Pediatric Nursing Final Exam
Course Introduction
Pediatric Nursing focuses on the essential principles and practices for delivering comprehensive nursing care to infants, children, and adolescents and their families. This course covers growth and development milestones, pediatric health assessment, common childhood illnesses, and the unique psychosocial and physiological needs of pediatric patients. Students learn about family-centered care, health promotion, disease prevention, and age-appropriate communication strategies. The curriculum also explores ethical and legal considerations, pain management, medication administration, and emergency interventions specific to the pediatric population, preparing students to advocate for and support the health and wellbeing of children in various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Maternal Child Nursing Care 4th Edition by
Shannon E. Perry
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55 Chapters
1509 Verified Questions
1509 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Contemporary Maternity Nursing
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While obtaining a detailed history from a woman who has recently emigrated from Somalia,the nurse realizes that the client has undergone female genital mutilation (FGM). The nurse's best response to this client is:
A)"This is a very abnormal practice and rarely seen in the United States."
B)"Do you know who performed this so that it can be reported to the authorities?"
C)"We will be able to fully restore your circumcision after delivery."
D)"The extent of your circumcision will affect the potential for complications."
Answer: D
Q2) During a prenatal intake interview,the client informs the nurse that she would prefer a midwife to both provide her care during pregnancy and deliver her infant. What information would be most appropriate for the nurse to share with this client?
A)Midwifery care is only available to clients who are uninsured because their services are less expensive than an obstetrician. Costs are often lower than an obstetric provider.
B)The client will receive fewer interventions during the birth process.
C)She should be aware that midwives are not certified.
D)Her delivery can take place only at home or in a birth center.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Family and Culture
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage. On the basis of the information given,what family form best describes this family?
A)Married-blended family
B)Extended family
C)Nuclear family
D)Same-sex family
Answer: A
Q2) The CFAM,or ____________________________,is an example of a modality that uses systems theory as well as other theories related to family assessment. Answer: Calgary Family Assistance Model
This model is comprised of three major categories: structural,developmental and functional. It can be used to guide the family assessment process.
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Chapter 3: Community and Home Care
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21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an in-home visit,the nurse appropriately may:
A)Smoke if the expectant mother smokes.
B)Ask to have the volume on the TV turned down or move to a quiet room.
C)Give ample advice and reassurance to establish authority.
D)Freely move whatever furniture and belongings the nurse feels necessary.
Answer: B
Q2) While completing an assessment,the nurse should be aware of which type of ailments for which homeless women are at higher risk (choose all that apply).
A)Tuberculosis
B)Chlamydia
C)Anemia
D)Hypothermia
E)Alcoholism
F) None of the above
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
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Chapter 4: Health Promotion and Illness Prevention
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the past 20 years the prevalence of obesity has doubled in the United States,with 25% of women older than 20 years of age being obese. Body mass index is defined as the measure of an adult's weight in relation to his or her height. This is currently the most accurate measure of weight. It is an important part of the health screening process because obesity is closely associated with:
A)The non-Hispanic Caucasian population.
B)A large number of chronic conditions.
C)Mostly acute illnesses.
D)Improved mental well-being.
Q2) What opiate causes euphoria,relaxation,drowsiness,and detachment from reality and has possible effects on the pregnancy,including preeclampsia,intrauterine growth restriction,and premature rupture of membranes?
A)Heroin
B)Alcohol
C)PCP
D)Cocaine
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Chapter 5: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy,soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle.
A)Menstrual
B)Proliferative
C)Secretory
D)Ischemic
Q2) The body part that both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy is the:
A)Perineum.
B)Bony pelvis.
C)Vaginal vestibule.
D)Fourchette.
Q3) Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual) cycle are most often caused by:
A)Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase.
B)An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism.
C)A functioning corpus luteum.
D)A prolonged ischemic phase.
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Chapter 6: Common Health Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction associated with treatment for __________________.
Q2) Management of primary dysmenorrhea often requires a multifaceted approach. The nurse who provides care for a client with this condition should be aware that the optimal pharmacologic therapy for pain relief is:
A)Acetaminophen.
B)Oral contraceptives (OCPs).
C)Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
D)Aspirin.
Q3) During her annual gynecologic checkup a 17-year-old woman states that recently she has been experiencing cramping and pain during her menstrual periods. The nurse would document this complaint as:
A)Amenorrhea.
B)Dysmenorrhea.
C)Dyspareunia.
D)Premenstrual syndrome (PMS).
Q4) Any episode of vaginal bleeding that occurs at a time other than during menses is referred to as _______________.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Infertility,Contraception,and Abortion
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?
A)They are performed only for maternal health.
B)They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs.
C)They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
D)They can be either elective or therapeutic.
Q2) Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A)Periodic abstinence
B)Barrier methods
C)Hormonal methods
D)They all offer about the same protection.
Q3) Injectable progestins (DMPA,Depo-Provera) are a good contraceptive choice for women who:
A)Want menstrual regularity and predictability.
B)Have a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer.
C)Have difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily.
D)Are homeless or mobile and rarely receive health care.
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Chapter 8: Genetics,Conception,and Fetal Development
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many parents-to-be have questions about multiple births. Maternity nurses should be able to tell them that:
A)Twinning and other multiple births are increasing because of the use of fertility drugs and delayed childbearing.
B)Dizygotic twins (two fertilized ova) have the potential to be conjoined twins.
C)Identical twins are more common in Caucasian families.
D)Fraternal twins are same gender,usually male.
Q2) A couple has been counseled for genetic anomalies. They ask you,"What is karyotyping?" Your best response is:
A)"Karyotyping will reveal if the baby's lungs are mature."
B)"Karyotyping will reveal if your baby will develop normally."
C)"Karyotyping will provide information about the gender of the baby and the number and structure of the chromosomes."
D)"Karyotyping will detect any physical deformities the baby has."
Q3) Very fine hairs,called ____________________,appear first at 12 weeks of gestation on the fetus's eyebrows and upper lip. By 20 weeks they cover the entire body. By 28 weeks the scalp hair is longer than these fine hairs,which thin and may disappear by term gestation.
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Chapter 9: Assessment for Risk Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the past factors to determine whether a woman was likely to develop a high risk pregnancy were evaluated primarily from a medical point of view. A broader,more comprehensive approach to high risk pregnancy has been adopted today. There are now four categories based on threats to the health of the woman and the outcome of pregnancy. These categories include all of these except:
A)Biophysical.
B)Psychosocial.
C)Geographic.
D)Environmental.
Q2) The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that the contraction stress test (CST):
A)Sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation.
B)Is an invasive test;however,contractions are stimulated.
C)Is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.
D)Is more effective than the nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.
Q3) MSAFP levels have been used as a screening tool for ________________ in pregnancy.
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11
Chapter 10: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The musculoskeletal system adapts to the changes that occur during pregnancy. A woman can expect to experience what change?
A)Her center of gravity will shift backward.
B)She will have increased lordosis.
C)She will have increased abdominal muscle tone.
D)She will notice decreased mobility of her pelvic joints.
Q2) Cardiovascular system changes occur during pregnancy. Which finding would be considered normal for a woman in her second trimester?
A)Less audible heart sounds (S<sub>1</sub>,S<sub>2</sub>)
B)Increased pulse rate
C)Increased blood pressure
D)Decreased red blood cell (RBC) production
Q3) Over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy tests usually rely on which technology to test for human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
A)Radioimmunoassay
B)Radioreceptor assay
C)Latex agglutination test
D)Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Nursing Care During Pregnancy
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. The first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14,2010. Her expected date of birth (EDB) would be:
A)September 17,2010.
B)November 7,2010.
C)November 21,2010.
D)December 17,2010.
Q2) The nurse should be aware that the pinch test is used to:
A)Check the sensitivity of the nipples.
B)Determine whether the nipple is everted or inverted.
C)Calculate the adipose buildup in the abdomen.
D)See whether the fetus has become inactive.
Q3) Which statement about pregnancy is accurate?
A)A normal pregnancy lasts about 10 lunar months.
B)A trimester is one third of a year.
C)The prenatal period extends from fertilization to conception.
D)The estimated date of confinement (EDC) is how long the mother will have to be bedridden after birth.
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Chapter 12: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While taking a diet history,the nurse might be told that the expectant mother has cravings for ice chips,cornstarch,and baking soda. This represents a nutritional problem known as:
A)Preeclampsia.
B)Pyrosis.
C)Pica.
D)Purging.
Q2) Nutrition is one of the most significant factors in influencing the outcome of a pregnancy. It is an alterable and important preventive measure for a variety of potential problems such as low birth weight and prematurity. While completing the physical assessment of the pregnant client,the nurse can evaluate the client's nutritional status by observing a number of physical signs. Which sign would indicate that the client has unmet nutritional needs?
A)Normal heart rate,rhythm,and blood pressure
B)Bright,clear,shiny eyes
C)Alert,responsive,and good endurance
D)Edema,tender calves,and tingling
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses caring for antepartum women with cardiac conditions should be aware that:
A)Stress on the heart is greatest in the first trimester and the last 2 weeks before labor.
B)Women with class II cardiac disease should avoid heavy exertion and any activity that causes even minor symptoms.
C)Women with class III cardiac disease should get 8 to 10 hours of sleep every day and limit housework,shopping,and exercise.
D)Women with class I cardiac disease need bed rest through most of the pregnancy and face the possibility of hospitalization near term.
Q2) Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that displays as weakness of the connective tissue,joint deformities,ocular dislocation,and weakness to the aortic wall and root. While providing care to a client with Marfan syndrome during labor,which intervention should the nurse complete first?
A)Antibiotic prophylaxis
B)b-Blockers
C)Surgery
D)Regional anesthesia
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15
Chapter 14: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which the placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment near or over the internal cervical os is _________________________.
Q2) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is _____________________.
Q3) With regard to miscarriage,nurses should be aware that:
A)It is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins.
B)It occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies.
C)It often can be attributed to careless maternal behavior such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise.
D)If it occurs before the twelfth week of pregnancy,it may present only as moderate discomfort and blood loss.
Q4) A woman with preeclampsia has a seizure. The nurse's primary duty during the seizure is to:
A)Insert an oral airway.
B)Suction the mouth to prevent aspiration.
C)Administer oxygen by mask.
D)Stay with the client and call for help.
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Chapter 15: Labor and Birth Processes
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The slight overlapping of cranial bones or shaping of the fetal head during labor is called:
A)Lightening.
B)Molding.
C)Ferguson reflex.
D)Valsalva maneuver.
Q2) To assess the health of the mother accurately during labor,the nurse should be aware that:
A)The woman's blood pressure will increase during contractions and fall back to prelabor normal between contractions.
B)Use of the Valsalva maneuver is encouraged during the second stage of labor to relieve fetal hypoxia.
C)Having the woman point her toes will reduce leg cramps.
D)The endogenous endorphins released during labor will raise the woman's pain threshold and produce sedation.
Q3) A ____________________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
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17
Chapter 16: Management of Discomfort
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Sample Questions
Q1) Today the pregnant woman has a number of nonpharmacologic measures available to her to assist with pain relief in labor. One such measure involves the application of heat,cold,or pressure to specific areas of the body and is known as
Q2) In the current practice of childbirth preparation,emphasis is placed on:
A)The Dick-Read (natural) childbirth method.
B)The Lamaze (psychoprophylactic) method.
C)The Bradley (husband-coached) method.
D)Getting expectant parents to attend childbirth preparation in any or no specific method.
Q3) If an opioid antagonist is administered to a laboring woman,she should be told that:
A)Her pain will decrease.
B)Her pain will return.
C)She will feel less anxious.
D)She will no longer feel the urge to push.
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Chapter 17: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by:
A)Altered fetal cerebral blood flow.
B)Umbilical cord compression.
C)Uteroplacental insufficiency.
D)Fetal hypoxemia.
Q2) Nurses should be aware that accelerations in the fetal heart rate:
A)Are indications of fetal well-being when they are periodic.
B)Are greater and longer in preterm gestations.
C)Are usually seen with breech presentations when they are episodic.
D)May visibly resemble the shape of the uterine contraction.
Q3) The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by:
A)Change in position.
B)Oxytocin administration.
C)Regional anesthesia.
D)Intravenous analgesic.
Q4) External fetal monitoring cannot detect the ____________________ of uterine contractions.
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care During Labor and Birth
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the procedures and criteria for admitting a woman to the hospital labor unit,nurses should be aware that:
A)She is not considered to be in true labor (according to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act [EMTALA]) until a qualified health care provider says she is.
B)She can have only her male partner or predesignated "doula" with her at assessment.
C)Her weight gain is calculated to determine whether she is at greater risk for cephalopelvic disproportion and cesarean birth.
D)The nurse should listen politely to the woman's previous birthing experiences but should keep in mind that each birth is a unique experience.
Q2) The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states:
A)"I passed some thick,pink mucus when I urinated this morning."
B)"My bag of waters just broke."
C)"The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together."
D)"My baby dropped,and I have to urinate more frequently now."
Q3) A ____________________-degree perineal laceration continues through the anal sphincter muscle.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Labor and Birth at Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) The least common cause of long,difficult,or abnormal labor (dystocia) is:
A)Midplane contracture of the pelvis.
B)Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication.
C)Disproportion of the pelvis.
D)Low-lying placenta.
Q2) With regard to dysfunctional labor,nurses should be aware that:
A)Women who are underweight are more at risk.
B)Women experiencing precipitous labor are about the only "dysfunctionals" not to be exhausted.
C)Hypertonic uterine dysfunction is more common than hypotonic dysfunction.
D)Abnormal labor patterns are most common in older women.
Q3) Approximately 50% of all women who give birth prematurely have no identifiable risk factors,and about 50% of preterm births could not be prevented.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ____________________ is defined as long,difficult,or abnormal labor. It is caused by various conditions associated with the five factors affecting labor.
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21
Chapter 20: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which woman is most likely to experience strong afterpains?
A)A woman who experienced oligohydramnios
B)A woman who is a gravida 4,para 4-0-0-4
C)A woman who is bottle-feeding her infant
D)A woman whose infant weighed 5 pounds,3 ounces
Q2) Two days ago a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet from profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early postpartum period is:
A)Elevated temperature caused by postpartum infection.
B)Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth.
C)Loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy.
D)Increased venous pressure in the lower extremities.
Q3) With regard to the postpartum uterus,nurses should be aware that:
A)At the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g.
B)After 2 weeks postpartum it should not be palpable abdominally.
C)After 2 weeks postpartum it weighs 100 g.
D)It returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks,postpartum.
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22
Chapter 21: Nursing Care During the Fourth Trimester
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the immediate postpartum period,saturation of one pad within 2 hours is considered ____________________ blood loss.
Q2) On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago,the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse's first action is to:
A)Begin an intravenous (IV) infusion of Ringer's lactate solution.
B)Assess the woman's vital signs.
C)Call the woman's primary health care provider.
D)Massage the woman's fundus.
Q3) If a woman is at risk for thrombus and is not ready to ambulate,nurses might intervene by doing all of these interventions except:
A)Putting her in antiembolic stockings (TED hose) and/or sequential compression device (SCD) boots.
B)Having her flex,extend,and rotate her feet,ankles,and legs.
C)Having her sit in a chair.
D)Notifying the physician immediately if a positive Homans' sign occurs.
Q4) The _________________________ test is used to detect the amount of fetal blood in the maternal circulation.
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23
Chapter 22: Transition to Parenthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving birth to a healthy infant boy,a primiparous woman,16,is admitted to the postpartum unit. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for her at this time is risk for impaired parenting related to deficient knowledge of newborn care. In planning for the woman's discharge,what should the nurse be certain to include in the plan of care?
A)Tell the woman how to feed and bathe her infant.
B)Give the woman written information on bathing her infant.
C)Advise the woman that all mothers instinctively know how to care for their infants.
D)Provide time for the woman to bathe her infant after she views an infant bath demonstration.
Q2) After birth a crying infant may be soothed by being held in a position in which the newborn can hear the mother's heartbeat. This phenomenon is known as:
A)Entrainment.
B)Reciprocity.
C)Synchrony.
D)Biorhythmicity.
Q3) ____________________ is the process by which the parent and infant come to love and accept each other.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite popular belief,there is a rare type of hemophilia that affects women of childbearing age. von Willebrand disease is the most common of the hereditary bleeding disorders and can affect males and females alike. It results from a factor VIII deficiency and platelet dysfunction. Although factor VIII levels increase naturally during pregnancy,there is an increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage from birth until 4 weeks after delivery as levels of von Willebrand factor (vWf) and factor VIII decrease. The treatment that should be considered first for the client with von Willebrand disease who experiences a postpartum hemorrhage is:
A)Cryoprecipitate.
B)Factor VIII and vWf.
C)Desmopressin.
D)Hemabate.
Q2) To provide adequate postpartum care,the nurse should be aware that postpartum depression (PPD) with psychotic features:
A)Is more likely to occur in women with more than two children.
B)Is rarely delusional and then usually about someone trying to harm her (the mother).
C)Although serious,is not likely to need psychiatric hospitalization.
D)May include bipolar disorder (formerly called "manic depression").
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Physiologic Adaptations of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason hyperthermia develops more rapidly in the newborn than in the adult is that sweat glands have not formed yet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) While assessing the newborn,the nurse should be aware that the average expected apical pulse range of a full-term,quiet,alert newborn is:
A)80 to 100 beats/min.
B)100 to 120 beats/min.
C)120 to 160 beats/min.
D)150 to 180 beats/min.
Q3) A new mother states that her infant must be cold because the baby's hands and feet are blue. The nurse explains that this is a common and temporary condition called: A)Acrocyanosis.
B)Erythema neonatorum.
C)Harlequin color.
D)Vernix caseosa.
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Chapter 25: Nursing Care of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain should be assessed regularly in all newborn infants. If the infant is displaying physiologic or behavioral cues indicating pain,measures should be taken to manage the pain. Examples of nonpharmacologic pain management techniques include (choose all that apply):
A)Swaddling.
B)Nonnutritive sucking.
C)Skin-to-skin contact with the mother.
D)Sucrose.
E)Acetaminophen.
Q2) As part of Standard Precautions,nurses wear gloves when handling the newborn. The chief reason is:
A)To protect the baby from infection.
B)That it is part of the Apgar protocol.
C)To protect the nurse from contamination by the newborn.
D)Because the nurse has primary responsibility for the baby during the first 2 hours.
Q3) The nurse is performing a blood glucose test every 4 hours on an infant born to a diabetic mother. This is to assess the infant's risk of hypoglycemia. The nurse becomes concerned if the infant's blood glucose concentration falls below _____ mg/dl.
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Chapter 26: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nurses should be able to tell breastfeeding mothers that all of these are signs that the infant has latched on correctly to her breast except:
A)She feels a firm tugging sensation on her nipples but not pinching or pain.
B)The baby sucks with cheeks rounded,not dimpled.
C)The baby's jaw glides smoothly with sucking.
D)She hears a clicking or smacking sound.
Q2) A primiparous woman is delighted with her newborn son and wants to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible. The nurse can facilitate the infant's correct latch-on by helping the woman hold the infant:
A)With his arms folded together over his chest.
B)Curled up in a fetal position.
C)With his head cupped in her hand.
D)With his head and body in alignment.
Q3) Benefits to the mother associated with breastfeeding include all except:
A)They have a decreased risk of breast cancer.
B)It is an effective method of birth control.
C)It increases bone density.
D)It may enhance postpartum weight loss.
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Chapter 27: Infants With Gestational Age-Related Problems
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38145
Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to small for gestational age (SGA) infants and intrauterine growth restrictions (IUGR),nurses should be aware that:
A)In the first trimester diseases or abnormalities result in asymmetric IUGR.
B)Infants with asymmetric IUGR have the potential for normal growth and development.
C)In asymmetric IUGR weight will be slightly more than SGA,whereas length and head circumference will be somewhat less than SGA.
D)Symmetric IUGR occurs in the later stages of pregnancy.
Q2) An infant at 36 weeks of gestation has increasing respirations (80 to 100 breaths/min with marked substernal retractions). The infant is given oxygen by continuous nasal positive airway pressure. Which arterial oxygen level would indicate hypoxia?
A)PaO<sub>2</sub> of 67
B)PaO<sub>2</sub> of 89
C)PaO<sub>2</sub> of 45
D)PaO<sub>2</sub> of 73
Q3) The corrected age of an infant who was born at 25 1/7 weeks and is preparing for discharge 124 days past delivery is ____________________.
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Chapter 28: The Newborn at Risk: Acquired and Congenital Problems
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38146
Sample Questions
Q1) Near the end of the first week of life an infant who has not been treated for any infection develops a copper-colored,maculopapular rash on the palms and around the mouth and anus. The newborn is showing signs of:
A)Gonorrhea.
B)Herpes simplex virus infection.
C)Congenital syphilis.
D)Human immunodeficiency virus.
Q2) Many common drugs of abuse cause significant physiologic and behavioral problems in infants who are breastfed by mothers currently using (choose all that apply):
A)Amphetamine.
B)Heroin.
C)Nicotine.
D)PCP.
E)Morphine.
Q3) The most common cause of pathologic hyperbilirubinemia is:
A)Hepatic disease.
B)Hemolytic disorders in the newborn.
C)Postmaturity.
D)Congenital heart defect.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Contemporary Pediatric Nursing
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38147
Sample Questions
Q1) The type of injury a child is especially susceptible to at a specific age is most closely related to:
A)Physical health of the child.
B)Developmental level of the child.
C)Educational level of the child.
D)Number of responsible adults in the home.
Q2) From a worldwide perspective,infant mortality in the United States:
A)Is the highest of the other developed nations.
B)Lags behind five other developed nations.
C)Is the lowest infant death rate of developed nations.
D)Lags behind 20 other developed nations.
Q3) The nursing process is a method of problem identification and problem solving that describes what the nurse actually does. The five steps include (choose all that apply):
A)Assessment.
B)Diagnosis.
C)Planning.
D)Identification.
E)Implementation.
F) Evaluation
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Community-Based Nursing Care of the Child and Family
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38148
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is collecting subjective and objective information about the target population to diagnose problems based on community needs. Which step in the community nursing process is this?
A)Planning
B)Diagnosis
C)Assessment
D)Establishing objectives
Q2) Demography is the study of population characteristics. Which demographic characteristic would be associated with an increased risk for hemophilia?
A)Age
B)Race and ethnicity
C)Gender
D)Socioeconomic status
Q3) Which term best describes the identification of the distribution and causes of disease,injury,or illness?
A)Nursing process
B)Epidemiologic process
C)Community-based statistics
D)Mortality and morbidity statistics
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Chapter 31: Family Influences on Child Health Promotion
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nicole and Kelly,age 5 years,are identical twins. Their parents tell the nurse that the girls always want to be together. The nurse's suggestions should be based on knowing that:
A)Some twins thrive best when they are constantly together.
B)Individuation cannot occur if twins are together too much.
C)Separating twins at an early age helps them develop mentally.
D)When twins are constantly together,pathologic bonding occurs.
Q2) Birth position of children affects their personalities. What is considered to be a characteristic of children who are the youngest in their family?
A)More dependent than firstborn children.
B)More outgoing than firstborn children.
C)Identify more with parents than with peers.
D)Are subject to greater parental expectations.
Q3) What is most characteristic of the physical punishment of children,such as spanking?
A)Psychologic impact is usually minimal.
B)Children rarely become accustomed to spanking.
C)Children's development of reasoning increases.
D)Misbehavior is likely to occur when parents are not present.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Social,cultural and Religious Influences on
Child Health Promotion
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38150
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse discovers welts on the back of a Vietnamese child during a home health visit. The child's mother says that she has rubbed the edge of a coin on her child's oiled skin. The nurse should recognize that this is:
A)Child abuse.
B)A cultural practice to rid the body of disease.
C)A cultural practice to treat enuresis or temper tantrums.
D)A child discipline measure common in the Vietnamese culture.
Q2) Currently the fastest-growing segment of the homeless population in the United States consists of:
A)Families.
B)"Runaway" adolescents.
C)Migrant farm workers.
D)Individuals with mental disorders.
Q3) Which term best describes the emotional attitude that one's own ethnic group is superior to others?
A)Culture
B)Ethnicity
C)Superiority
D)Ethnocentrism
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Developmental Influences on Child Health Promotion
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child's skeletal age is best determined by:
A)Assessment of dentition.
B)Assessment of height over time.
C)Facial bone development.
D)Radiographs of the hand and wrist.
Q2) Which behavior is most characteristic of the concrete operations stage of cognitive development?
A)Progression from reflex activity to imitative behavior
B)Inability to put oneself in another's place
C)Increasingly logical and coherent thought processes
D)Ability to think in abstract terms and draw logical conclusions
Q3) Which function of play is a major component of play at all ages?
A)Creativity
B)Socialization
C)Intellectual development
D)Sensorimotor activity
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35
Chapter 34: Communication, history, physical and Developmental Assessment
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38152
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is seeing an adolescent boy and his parents in the clinic for the first time. What should the nurse do first?
A)Introduce self.
B)Make the family comfortable.
C)Explain the purpose of the interview.
D)Give an assurance of privacy.
Q2) The nurse is using the NCHS growth chart for an African-American child. The nurse should consider that:
A)This growth chart should not be used.
B)Growth patterns of African-American children are the same as for all other ethnic groups.
C)A correction factor is necessary when the NCHS growth chart is used for non-Caucasian ethnic groups.
D)The NCHS charts are accurate for U.S. African-American children.
Q3) An appropriate approach to performing a physical assessment on a toddler is to:
A)Always proceed in a head-to-toe direction.
B)Perform traumatic procedures first.
C)Use minimal physical contact initially.
D)Demonstrate use of equipment.
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Pain Assessment and Management
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38153
Sample Questions
Q1) Kyle,age 6 months,is brought to the clinic. His parent says,"I think he hurts. He cries and rolls his head from side to side a lot." This most likely suggests which feature of pain?
A)Type
B)Severity
C)Duration
D)Location
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child receiving intravenous (IV) morphine for severe postoperative pain. The nurse observes a slower respiratory rate,and the child cannot be aroused. The most appropriate management of this child is for the nurse to:
A)Administer naloxone (Narcan).
B)Discontinue IV infusion.
C)Discontinue morphine until child is fully awake.
D)Stimulate child by calling name,shaking gently,and asking to breathe deeply.
Q3) Physiologic measurements in children's pain assessment are:
A)The best indicator of pain in children of all ages.
B)Essential to determine whether a child is telling the truth about pain.
C)Of most value when children also report having pain.
D)Of limited value as sole indicator of pain.
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Chapter 36: The Infant and Family
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38154
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation is:
A)Playing peek-a-boo.
B)Playing pat-a-cake.
C)Imitating animal sounds.
D)Showing how to clap hands.
Q2) Sara,age 4 months,was born at 35 weeks' gestation. She seems to be developing normally,but her parents are concerned because she is a "more difficult" baby than their other child,who was term. The nurse should explain that:
A)Infants' temperaments are part of their unique characteristics.
B)Infants become less difficult if they are not kept on scheduled feedings and structured routines.
C)Sara's behavior is suggestive of failure to bond completely with her parents.
D)Sara's difficult temperament is the result of painful experiences in the neonatal period.
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Chapter 37: The Toddler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38155
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is correct about toilet training?
A)Bladder training is usually accomplished before bowel training.
B)Wanting to please the parent helps motivate the child to use the toilet.
C)Watching older siblings use the toilet confuses the child.
D)Children must be forced to sit on the toilet when first learning.
Q2) The most fatal type of burn in the toddler age group is:
A)Flame burn from playing with matches.
B)Scald burn from high-temperature tap water.
C)Hot object burn from cigarettes or irons.
D)Electric burn from electrical outlets.
Q3) The leading cause of death during the toddler period is:
A)Injuries.
B)Infectious diseases.
C)Congenital disorders.
D)Childhood diseases.
Q4) An appropriate recommendation in preventing tooth decay in young children is to:
A)Substitute raisins for candy.
B)Serve sweets after a meal.
C)Use honey or molasses instead of refined sugar.
D)Serve sweets between meals.
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Chapter 38: The Preschooler and Family
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38156
Sample Questions
Q1) The parent of a 4-year-old son tells the nurse that the child believes "monsters and boogeyman" are in his bedroom at night. The nurse's best suggestion for coping with this problem is to:
A)Insist that the child sleep with his parents until the fearful phase passes.
B)Suggest involving the child to find a practical solution such as a night light.
C)Help the child understand that these fears are illogical.
D)Tell the child frequently that monsters and boogeyman do not exist.
Q2) Preschoolers' fears can best be dealt with by:
A)Actively involving them in finding practical methods to deal with the frightening experience.
B)Forcing them to confront the frightening object or experience in the presence of their parents.
C)Using logical persuasion to explain away their fears and help them recognize how unrealistic the fears are.
D)Ridiculing their fears so they understand that there is no need to be afraid.
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Chapter 39: The School-Age Child and Family
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38157
Sample Questions
Q1) Generally the earliest age at which puberty begins is:
A)13 years in girls,13 years in boys
B)11 years in girls,11 years in boys
C)10 years in girls;12 years in boys
D)12 years in girls,10 years in boys
Q2) Turner's syndrome is suspected in an adolescent girl with short stature. This is caused by:
A)Absence of one of the X chromosomes.
B)Presence of an incomplete Y chromosome.
C)Precocious puberty in an otherwise healthy child.
D)Excess production of both androgens and estrogens.
Q3) An important consideration for the school nurse who is planning a class on bicycle safety is:
A)Most bicycle injuries involve collision with an automobile.
B)Head injuries are the major causes of bicycle-related fatalities.
C)Children should wear bicycle helmets if they ride on paved streets.
D)Children should not ride double unless the bicycle has an extra-large seat.
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Chapter 40: The Adolescent and Family
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38158
Sample Questions
Q1) In girls the initial indication of puberty is:
A)Menarche.
B)Growth spurt.
C)Growth of pubic hair.
D)Breast development.
Q2) The nurse is caring for an adolescent brought to the hospital with acute drug toxicity.
Cocaine is believed to be the drug involved. Data collection should include the:
A)Mode of administration.
B)Actual content of the drug.
C)Function the drug plays in the adolescent's life.
D)Adolescent's level of interest in rehabilitation.
Q3) Matt,age 14 years,seems to be always eating,although his weight is appropriate for his height. The best explanation for this is:
A)This is normal because of increase in body mass.
B)This is abnormal and suggestive of future obesity.
C)His caloric intake would have to be excessive.
D)He is substituting food for unfilled needs.
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Chapter 41: Chronic Illness, Disability and End of Life Care
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38159
Sample Questions
Q1) At what age do most children have an adult concept of death as being inevitable,universal,and irreversible?
A)4 to 5 years
B)6 to 8 years
C)9 to 11 years
D)12 to 16 years
Q2) The nurse is talking with the parents of a child who died 6 months ago. They sometimes still "hear" the child's voice and have trouble sleeping. They describe feeling "empty" and depressed. The nurse should recognize that:
A)These are normal grief responses.
B)The pain of the loss is usually less by this time.
C)These grief responses are more typical of the early stages of grief.
D)This grieving is essential until the pain is gone and the child is gradually forgotten.
Q3) The loss of a child is often the most difficult and traumatic event that a parent will ever experience. For this reason the parents should never be approached regarding organ donation.
A)True
B)False
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43
Chapter 42: Impact of Cognitive or Sensory Impairment on the Child and Family
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38160
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse would suspect possible visual impairment in a child who displays:
A)Excessive rubbing of the eyes.
B)Rapid lateral movement of the eyes.
C)Delay in speech development.
D)Lack of interest in casual conversation with peers.
Q2) Fragile X syndrome is:
A)A chromosome defect affecting only females.
B)A chromosome defect that follows the pattern of X-linked recessive disorders.
C)The second most common genetic cause of cognitive impairment.
D)The most common cause of noninherited cognitive impairment.
Q3) The school nurse is caring for a child with a penetrating eye injury. Emergency treatment includes:
A)Applying a regular eye patch.
B)Applying a Fox shield to the affected eye and any type of patch to the other eye.
C)Applying ice until the physician is seen.
D)Irrigating eye copiously with a sterile saline solution.
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Chapter 43: Family-Centered Home Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home care nurse has been visiting an adolescent with recently acquired quadriplegia. The teen's mother tells the nurse,"I'm sick of providing all the care while my husband does whatever he wants,whenever he wants to do it. The initial action of the nurse is to:
A)Refer mother for counseling.
B)Listen and reflect mother's feelings.
C)Ask father in private why he does not help.
D)Suggest ways the mother can get her husband to help.
Q2) The home health nurse outlines short- and long-term goals for a 10-year-old child with many complex health problems. Who should agree on these goals?
A)Family and nurse
B)Child,family,and nurse
C)All professionals involved
D)Child,family,and all professionals involved
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Chapter 44: Reaction to Illness and Hospitalization
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14 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Natasha,age 8 years,is being admitted to the hospital from the emergency department with an injury from falling off her bicycle. What will help her most in her adjustment to the hospital?
A)Explain hospital schedules such as mealtimes.
B)Use terms such as "honey" and "dear" to show a caring attitude.
C)Explain when parents can visit and why siblings cannot come to see her.
D)Orient her parents,because she is young,to her room and hospital facility.
Q2) Kimberly,age 3 years,is being admitted for about 1 week of hospitalization. Her parents tell the nurse that they are going to buy her "a lot of new toys because she will be in the hospital." The nurse's reply should be based on an understanding that:
A)New toys make hospitalization easier.
B)New toys are usually better than older ones for children of this age.
C)At this age children often need the comfort and reassurance of familiar toys from home.
D)Buying new toys for a hospitalized child is a maladaptive way to cope with parental guilt.
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Chapter 45: Pediatric Variations of Nursing Interventions
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38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38163
Sample Questions
Q1) Kimberly,age 3 years,has a fever associated with a viral illness. Her mother calls the nurse,reporting a fever of 102° F even though she had acetaminophen 2 hours ago. The nurse's action should be based on knowing that:
A)Fevers such as this are common with viral illnesses.
B)Seizures are common in children when antipyretics are ineffective.
C)Fever over 102° F indicates greater severity of illness.
D)Fever over 102° F indicates a probable bacterial infection.
Q2) In preparing to give "enemas until clear" to a young child,the nurse should select:
A)Tap water.
B)Normal saline.
C)Oil retention.
D)Fleet solution.
Q3) When caring for a child with an intravenous infusion,the nurse should:
A)Use a macrodropper to facilitate reaching the prescribed flow rate.
B)Avoid restraining the child to prevent undue emotional stress.
C)Change the insertion site every 24 hours.
D)Observe the insertion site frequently for signs of infiltration.
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Respiratory Dysfunction
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38164
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent whose two school-age children have asthma asks the nurse in what sports,if any,they can participate. The nurse should recommend:
A)Soccer.
B)Running.
C)Swimming.
D)Basketball.
Q2) Cystic fibrosis (CF) is suspected in a toddler. Which test is essential in establishing this diagnosis?
A)Bronchoscopy
B)Serum calcium
C)Urine creatinine
D)Sweat chloride test
Q3) Which type of croup is always considered a medical emergency?
A)Laryngitis
B)Epiglottitis
C)Spasmodic croup
D)Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
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Chapter 47: Gastrointestinal Dysfunction
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process that may involve any part of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from mouth to anus?
A)Crohn's disease
B)Ulcerative colitis
C)Meckel's diverticulum
D)Irritable bowel syndrome
Q2) A family who excludes meat from their diet but consumes dairy products would be referred to as ________________________ vegetarians.
Q3) Which statement is most descriptive of Meckel's diverticulum?
A)It is more common in females than in males.
B)It is acquired during childhood.
C)Intestinal bleeding may be mild or profuse.
D)Medical interventions are usually sufficient to treat the problem.
Q4) Caring for the newborn with a cleft lip and palate before surgical repair includes:
A)Gastrostomy feedings.
B)Keeping the infant in near-horizontal position during feedings.
C)Allowing little or no sucking.
D)Providing satisfaction of sucking needs.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Cardiovascular Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seventy-two hours after cardiac surgery,a young child has a temperature of 37.7° C (101° F). The nurse should:
A)Keep the child warm with blankets.
B)Apply a hypothermia blanket.
C)Record the temperature on nurses' notes.
D)Report findings to physician.
Q2) The primary nursing intervention to prevent bacterial endocarditis is to:
A)Institute measures to prevent dental procedures.
B)Counsel parents of high-risk children about prophylactic antibiotics.
C)Observe children for complications such as embolism and heart failure.
D)Encourage restricted mobility in susceptible children.
Q3) A major clinical manifestation of rheumatic fever is:
A)Polyarthritis.
B)Osler nodes.
C)Janeway spots.
D)Splinter hemorrhages of distal third of nails.
Q4) Obtain vascular access.
A) Administer epinephrine.
B) Keep child warm and calm.
C) Obtain vascular access.
Page 50
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Chapter 49: Hematologic and Immunologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A school-age child is admitted in vasoocclusive sickle cell crisis. The child's care should include:
A)Correction of acidosis.
B)Adequate hydration and pain management.
C)Pain management and administration of heparin.
D)Adequate oxygenation and replacement of factor VIII.
Q2) The nurse is recommending how to prevent iron deficiency anemia in a healthy,term,breastfed infant. What should he or she suggest?
A)Iron (ferrous sulfate) drops after age 1 month.
B)Iron-fortified commercial formula can be used by ages 4 to 6 months.
C)Iron-fortified infant cereal can be used by age 2 months.
D)Iron-fortified infant cereal can be used at approximately 6 months of age.
Q3) A possible cause of acquired aplastic anemia in children is:
A)Drugs.
B)Injury.
C)Deficient diet.
D)Congenital defect.
Q4) Nose bleeding,also known as __________________,is common in childhood. The bleeding ordinarily stops spontaneously or with minimal pressure.
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Chapter 50: Genitourinary Dysfunction
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Therapeutic management of nephrosis includes:
A)Corticosteroids.
B)Antihypertensive agents.
C)Long-term diuretics.
D)Increased fluids to promote diuresis.
Q2) A major complication in a child with chronic renal failure is:
A)Hypokalemia.
B)Metabolic alkalosis.
C)Water and sodium retention.
D)Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen.
Q3) The narrowing of the preputial opening of foreskin is called:
A)Chordee.
B)Phimosis.
C)Epispadias.
D)Hypospadias.
Q4) The diet of a child with chronic renal failure is usually characterized as:
A)High in protein.
B)Low in vitamin D.
C)Low in phosphorus.
D)Supplemented with vitamins A,E,and K.
52
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Chapter 51: Cerebral Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What may be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reye's syndrome?
A)Immunization against the disease
B)Medical attention for all head injuries
C)Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis
D)Avoidance of aspirin and ibuprofen for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza
Q2) What best describes a neuroblastoma?
A)Diagnosis is usually made after metastasis occurs.
B)Early diagnosis is usually possible because of the obvious clinical manifestations.
C)It is the most common brain tumor in young children.
D)It is the most common benign tumor in young children.
Q3) The nurse is assessing a child who was just admitted to the hospital for observation after a head injury. The most essential part of the nursing assessment to detect early signs of a worsening condition is:
A)Posturing.
B)Vital signs.
C)Focal neurologic signs.
D)Level of consciousness.
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Chapter 52: Endocrine Dysfunction
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26 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neonate born with ambiguous genitalia is diagnosed with congenital adrenogenital hyperplasia. Therapeutic management includes administration of:
A)Vitamin D.
B)Cortisone.
C)Stool softeners.
D)Calcium carbonate.
Q2) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is suspected in an adolescent. Which clinical manifestation may be present?
A)Moist skin
B)Weight gain
C)Fluid overload
D)Poor wound healing
Q3) Manifestations of hypoglycemia include:
A)Lethargy.
B)Thirst.
C)Nausea and vomiting.
D)Shaky feeling and dizziness.
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54
Chapter 53: Integumentary Dysfunction
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43 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A toddler sustains a minor burn on the hand from hot coffee. The first action in treating this burn is to:
A)Apply ice to burned area.
B)Hold the burned area under cool running water.
C)Break any blisters with a sterile needle.
D)Clean the wound with soap and warm water.
Q2) The nurse is examining 12-month-old Amy,who was brought to the clinic for persistent diaper rash. The nurse finds perianal inflammation with satellite lesions that cross the inguinal folds. This is most likely caused by:
A)Impetigo.
B)Candida albicans.
C)Urine and feces.
D)Infrequent diapering.
Q3) A child steps on a nail and sustains a puncture wound of the foot. The most appropriate method for cleansing this wound is to:
A)Wash wound thoroughly with chlorhexidine.
B)Wash wound thoroughly with povidone-iodine.
C)Soak foot in warm water and soap.
D)Soak foot in solution of 50% hydrogen peroxide and 50% water.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 55
Chapter 54: Musculoskeletal or Articular Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38172
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of traction uses skin traction on the lower leg and a padded sling under the knee?
A)Dunlop
B)Bryant
C)Russell
D)Buck extension
Q2) What effect does immobilization have on metabolism?
A)Hypocalcemia
B)Decreased metabolic rate
C)Positive nitrogen balance
D)Increased production of stress hormones
Q3) The nurse uses the palms of the hands when handling a wet cast to:
A)Assess dryness of the cast.
B)Facilitate easy turning.
C)Keep the patient's limb balanced.
D)Avoid indenting the cast.
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Chapter 55: Neuromuscular or Muscular Dysfunction
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/38173
Sample Questions
Q1) Latex allergy is suspected in a child with spina bifida. Appropriate nursing interventions include:
A)Avoiding using any latex product.
B)Using only nonallergenic latex products.
C)Administering medication for long-term desensitization.
D)Teaching the family about long-term management of asthma.
Q2) The most common problem of children born with a myelomeningocele is:
A)Neurogenic bladder.
B)Cognitive impairment.
C)Respiratory compromise.
D)Cranioschisis.
Q3) A 14-year-old girl is in the intensive care unit after a spinal cord injury 2 days ago. Nursing care for this child includes (choose all that apply):
A)Monitoring and maintaining systemic blood pressure.
B)Administering corticosteroids.
C)Minimizing environmental stimuli.
D)Discussing long-term care issues with the family.
E)Monitoring for respiratory complications.
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