Pediatric Nursing Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Nursing focuses on the specialized care of infants, children, and adolescents, emphasizing growth and development, family-centered care, and evidence-based practice. The course covers common pediatric illnesses, developmental milestones, communication techniques with children and families, pediatric assessment, and therapeutic interventions. Students learn to recognize unique physiological and psychological needs, apply age-appropriate care strategies, and collaborate effectively with interdisciplinary teams to support the health and wellbeing of pediatric patients across various healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by Kathryn L. McCance
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50 Chapters
1557 Verified Questions
1557 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
A)Lipids
B)Proteases
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
Answer: C
Q2) A student asks for an explanation of the absolute refractory period of the action potential. What response by the professor is best?
A)A stronger than normal impulse will evoke another response.
B)No stimulus is able to evoke another response at this time.
C)Multiple stimuli can produce more rapid action potentials.
D)The hyperpolarized state means a weaker stimulus produces a response. Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
A)Respiratory distress
B)Sun intolerance
C)DNA aberrations
D)Death
Answer: C
Q2) A healthcare professional is assessing a child whose parents report poor grades in school, trouble paying attention, and "naughty" behaviors that have become so frequent the child is always in trouble. For which health condition should the professional facilitate testing?
A)Hypoxic injury
B)Lead poisoning
C)Mercury exposure
D)Cadmium injection
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes,
Acids and Bases
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient should the professional assess for hyperkalemia?
A)Hyperparathyroidism
B)Vomiting
C)Renal failure
D)Hyperaldosteronism
Answer: C
Q2) A patient in the hospital has hypernatremia. What condition should the healthcare professional assess for?
A)Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
B)Hypersecretion of aldosterone
C)Brief bouts of vomiting or diarrhea
D)Excessive diuretic therapy
Answer: B
Q3) Where is two thirds of the body's water found?
A)Interstitial fluid spaces
B)Vascular system
C)Intracellular fluid compartments
D)Intraocular fluids
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an important criterion for discerning autosomal recessive inheritance?
A)Consanguinity is sometimes present.
B)Females are affected more than males.
C)The disease is observed in both the parents, as well as in the siblings.
D)On average, one half of the offspring of the carrier will be affected.
Q2) In DNA replication, what does the enzyme DNA polymerase do?
A)Travel along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand
B)Move along the double strand of DNA to unwind the nucleotides of the double helix
C)Hold the double strand apart while the correct nucleotides are added to the strand
D)Transport the double strand of DNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein formation
Q3) Consanguinity refers to the mating of people in what situation?
A)Who are unrelated
B)When one has an autosomal dominant disorder
C)Having common family relations
D)When one has a chromosomal abnormality
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity by affecting what?
A)Regulation of appetite
B)Metabolizing of fat
C)Absorption of fat
D)Altering the sense of satiety
Q2) A parent wants to know how to prevent type 1 diabetes in the newborn. The healthcare professional explains that prevention is not possible, because which of these is a major characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A)Partial insulin secretion
B)An autoimmune cause factor
C)Insulin resistance
D)Obesity as a common risk factor
Q3) Which disease form is associated with identified empirical risks?
A)Polygenic
B)Multifactorial
C)Monozygotic
D)Genetic
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of Angelman syndrome in a child is supported by which assessment findings? (Select all that apply.)
A)Small feet and hands
B)Profound intellectual disability
C)Obesity
D)Ataxic gait
E)History of seizures
Q2) Prader-Willi syndrome causes a chromosomal defect that is what?
A)Initiated by postnatal exposure to a virus
B)Inherited from the father
C)Related to maternal alcohol abuse
D)Transferred from mother to child
Q3) Which statement is true regarding the embryonic development of stem cells?
A)They are already differentiated.
B)They are referred to as housekeeping genes.
C)They already demonstrate DNA sequencing.
D)They are said to be totipotent.
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells?
A)IL-1
B)IL-10
C)TNF-a
D)IFN-a
Q2) Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages?
A)Complement cascade
B)Coagulation system
C)Kinin system
D)Immune system
Q3) Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids, as well as lactic acid?
A)Optic tears
B)Oral saliva
C)Sweat gland perspiration
D)Sebaceous gland sebum
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
A)Yeast
B)Cancer cells
C)Bacteria
D)Fungus
Q2) An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgA
D)IgE
Q3) Which cell has a role in developing cell-mediated immunity?
A)Th1
B)CD4
C)CD8
D)Th2
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of these?
A)No antigens
B)No antibodies
C)Both A and B antigens
D)Both A and B antibodies
Q2) Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigens for blood type?
A)Platelets
B)Neutrophils
C)Lymphocytes
D)Erythrocytes
Q3) When mismatched blood is administered causing an ABO incompatibility, how are the erythrocytes destroyed?
A)Complement-mediated cell lysis
B)Phagocytosis by macrophages
C)Phagocytosis in the spleen
D)Natural killer cells
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Chapter 10: Infection
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Yeasts
Q2) Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do natural killer (NK) cells actively attack?
A)Bacteria
B)Fungi
C)Viruses
D)Mycoplasma
Q3) What is the ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host referred to as?
A)Infectivity
B)Toxigenicity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an anticipatory response to stress, what is the reaction from the limbic system stimulated by?
A)The retronucleus of the anterior pituitary
B)The anterior nucleus of the hippocampus
C)The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
D)The prefrontal nucleus of the amygdala
Q2) A severely stressed patient has cold, clammy skin. The healthcare professional quizzes the student about this effect. The student correctly answers that this effect is directly from which action?
A)Epinephrine dilating blood vessels leading to the vital organs
B)Norepinephrine constricting blood vessels in the skin
C)Dilating the airways to increased oxygenation of the tissues
D)Dysfunctional temperature regulation from cortisol secretion
Q3) Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Hypothalamus
C)Anterior pituitary
D)Limbic system
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are tumor cell markers?
A)Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells
B)Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked
C)Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells
D)Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy
Q2) By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?
A)Proto-oncogene
B)Autocrine stimulation
C)Reliance on caretaker genes
D)Pleomorphology
Q3) How does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene?
A)Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome
B)Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies
C)Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs
D)Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional wants to work on community projects that would include strategies to reduce the risk of developing cancer. Which projects should the professional volunteer for? (Select all that apply.)
A)Offering free smoking cessation classes to college students
B)Establishing a support group for patients receiving chemotherapy
C)Providing a breast cancer screening at a senior center twice a year
D)Supplying low sugar, low-fat snacks at an after-school tutoring program
E)Funding a support service that offers transportation to cancer treatment centers
Q2) Which cancers pose the highest risk for radiologists?
A)Thyroid
B)Breast
C)Leukemia
D)Brain
Q3) Tobacco smoking is associated with which cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Lung
B)Skin
C)Bladder
D)Kidney
E)Pancreas
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed?
A)During infancy
B)At peak times of physical growth
C)After diagnosis of a chronic illness
D)After an acute illness
Q2) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A)Wilms tumor
B)Retinoblastoma
C)Osteosarcoma
D)Rhabdomyosarcoma
Q3) Research data support a carcinogenic relationship in children resulting from exposure to which virus?
A)Herpes simplex virus
B)Influenza
C)Varicella-zoster virus
D)Epstein-Barr virus
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Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for involuntary muscle control and for maintaining balance and posture?
A)Cerebrum
B)Cerebellum
C)Diencephalon
D)Brainstem
Q2) Both oligodendroglia and Schwann cells share the ability to do what?
A)Form a myelin sheath
B)Remove cellular debris
C)Transport nutrients
D)Line the ventricles
Q3) Which of the meninges closely adheres to the surface of the brain and spinal cord and follows the sulci and fissures?
A)Dura mater
B)Arachnoid
C)Pia mater
D)Inner dura
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and
Sensory Function
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does heat exhaustion result in? (Select all that apply.)
A)Profuse sweating
B)Profound vasodilation
C)A need to ingest cool liquids
D)Permanent damage to the hypothalamus
E)An increased risk for future heat exhaustion
Q2) Which type of nerve fibers transmits pain impulses?
A)A-alpha (Aa) fibers
B)A-beta (Ab) fibers
C)A-delta (Ad) fibers
D)B fibers
Q3) A patient's chart describes visceral pain. What does the healthcare professional understand about this term?
A)Is sharp and well-defined when transmitted by A-delta (Ad) fibers
B)Is perceived as poorly localized and is transmitted by the sympathetic nervous system
C)Arises from connective tissue, muscle, bone, or skin
D)Is perceived as dull, aching, and poorly localized when transmitted by C fibers
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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44 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The existence of regular, deep, and rapid respirations after a severe closed head injury is indicative of neurologic injury to what?
A)Lower midbrain
B)Pontine area
C)Supratentorial
D)Cerebral area
Q2) Tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy of neurons in which part of the brain?
A)Caudate that produces serotonin
B)Putamen that produces gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Substantia nigra that produces dopamine
D)Hypothalamus that produces acetylcholine
Q3) A patient's chart notes receptive aphasia. What does the healthcare professional understand about this patient's abilities related to speech?
A)Speak in made up words.
B)Produce verbal speech, but not comprehend language.
C)Comprehend speech, but not verbally respond.
D)Neither respond verbally nor comprehend speech.
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe headache and blurred vision. What should the healthcare professional do?
A)Give the patient a glass of cool water.
B)Give the patient some pain medication.
C)Take the patient's blood pressure and pulse.
D)Facilitate the patient having a head CT scan.
Q2) A person has been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis and asks the healthcare professional to explain the disease. What description by the professional is most accurate?
A)Myelination of nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)
B)Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS
C)Development of neurofibrillary tangles in the CNS
D)Inherited autosomal dominant trait with high penetrance
Q3) Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barré syndrome are similar in that they both do what?
A)Result from demyelination by an immune reaction.
B)Cause permanent destruction of peripheral nerves.
C)Result from inadequate production of neurotransmitters.
D)Block acetylcholine receptor sites at the myoneuronal junction.
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in receptor binding for which neurotransmitter is found in individuals with depression?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Serotonin
C)Dopamine
D)Acetylcholine
Q2) A patient has started on clozapine. The healthcare professional educates the patient that this drug blocks which neurotransmitter receptor?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Serotonin
D)Dopamine
Q3) A patient has positive signs of schizophrenia and is scheduled for a brain scan. What part of the brain does the healthcare professional expect the scan will focus on?
A)Parietal lobe
B)Limbic system
C)Temporal lobe
D)Hypothalamus
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant is brought to the emergency department by parents who report that the baby's fontanels seem to be bulging outward. What action by the healthcare provider is most appropriate?
A)Assess the baby for recent trauma to the head.
B)Measure the head circumference and plot it on a growth chart.
C)Prepare the baby for a lumbar puncture and blood cultures.
D)Determine how much fluid the baby had in the last 24 hours.
Q2) A student reads in a chart that a baby was born with an encephalocele. The student asks the healthcare professional to explain this condition. What explanation by the healthcare professional is best?
A)A herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull
B)A protruding saclike cyst of meninges filled with spinal fluid and is a mild form of spina bifida
C)Protrusion of a saclike cyst containing meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in the posterior arch of a vertebra
D)Premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18 to 20 months of an infant's life
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Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are actions of glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreasing muscle cell reuptake of glucose
B)Fat storage
C)Decreased blood glucose
D)Carbohydrate metabolism
E)Liver gluconeogenesis
Q2) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. What is this an example of?
A)Positive feedback
B)Negative feedback
C)Neural regulation
D)Physiologic regulation
Q3) What is the action of calcitonin?
A)Increases metabolism
B)Decreases metabolism
C)Increases serum calcium
D)Decreases serum calcium
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23
Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism? (Select all that apply.)
A)Intolerance to heat
B)Restlessness
C)Constipation
D)Bradycardia
E)Lethargy
Q2) The effects of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion include which solute?
A)Sodium and water retention
B)Sodium retention and water loss
C)Sodium dilution and water retention
D)Sodium dilution and water loss
Q3) A person has hypothyroidism. What chemical does the healthcare professional advise the person to include in the diet?
A)Iron
B)Iodine
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
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24
Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which individual does the health care professional determine is obese?
A)Body mass index 23 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
B)Body mass index 25 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
C)Body mass index 29 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
D)Body mass index 32 kg/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A student learning about the effects of obesogens discovers what information about them? (Select all that apply.)
A)Can be found in personal care products
B)Cannot cross the placental barrier
C)Can be transmitted through breast milk
D)Are limited to a single genetic defect
E)Have been associated with pesticide exposure
Q3) A family is concerned that their most elderly member is not eating. What information about the anorexia of aging does the health care professional provide the family?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Usually there is a direct cause that can be treated successfully.
B)Is not related to age-related changes and signifies illness
C)Decreases in saliva and the sense of taste are contributing factors.
D)Age-related loss of appetite is common finding.
E)Social stimulation at meals might promote better eating habits.
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Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding the female menstrual cycle? (Select all that apply.)
A)Initial cycles may dramatically vary in length.
B)By adulthood, the commonly accepted cycle average is 28 (27 to 30) days.
C)The length of a cycle varies among women.
D)Up to 10 years before menopause, the intervals of the menstrual cycle begin to lengthen.
E)Menopause is achieved when a woman is without a period for 2 years.
Q2) What structure in the male lies posterior to the urinary bladder?
A)Seminal vesicles
B)Prostate glands
C)Cowper glands
D)Parabladder glands
Q3) Where in the male body does spermatogenesis occur?
A)Epididymis
B)Rete testis
C)Seminiferous tubules
D)Vas deferens
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman has been diagnosed with a simple fibroadenoma. What treatment does the healthcare provider educate the woman about?
A)A repeat biopsy in 6 months
B)More frequent mammograms
C)Nothing; no treatment is needed.
D)Rapid surgical excision and chemotherapy
Q2) The size of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is thought to be caused by the influence of which hormones? (Select all that apply.)
A)Progesterone
B)Estrogen
C)Luteinizing hormone
D)Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E)Growth factors
Q3) What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
A)Breast enlargement
B)Growth of pubic hair
C)Menstruation
D)Vaginal discharge
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A student in the medical clinic is reviewing a patient's medical record and sees the diagnosis of Peyronie's disease and asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of this disorder. What statement by the professional is most accurate?
A)When the man's foreskin is retracted and cannot go back over the glans
B)When the man's foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis
C)A very painful condition of prolonged erection seen in some diseases
D)A fibrotic condition that leads to curvature of the penis and sexual dysfunction
Q2) What is the most common infectious cause of orchitis in postpubertal boys?
A)Herpes
B)Escherichia coli
C)Mumps
D)Cytomegalovirus
Q3) In the 95% of boys with delayed puberty, the problem is caused by which condition?
A)Disruption in the hypothalamus
B)Disruption of the pituitary
C)Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
D)Physiologic hormonal delays
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Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis asks if her sexual partner should be treated as well. What is the appropriate response by the healthcare professional?
A)Sexual partners should be treated only if symptoms are present.
B)Sexual partners should be treated even if they are asymptomatic.
C)Infections in men are self-limiting even without treatment.
D)Sexual partners should be treated to prevent infection.
Q2) During which stage of syphilis do bloodborne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Latent
D)Tertiary
Q3) How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus?
A)Unbound in the blood via the placenta
B)Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta
C)By direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes exposed to maternal body fluids
D)Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of erythrocytes?
A)Tissue oxygenation
B)Hemostasis
C)Infection control
D)Allergy response
Q2) What change to the hematologic system is related to age?
A)Platelet adhesiveness decreases.
B)Lymphocyte function decreases.
C)Cellular immunity increases.
D)Erythrocyte reproduction accelerates.
Q3) What is plasmin's role in the clotting process?
A)Stimulates platelet aggregation.
B)Inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation.
C)Prevents the conversion of prothrombin to degrade the fibrin within blood clots.
D)Degrades the fibrin within blood clots.
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's laboratory results and sees that the patient has a low reticulocyte count and a high iron level. Which type of anemia does the professional associate these findings with?
A)Folate deficiency anemia
B)Iron deficiency anemia
C)Hemolytic anemia
D)Anemia of chronic disease
Q2) An adult patient has been hospitalized with thrombocytopenia with a platelet count of 8000/mm³. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
A)Tell the patient not to get out of bed without assistance.
B)Prepare the patient for transfusions of whole blood.
C)Educate the patient on side effects of heparin.
D)Nothing; this finding is normal in an adult.
Q3) What does treatment for polycythemia vera involve?
A)Therapeutic phlebotomy and radioactive phosphorus
B)Restoration of blood volume by plasma expanders
C)Administration of cyanocobalamin
D)Blood transfusions
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid
Function
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Q1) Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells represent malignant transformation and proliferation of which of these?
A)Interleukin (IL)-1, IL-2, IL-5, and IL-6
B)Tumor necrosis factor-beta
C)B cells
D)T cells
Q2) A person has lab drawn and the white blood cell count is much higher than normal. The healthcare professional understands which facts about this finding? (Select all that apply.)
A)The person has leukocytosis.
B)The person has leukopenia.
C)The person may have an infection.
D)The person may have a myeloproliferative disorder.
E)The person needs a bone marrow biopsy.
Q3) Which virus is associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children?
A)Cytomegalovirus
B)Adenovirus
C)Human papillomavirus
D)Epstein-Barr virus
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the common triggers for sickle cell crisis? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fever
B)Infection
C)Dehydration
D)Alkalosis
E)Exposure to the cold
Q2) How is erythroblastosis fetalis defined?
A)Allergic disease in which maternal blood and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible
B)Alloimmune disease in which maternal blood and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible
C)Autoimmune disease in immature nucleated cells that are released into the bloodstream
D)Autosomal dominant hereditary disease
Q3) Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in children?
A)Atelectasis and pneumonia
B)Edema of the hands and feet
C)Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet
D)Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The right lymphatic duct drains into which structure?
A)Right subclavian artery
B)Right atrium
C)Right subclavian vein
D)Superior vena cava
Q2) The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in which cardiac location?
A)Atria
B)Aorta
C)Sinoatrial (SA) node
D)Ventricles
Q3) Reflex control of total cardiac output and total peripheral resistance is controlled by what mechanism?
A)Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
B)Sympathetic stimulation of the heart, arterioles, and veins
C)Autonomic control of the heart only
D)Somatic control of the heart, arterioles, and veins
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) Which information regarding fatty streaks does the pathophysiology student learn? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fatty streaks progressively damage vessel walls.
B)Fatty streaks are capable of producing toxic oxygen radials.
C)When present, inflammatory changes occur to the vessel walls.
D)Oxidized low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are involved in their formation.
E)Fatty streaks are formed by killer T cells filled with oxidized LDLs.
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and has elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which complication would the health care professional assess the patient for?
A)Right heart failure
B)Left heart failure
C)Restrictive cardiomyopathy
D)Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Q3) Which laboratory test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?
A)Homocysteine
B)Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
C)Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
D)C-reactive protein (CRP)
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Q1) A baby has been born with Down syndrome. What congenital heart defect does the healthcare professional assess this baby for?
A)Coarctation of the aorta (COA)
B)Tetralogy of Fallot
C)Atrial septal defect (ASD)
D)Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
Q2) Which event triggers congenital heart defects that cause acyanotic congestive heart failure?
A)Right-to-left shunts
B)Left-to-right shunts
C)Obstructive lesions
D)Mixed lesions
Q3) Which scenario describes total anomalous pulmonary venous return?
A)The foramen ovale closes after birth.
B)Pulmonary venous return is to the right atrium.
C)Pulmonary venous return is to the left atrium.
D)The left atrium receives oxygenated blood.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Q1) Which receptors are located in the aortic bodies, aortic arch, and carotid bodies?
A)Central chemoreceptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)J-receptors
D)Peripheral chemoreceptors
Q2) Which receptors are located near the respiratory center?
A)Peripheral chemoreceptors
B)Stretch receptors
C)Central chemoreceptors
D)J-receptors
Q3) Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
A)Trachea
B)Segmental bronchi
C)Alveolocapillary membrane
D)Main bronchus
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Q1) A patient has pneumonia. For which clinical manifestations should the healthcare professional assess for? (Select all that apply.)
A)Inspiratory crackles
B)Fremitus
C)Egophony
D)Whispered pectoriloquy
E)Absence of breath sounds
Q2) A healthcare professional is educating a patient about asthma. The professional states that good control is necessary due to which pathophysiologic process?
A)Norepinephrine causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and mucus secretion but it also causes high blood pressure.
B)Uncontrolled inflammation leads to increased bronchial hyperresponsiveness and eventual scarring.
C)The release of epinephrine leads to development of cardiac dysrhythmias.
D)Immunoglobulin G causes smooth muscle contraction which will eventually weaken the respiratory muscles.
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Q1) Which statement by the professor best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A)An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B)A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging
C)A respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D)A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Q2) What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
A)Immature immune system
B)Small alveoli
C)Surfactant deficiency
D)Anemia
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Q1) What is the only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area called?
A)Proximal convoluted tubules
B)Distal tubules
C)Ascending loop of Henle
D)Descending loop of Henle
Q2) What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
A)Macula densa
B)Visceral epithelium
C)Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
D)Filtration slits
Q3) Which hormones are produced by the kidney? (Select all that apply.)
A)Renin
B)Erythropoietin
C)1,25-Dihydroxyvitamin D3
D)Calcitonin
E)Aldosterone
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are considered risk factors for developing bladder and kidney cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cigarette smoking
B)Hypertension
C)Exposure to arsenic
D)Below normal body weight
E)Male gender
Q2) The student asks the professor to explain the role of pyrophosphate, potassium citrate, and magnesium in the formation of kidney stones. What response by the professor is best?
A)They inhibit crystal growth.
B)They stimulate the supersaturation of salt.
C)They facilitate the precipitation of salts.
D)They enhance crystallization of salt crystals.
Q3) Hypercalciuria is primarily attributable to which alteration?
A)Defective renal calcium reabsorption
B)Intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium
C)Bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization
D)Hyperparathyroidism
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?
A)At birth
B)At 6 months of age
C)At puberty
D)Between the ages 18 and 21 years
Q2) The excretion of urea is low in infants because of which features? (Select all that apply.)
A)Medullary nephrons with comparatively short loops
B)Immature tubular transport capacity impairing the excretion of urea
C)High anabolic state
D)Dilute urine as a result of the immaturity of an infant's glomeruli
E)Available protein used for physical growth
Q3) Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Haemophilus
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Q1) What is the role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora?
A)Metabolizing bile salts, estrogens, and lipids
B)Breaking down proteins into amino acids
C)Facilitating the motility of the colon
D)Metabolizing aldosterone and insulin
Q2) Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?
A)Sodium
B)Phosphate
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
Q3) Which structure synthesizes clotting factors and the vitamin K necessary for hemostasis?
A)Colon
B)Spleen
C)Gallbladder
D)Liver
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Q1) What is the cause of functional dysphagia?
A)Intrinsic mechanical obstruction
B)Extrinsic mechanical obstruction
C)Tumor
D)Neural or muscular disorders
Q2) A student learns what information about acute pancreatitis?
A)Autoimmune process with IgG attacking pancreatic acinar cells
B)It is usually a severe disease with a high mortality rate.
C)Pancreatic enzymes autodigest pancreatic cells and tissues.
D)Oversecretion of pancreatic enzymes and malnutrition
Q3) How many stools per day are considered the upper limits of normal?
A)Two
B)Three
C)Five
D)Seven
Q4) How can abdominal pain that is visceral in nature best be described?
A)Diffuse, vague, poorly localized, and dull
B)It travels from a specific organ to the spinal cord.
C)The pain lateralizes from only one side of the nervous system.
D)Associated with the peristalsis of the gastrointestinal tract
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Q1) What factors can contribute to the development of a cleft lip and a cleft palate?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Maternal deficiency of B vitamins
B)Exposure to heavy metals during pregnancy
C)Maternal use of tobacco
D)Maternal diabetes mellitus
E)Trauma during pregnancy
Q2) Which term is used to identify a condition in which the developing colon remains in the upper right quadrant instead of moving to its normal location?
A)Intestinal malrotation
B)Ileocecal displacement
C)Duodenal obstruction
D)Pyloric stenosis
Q3) What causes a person with cystic fibrosis to experience an exocrine pancreatic insufficiency?
A)Pancreatic ducts are obstructed with mucus.
B)Impaired blood supply to the pancreas causes ischemia.
C)A genetically impaired pancreas is unable to produce digestive enzymes.
D)The pancreas has a volvulus at the ampulla of Vater.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) What is the function of the synovial membrane's type A cells within the intima?
A)To release mast cells, initiating the inflammatory process after joint injury
B)To ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity
C)To secrete hyaluronate, a binding agent that gives synovial fluid its viscous quality
D)To store fat cells and glycogen, providing adenosine triphosphate for joint activity
Q2) Which statement describes a neuroregulin?
A)Chemical mediator that initiates signals from the anterior horn cell of the spinal card to the axon of motor nerve branches of groups of muscle fibers
B)Neurotransmitter that provides a means of reporting changes in length, tension, velocity, and tone in muscles
C)Proteoglycan secreted by neurons, which increases acetylcholine receptors
D)Mechanoreceptor that lies parallel to muscle fibers and responds to muscle stretching
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Q1) A professor has taught the class about giant cell bone tumors. Which statement by a student would require the professor to review the material?
A)Giant cell tumors are an overexpression of genes including osteoprotegerin ligand (OPGL).
B)The tumors are malignant, solitary, and irregularly shaped.
C)Giant cell tumors are typically located in the epiphysis in the femur, tibia, radius, and humerus.
D)They are slow-growing tumors that extend over the articular cartilage.
Q2) Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured femur can result in which outcome after cast removal?
A)The muscles around the fracture site are weak.
B)The fracture requires 6 to 8 weeks of physical therapy.
C)The skin under the cast is dry and flaky.
D)The bone is not straight.
Q3) What is the tear in a ligament referred to as?
A)Fracture
B)Strain
C)Disunion
D)Sprain
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Q1) Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A)Heads of the femur
B)Distal femurs
C)Heads of the humerus
D)Distal tibias
Q2) The anatomic makeup of which bone structures make them susceptible locations for osteomyelitis in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Hip joint
B)Distal femur
C)Proximal humerus
D)Distal radius
E)Lateral ankle
Q3) The student wants to know how the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults. What answer by the healthcare professional is best?
A)JIA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation.
B)JIA predominantly affects large joints.
C)JIA has more severe joint pain than adult RA.
D)JIA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Q1) Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?
A)Sebaceous
B)Apocrine
C)Eccrine
D)Exocrine
Q2) What effects does normal aging have on the wound healing process? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased cell proliferation
B)Decreased blood supply
C)Depressed immune responses
D)Depressed appetite
E)Decreased cognitive function
Q3) A patient is brought to the Emergency Department with cold, white, waxy fingers and toes. The patient denies pain. Which intervention does the healthcare professional provide as the priority?
A)Applying local, dry heat
B)Rubbing or massaging the area
C)Immersing in warm water
D)Leaving the area uncovered
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Q1) The healthcare professional teaches a parent group that which organism causes thrush?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Streptococcus
C)Herpesvirus
D)Candida albicans
Q2) A child has been diagnosed with tinea corporis. Which lesion would the healthcare professional assess for in this condition?
A)Pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash on the face or trunk
B)Vesicles that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust
C)Circular (round or oval) lesions with erythema and scaling patches
D)Red papules, vesicles, and pustules in clusters
Q3) A parent reports a child has skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the parent about?
A)Supportive care only
B)Oral griseofulvin
C)Topical corticosteroids
D)Topical mupirocin
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Q1) Which condition does a burn injury create for an extended period?
A)Hypervolemia
B)Hypermetabolism
C)Hyponatremia
D)Hypotension
Q2) Which condition is best defined as a clinical syndrome involving a systemic response to infection, which is manifested by two or more of the systemic inflammatory response syndrome criteria?
A)Bacteremia
B)Sepsis
C)Septicemia
D)Septic shock
Q3) Hypovolemic shock begins to develop when intravascular volume has decreased by what percentage?
A)5
B)10
C)15
D)20
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Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Children
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Q1) A 4-year-old child with a burn injury has entered the catabolic flow phase. What assessment would the healthcare provider correlate with this situation?
A)Oxygen saturation normal on room air
B)7 pound weight loss in 1 week
C)Capillary refill <2 sec
D)Blood pressure 89/56 mmHg
Q2) Which cytokines are antiinflammatory mediators? (Select all that apply.)
A)IL-4
B)IL-11
C)Colony-stimulating factor
D)Nitric oxide
E)Arachidonic acid metabolites
Q3) Which assessment findings would be recognized as late signs of shock in a child? (Select all that apply.)
A)Metabolic (lactic) acidosis
B)Cool skin
C)Bradycardia
D)Prolonged capillary refill
E)Hypotension
52
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