents?
A) Attachment is a process that occurs over time and does not require early contact.
B) The time immediately after birth is a critical period for people.
C) Early contact is essential for optimum parent-infant relationships.
D) They should just be happy that the infant is healthy.
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Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perinatal nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)is most likely caused by which of the following?
A) Subinvolution of the placental site
B) Defective vascularity of the decidua
C) Cervical lacerations
D) Coagulation disorders
Q2) A newborn in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU)is dying as a result of a massive infection.The parents speak to the neonatologist,who informs them of their son's prognosis.When the father sees his son,he says,"He looks just fine to me.I can't understand what all this is about." What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "Didn't the doctor tell you about your son's problems?"
B) "This must be a difficult time for you. Tell me how you're doing."
C) Stand beside him quietly.
D) "You'll have to face up to the fact that he is going to die sooner or later."
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Chapter 24: Physiological Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse be aware of with regard to the respiratory development of the newborn?
A) The first gasping breath is an exaggerated respiratory reaction within 1 minute of birth.
B) Newborns must expel the fluid from the respiratory system within a few minutes of birth.
C) Newborns are instinctive mouth breathers.
D) Seesaw respirations are no cause for concern in the first hour after birth.
Q2) A collection of blood between the skull bone and its periosteum is known as a cephalhematoma.What should the nurse be aware of with regard to cephalhematoma in order to reassure the new parents whose infant develops such a soft bulge?
A) It may occur with spontaneous vaginal birth.
B) It only happens as the result of a forceps or vacuum delivery.
C) It is present immediately after birth.
D) It will gradually absorb over the first few months of life.
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Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which range,in g/L,represents the normal hemoglobin of a healthy full-term infant?
A) 50 to 95
B) 125 to 150
C) 166 to 175
D) 195 to 205
Q2) As part of their teaching function at discharge,nurses should tell parents that the baby's respiration will not be protected by which one of the following procedures?
A) Prevent exposure to people with upper respiratory tract infections.
B) Keep the infant away from secondhand smoke.
C) Avoid loose bedding, water beds, and beanbag chairs.
D) Avoid letting the infant sleep on his or her back.
Q3) When preparing to administer a hepatitis B vaccine to a newborn,what should the nurse know?
A) Obtain a syringe with a 25-gauge, 16-mm (5/8-inch) needle.
B) Confirm that the newborn's mother has been infected with the hepatitis B virus.
C) Assess the dorsogluteal muscle as the preferred site for injection.
D) Confirm that the newborn is at least 24 hours old.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) A new mother wants to be sure that she is meeting her daughter's needs while feeding her commercially prepared infant formula.The nurse should evaluate the mother's knowledge about appropriate infant care.The mother meets her child's needs when she does which of the following?
A) She adds rice cereal to her formula at 2 weeks of age to ensure adequate nutrition.
B) She warms the bottles using a microwave oven.
C) She burps her infant during and after the feeding as needed.
D) She refrigerates any leftover formula for the next feeding.
Q2) What is the best reason for recommending formula over breastfeeding?
A) The mother had a bilateral mastectomy.
B) The mother lacks confidence in her ability to breastfeed.
C) Other family members or care providers also need to feed the baby.
D) The mother sees bottle feeding as more convenient.
Q3) The nurse providing couplet care should understand that nipple confusion results when which of the following occurs?
A) Breastfeeding babies receive supplementary bottle feedings.
B) The baby is weaned too abruptly.
C) Pacifiers are used before breastfeeding is established.
D) Twins are breastfed together.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a result of large body surface in relation to weight,the preterm infant is at high risk for heat loss and cold stress.By understanding the four mechanisms of heat transfer (convection,conduction,radiation,and evaporation),the nurse can create an environment for the infant that prevents temperature instability.While evaluating the plan that has been implemented,the nurse knows that the infant is experiencing cold stress when he or she exhibits which of the following?
A) Decreased respiratory rate
B) Bradycardia followed by an increased heart rate
C) Apnea and flushed colour
D) Increased physical activity
Q2) Necrotizing enterocolitis ( NEC )is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel.To develop an optimal plan of care for this infant,the nurse must understand that which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC?
A) Early enteral feedings
B) Breastfeeding
C) Exchange transfusion
D) Prophylactic probiotics
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cleft lip or palate is a common congenital midline fissure or opening in the lip or palate resulting from the primary palate's failure to fuse.Multiple genetic,and to a lesser extent,environmental factors may lead to the development of a cleft lip or palate.Which of the following is one factor?
A) Alcohol consumption
B) Female gender
C) Use of antispasmodic medication
D) Antibiotic use in pregnancy
Q2) What should the nurse understand about the treatment of infants born to mothers who are substance users?
A) Infants born to addicted mothers are also addicted.
B) Mothers who use one substance likely will use or abuse another, compounding the infant's difficulties.
C) The NICU Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) is designed to assess the damage the mother has done to herself.
D) No laboratory procedures are available that can identify the intrauterine drug exposure of the infant.
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing in Canada
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the leading cause of death from unintentional injury in children?
A) Poisoning
B) Drowning
C) Motor vehicle-related fatalities
D) Fire- and burn-related fatalities
Q2) Which of the following statements is most descriptive of critical thinking?
A) It is a simple developmental process.
B) It is purposeful and goal-directed.
C) It is based on deliberate and irrational thought.
D) It assists individuals in guessing what is most appropriate.
Q3) Which statement best describes family-centred care?
A) It reduces the effect of cultural diversity on the family.
B) It encourages family dependence on the health care system.
C) It recognizes that the family is a constant in the child's life.
D) It does not expect families to be part of the decision-making process.
Q4) What is the leading cause of death in adolescents 15 to 19 years of age?
A) Cancer
B) Suicide
C) Heart disease
D) Drowning
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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Q1) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A) Nursing process
B) Epidemiological process
C) Community-based statistics
D) Mortality and morbidity statistics
Q2) A number of children in the same neighbourhood have developed illness related to lead paint exposure.Which of the three factors that form the epidemiological triangle is responsible?
A) Agent
B) Host factor
C) Environmental factor
D) Lifestyle factor
Q3) Demography is the study of population characteristics.Which demographic characteristic is associated with an increased risk for hemophilia?
A) Age
B) Race and ethnicity
C) Gender
D) Socioeconomic status
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of family is made up entirely of members related by blood?
A) Consanguineous
B) Affinal
C) Family of origin
D) Household
Q2) A young couple who has just delivered their first child adapts to the stress of new parenthood by using which type of internal resource?
A) Maladaptation
B) Relying on community members
C) Integration
D) Coping strategies
Q3) Which theory explains how families react to stressful events and suggests factors that promote adaptation to these events?
A) Family systems theory
B) Developmental theory
C) Family stress theory
D) Family assessment
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Chapter 32: Social, cultural, and Religious Influences on Child
Health Promotion
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Q1) A young child from Africa is hospitalized for a serious illness.The father tells the nurse that the child is being punished by God for being bad.What should the nurse recognize about this statement?
A) It is a health belief common in this culture.
B) It is an early indication of potential child abuse.
C) It is a misunderstanding of the family's common beliefs.
D) It is a belief common when fortune-tellers have been used.
Q2) Maria is a Spanish-speaking 5-year-old girl who has started kindergarten in an English-speaking school.Crying most of the time,she appears helpless and unable to function in this new situation.What is the best explanation for her behaviour?
A) She lacks adequate culture for attending school.
B) She lacks the maturity needed to attend school.
C) She is experiencing culture shock.
D) She is experiencing minority group discrimination.
Q3) Which cultural group considers good health to be a balance between yin and yang?
A) Chinese
B) Haitian
C) First Nations
D) Japanese
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health Promotion
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Q1) What is the term for head-to-tail direction of growth?
A) Cephalocaudal
B) Proximodistal
C) Mass to specific
D) Sequential
Q2) Three children playing a board game is an example of which of the following types of play?
A) Solitary
B) Parallel
C) Associative
D) Cooperative
Q3) At what age do children tend to imitate the religious gestures and behaviours of others without understanding their significance?
A) Toddlerhood
B) Younger school-age period
C) Older school-age period
D) Adolescence
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical, and Developmental Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse knows that the patient is experiencing information overload when she observes that the patient is doing one of the following?
A) Maintains eye contact
B) Plays with hair
C) Has fixed, narrowed eyes
D) Remains focused on the topic of discussion
Q2) Which age group is most concerned with body integrity?
A) Toddlers
B) Preschoolers
C) School-age children
D) Adolescents
Q3) What is the earliest age at which a satisfactory radial pulse can be taken in children?
A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 6 years
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic.His parent says,"I think he hurts.He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A) Type
B) Severity
C) Duration
D) Location
Q2) Which statement is true about non-pharmacological strategies for pain management?
A) They may reduce pain perception.
B) They make pharmacological strategies unnecessary.
C) They usually take too long to implement.
D) They trick children into believing they do not have pain.
Q3) Which drug is usually the best choice for patient-controlled analgesia ( PCA )for a child in the immediate post-operative period?
A) Codeine
B) Morphine
C) Methadone
D) Meperidine
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Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mother tells the nurse that she is discontinuing breastfeeding her 5-month-old infant.What should the nurse recommend that the infant be given?
A) Skim milk
B) Whole cow's milk
C) Commercial iron-fortified formula
D) Commercial formula without iron
Q2) At what age should the nurse expect an infant to begin smiling in response to pleasurable stimuli?
A) 1 month
B) 2 months
C) 3 months
D) 4 months
Q3) A 3-month-old infant,born at 38 weeks of gestation,will hold a rattle if it is put in her hands,but she will not voluntarily grasp it.How should the nurse interpret this behaviour?
A) This is normal development.
B) This is a significant developmental lag.
C) This is slightly delayed development caused by prematurity.
D) This is suggestive of a neurological disorder such as cerebral palsy.
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is correct about toilet training?
A) Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B) Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C) Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D) Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
Q2) The parent of 16-month-old Chris asks,"What is the best way to keep Chris from getting into our medicines at home?" What should the nurse advise?
A) "All medicines should be locked securely away."
B) "The medicines should be placed in high cabinets."
C) "Chris just needs to be taught not to touch medicines."
D) "Medicines should not be kept in the homes of small children."
Q3) What is the most fatal type of burn for the toddler age group?
A) Flame burn from playing with matches
B) Scald burn from high-temperature tap water
C) Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons
D) Electric burn from electrical outlets
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition does not require strict isolation for a child who is hospitalized?
A) Mumps
B) Parvovirus B19
C) Exanthema subitum ( roseola )
D) Erythema infectiosum ( fifth disease )
Q2) To prevent varicella,what may be given to high-risk children after exposure to chickenpox?
A) Acyclovir
B) Vitamin A
C) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
D) Varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)
Q3) In terms of fine motor development,what is a 3-year-old child expected to do?
A) Tie shoelaces.
B) Use scissors or a pencil very well.
C) Draw a person with seven to nine parts.
D) Copy (draw) a circle.
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the play of school-age children?
A) Individuality in play is better tolerated than it was at earlier ages.
B) Knowing the rules of a game provides an important sense of belonging.
C) They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go.
D) Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition and winning.
Q2) An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." She shares her concern that,if she dies,she will go to hell.How should the nurse interpret this concern?
A) Such a belief that is common at this age.
B) Such a belief forms the basis for most religions.
C) It is suggestive of excessive family pressure.
D) It is suggestive of the failure to develop a conscience.
Q3) What should the nurse include in her lesson when teaching injury prevention to school-age children?
A) The need to fear strangers
B) The basic rules of water safety
C) To avoid cooking with microwave ovens
D) Caution against engaging in competitive sports
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Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adolescent girl tells the nurse that she is very suicidal.The nurse asks her if she has a specific plan.This inquiry is which of the following?
A) It is an appropriate part of the assessment.
B) It is not a critical part of the assessment.
C) It suggests that the adolescent needs a plan.
D) It encourages the adolescent to devise a plan.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent brought to the hospital with acute drug toxicity.Cocaine is believed to be the drug involved.Data collection should include which one of the following?
A) Mode of administration
B) Actual content of the drug
C) Function the drug plays in the adolescent's life
D) Adolescent's level of interest in rehabilitation
Q3) Which one of the following is considered to be an unsuccessful smoking cessation program among teens?
A) Peer-led education and support
B) Information on the long-term effects of smoking
C) Programs including the media
D) School-based programs
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, disability, and End-Of-Life Care
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse comes into the room of a child who was just diagnosed with a chronic disability.The child's parents begin to yell at the nurse about a variety of concerns.What is the nurse's best response?
A) "What is really wrong?"
B) "Being angry is only natural."
C) "Yelling at me will not change things."
D) "I will come back when you settle down."
Q2) A common parental reaction to a child with special needs is overprotection.Which one of the following is suggestive of this type of behaviour?
A) Providing inconsistent discipline
B) Providing consistent, strict discipline
C) Forcing the child to help him- or herself, even when not capable
D) Encouraging social and educational activities not appropriate to child's level of capability
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Chapter 42: Cognitive and Sensory Impairment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn assessment shows separated sagittal suture,oblique palpebral fissures,depressed nasal bridge,protruding tongue,and transverse palmar creases.What are these findings most suggestive of?
A) Microcephaly
B) Down syndrome
C) Cerebral palsy
D) Fragile X syndrome
Q2) Which of the following facilitates lip-reading by the hearing-impaired child?
A) Speaking at an even rate
B) Exaggerating the pronunciation of words
C) Avoiding the use of facial expressions
D) Repeating words in exactly the same way if a child does not understand
Q3) Which of the following activities is an appropriate intervention to facilitate socialization for a cognitively impaired child?
A) Providing age-appropriate toys and play activities
B) Providing peer experiences such as Guides or Scouting when older
C) Avoiding exposure to strangers who may not understand cognitive development
D) Emphasizing mastery of physical skills because they are delayed more often than verbal skills
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Family-Centred Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one important thing home care nurses should do when communicating with other professionals?
A) Ask others what they want to know.
B) Share everything known about the family.
C) Restrict communication to clinically relevant information.
D) Recognize that confidentiality is not possible.
Q2) The home health nurse outlines short- and long-term goals for a 10-year-old child with many complex health problems.Who should agree on these goals?
A) Family and nurse
B) Child, family, and nurse
C) All professionals involved
D) Child, family, and all professionals involved
Q3) Home care is being considered for a young child who is ventilator dependent.Which factor is most important in determining whether home care is appropriate?
A) Level of parents' education
B) Presence of two parents in the home
C) Preparation and training of the family
D) Family's ability to assume all health care costs
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Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an adolescent who had an external fixator placed after suffering a fracture of the wrist during a bicycle accident.Which statement by the adolescent would be expected about separation anxiety?
A) "I wish my parents could spend the night with me while I am in the hospital."
B) "I think I would like my siblings to visit me, but not my friends."
C) "I hope my friends don't forget about visiting me."
D) "I will be embarrassed if my friends come to the hospital to visit."
Q2) Ryan has just been unexpectedly admitted to the intensive care unit after abdominal surgery.The nursing staff has completed the admission process,and Ryan's condition is beginning to stabilize.When speaking with the parents,the nurses should expect which one of the following stressors to be evident?
A) Familiar environment
B) Usual day-night routine
C) Provision of privacy
D) Inadequate knowledge of condition and routine
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning how to prepare a 4-year-old child for some diagnostic procedures.Which guideline should be included to prepare this preschooler?
A) Plan for a short teaching session of about 30 minutes.
B) Tell the child that procedures are never a form of punishment.
C) Keep equipment out of the child's view.
D) Use correct scientific and medical terminology in explanations.
Q2) An 8-month-old infant is restrained to prevent interference with the intravenous infusion.What should the nurse do?
A) Remove the restraints once a day to allow movement.
B) Keep the restraints on constantly.
C) Keep the restraints secure so infant remains supine.
D) Remove restraints whenever possible.
Q3) When teaching a mother how to administer eyedrops,where should the nurse tell her to place them?
A) In the conjunctival sac that is formed when the lower lid is pulled down
B) Carefully under the eyelid while it is gently pulled upward
C) On the sclera while the child looks to the side
D) Anywhere, as long as drops contact the eye's surface
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Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When do physicians generally recommend that a child with acute streptococcal pharyngitis can return to school?
A) When the sore throat is better
B) If no complications develop
C) After taking antibiotics for 24 hours
D) After taking antibiotics for 3 days
Q2) An infant's parents ask the nurse about preventing otitis media (OM).What should the nurse recommend?
A) Avoid tobacco smoke.
B) Use nasal decongestant.
C) Avoid children with OM.
D) Bottle-feed or breastfeed in the supine position.
Q3) Which drug is considered to be the most useful for treating cardiac arrest?
A) Bretylium
B) Lidocaine hydrochloride
C) Epinephrine hydrochloride
D) Naloxone (Narcan)
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis.Which clinical manifestation indicates this condition?
A) Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation
B) Rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
C) Visible peristalsis and weight loss
D) Distension of lower abdomen and constipation
Q2) The nurse is explaining to a parent how to care for a child with vomiting associated with a viral illness.What advice should the nurse include in her discussion?
A) Avoid carbohydrate-containing liquids.
B) Give nothing by mouth for 24 hours.
C) Brush teeth or rinse mouth after vomiting.
D) Give plain water until vomiting ceases for at least 24 hours.
Q3) When caring for a child with probable appendicitis,the nurse should watch for which one of the following as a sign of perforation?
A) Bradycardia
B) Anorexia
C) Sudden relief from pain
D) Decreased abdominal distension
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Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the leading cause of death after heart transplantation?
A) Infection
B) Rejection
C) Cardiomyopathy
D) Congestive heart failure
Q2) What is a common,serious complication of rheumatic fever?
A) Seizures
B) Cardiac arrhythmias
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Cardiac valve damage
Q3) Which one of the following is best described as the heart's inability to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures?
A) Pulmonary congestion
B) Congenital heart defect
C) Heart failure
D) Systemic venous congestion
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Chapter 49: Hematological and Immunological Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one common clinical manifestation of Hodgkin's disease?
A) Petechiae
B) Bone and joint pain
C) Painful, enlarged lymph nodes
D) Enlarged, firm, non-tender lymph nodes
Q2) An 8-year-old girl is receiving a blood transfusion when the nurse notes that she has developed precordial pain,dyspnea,distended neck veins,slight cyanosis,and a dry cough.What are these manifestations most suggestive of?
A) Air emboli
B) Allergic reaction
C) Hemolytic reaction
D) Circulatory overload
Q3) A young boy will receive a bone marrow transplant (BMT),which is possible because one of his older siblings is a histocompatible donor.What is the term for this type of BMT?
A) Syngeneic
B) Allogeneic
C) Monoclonal
D) Autologous
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with acute renal failure.What clinical manifestation should the nurse recognize as a sign of hyperkalemia?
A) Dyspnea
B) Seizure
C) Oliguria
D) Cardiac arrhythmia
Q2) What is an important objective of care for a child with nephrosis?
A) Reduce blood pressure.
B) Reduce excretion of urinary protein.
C) Increase excretion of urinary protein.
D) Increase the ability of tissues to retain fluid.
Q3) Which clinical manifestation is seen in a child with chronic renal failure?
A) Hypotension
B) Massive hematuria
C) Hypokalemia
D) Unpleasant "uremic" breath odour
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should recommend medical attention if a child with a slight head injury experiences which of the following?
A) Sleepiness
B) Vomiting, even once
C) Headache, even if slight
D) Confusion or abnormal behaviour
Q2) Which drug is used to treat a child who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP)resulting from cerebral edema?
A) Mannitol
B) Epinephrine hydrochloride
C) Atropine sulfate
D) Sodium bicarbonate
Q3) What is one important nursing intervention when caring for a child who is experiencing a seizure?
A) Describe and record the seizure activity observed.
B) Restrain the child when the seizure occurs to prevent bodily harm.
C) Place a tongue blade between the teeth if they become clenched.
D) Suction the child during a seizure to prevent aspiration.
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is discussing with a child and family the various sites used for insulin injections.Which site usually has the fastest rate of absorption?
A) Arm
B) Leg
C) Buttock
D) Abdomen
Q2) Which of the following may cause exophthalmos (protruding eyeballs)?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypoparathyroidism
D) Hyperparathyroidism
Q3) A parent asks the nurse why self-monitoring of blood glucose is being recommended for her child with diabetes.What knowledge should form the basis of the nurse's explanation?
A) It is a less expensive method of testing.
B) It is not as accurate as laboratory testing.
C) Children are better able to manage the diabetes.
D) The parents are better able to manage the disease.
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Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A father calls the clinic nurse because his 2-year-old child was bitten by a black widow spider.What should the nurse advise the father to do?
A) Apply warm compresses.
B) Carefully scrape off the stinger.
C) Take the child to the emergency department.
D) Apply a thin layer of corticosteroid cream.
Q2) When is isotretinoin (Accutane)indicated for the treatment of acne during adolescence?
A) The acne has not responded to other treatments.
B) The adolescent is or may become pregnant.
C) The adolescent is unable to give up foods causing acne.
D) Frequent washing with antibacterial soap has been unsuccessful.
Q3) What is the primary clinical manifestation of scabies?
A) Edema
B) Redness
C) Pruritus
D) Maceration
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Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does a nurse use the palms of his hands when handling a wet cast?
A) To assess the dryness of the cast
B) To facilitate easy turning
C) To keep the patient's limb balanced
D) To avoid indenting the cast
Q2) The nurse is caring for an infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip.What clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to observe?
A) Positive Ortolani click
B) Lordosis
C) Negative Babinski sign
D) Telescoping of the affected limb
Q3) What can result from the bone demineralization associated with immobility?
A) Osteoporosis
B) Urinary retention
C) Pooling of blood
D) Susceptibility to infection
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much folic acid is recommended as a daily dose for women of childbearing age?
A) 0.1 mg
B) 0.4 mg
C) 1.5 mg
D) 2 mg
Q2) Which set of the following symptoms are characteristic of spastic cerebral palsy?
A) Hypertonicity and poor control of posture, balance, and coordinated motion
B) Athetosis and dystonic movements
C) Wide-based gait and poor performance of rapid, repetitive movements
D) Tremors and lack of active movement
Q3) Which problem is most often associated with a myelomeningocele?
A) Hydrocephalus
B) Craniosynostosis
C) Biliary atresia
D) Esophageal atresia
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