Pediatric Health Nursing Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pediatric Health Nursing focuses on the comprehensive care of infants, children, and adolescents within the context of their families and communities. The course covers principles of growth and development, pediatric assessment, and common health conditions affecting younger populations. Emphasis is placed on health promotion, disease prevention, family-centered care, and the unique physical, psychological, and social needs of children. Students learn effective communication techniques, safe medication administration, and nursing interventions tailored to pediatric patients across varied healthcare settings, preparing them to support childrens health and well-being at every stage of development.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2235 Page 2
Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44421
Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding postnatal lung growth,by approximately what age do most of the alveoli that will be present in the lungs for life develop?
A)6 months
B)1 year
C)1.5 years
D)2 years
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following mechanisms is (are)responsible for the possible association between oligohydramnios and lung hypoplasia?
I.Abnormal carbohydrate metabolism
II.Mechanical restriction of the chest wall
III.Interference with fetal breathing
IV.Failure to produce fetal lung liquid
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following embryonic germ layers gives formation to the respiratory system?
A)Endoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Ectoderm
D)Periderm
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following anatomic structures is a (are)fetal shunt(s)?
I.Foramen ovale
II.Sinus venosus
III.Ductus venosus
IV.Ductus arteriosus
A)III only
B)I,III,and IV only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with pregestational diabetes.Which of the following risk factors should the therapist be aware at the time of delivery?
A)Unexplained abruption placenta
B)Oligohydramnios
C)Microcephaly
D)Fetal malformations
Answer: C
Q2) A therapist is called to the labor and delivery room to assist in the resuscitation of a term newborn.If necessary,what FiO should be used to start positive pressure ventilation?
A)100% and wean as needed
B)21% and make changes utilizing preductal oximetry
C)50% and wean for SPo > 88%
D)Any Fio as long as peak pressures do not exceed 20 cm H O
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors are taken into consideration when assessing the gestational age of a neonate?
I.Previous maternal pregnancies
II.Prenatal ultrasound evaluations
III.Postnatal findings based on physical and neurologic examinations
IV.Gestational duration based on the last menstrual cycle
A)I and III only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) A child who demonstrates head bobbing,nasal flaring,and grunting is exhibiting signs of ____________________.
A)respiratory distress
B)hypoxemia
C)hypercapnia
D)acidemia
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following major forces opposes inspiration?
A)Inspiratory flow
B)Surface tension
C)Airway resistance
D)Respiratory rate
Q2) Pulmonary function testing has been ordered in an infant.Which of the following represents a real risk to this infant?
A)The infant may require sedation for up to 3 hours.
B)If the infant cries,it will make the test invalid or open to misinterpretation.
C)The gases used for the PFT may be toxic for the infant.
D)The inability to feed the child 24 hours prior to the test
Q3) A child has been diagnosed with vocal cord dysfunction.Which of the following flow-volume loops demonstrates this condition?
A)Figure 5-9C
B)Figure 5-9A
C)Figure 5-9B
D)Figure 5-8B
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A therapist is examining an AP chest radiograph of a neonate and notices a structure projecting away from the mediastinum toward the right upper lung.This structure looks like a sail with a sharp inferior margin and lateral margins with wavy contours.Which of the following structures is the therapist observing?
A)Thymus
B)Right heart border
C)Aortic notch
D)Lymph node in the hilar region on the right
Q2) A therapist is viewing frontal and lateral neck X-rays of a 12-month-old child and notices what is described as the "steeple" or "church steeple" sign: subglottic narrowing below the vocal cords,and an overdistended hypopharynx.Which of the following conditions does this child likely have?
A)Laryngotracheobronchitis
B)Tracheomalacia
C)Adenoidal enlargement
D)Epiglottitis
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Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist has been asked to clean the bronchoscope after a procedure.Which of the following chemicals should be used as a high-level disinfectant?
A)Vinegar
B)Soapy water
C)5% chlorhexidine
D)2% alkaline glutaraldehyde
Q2) Which of the following medications is administered to the patient's nasal mucosa for the purpose of reducing the risk of epistaxis during a bronchoscopy procedure?
A)Lidocaine
B)Hypertonic saline
C)Phenylephrine
D)Racemic epinephrine
Q3) When using normal saline for bronchoalveolar lavage,what is the maximum amount of normal saline per kg that should be used?
A)1 mL/kg per aliquot
B)1 mL/kg total
C)2 ml/kg per lung
D)2 mL/kg total
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Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a blood gas sample is not obtained from an arterial stick in a premature baby without central access,which of the following sites should be considered because this blood vessel is larger than the radial artery at this age?
A)Dorsalis pedis
B)Temporal
C)Posterior tibial
D)Femoral
Q2) In addition to applying direct pressure to the puncture site immediately after the arterial puncture procedure,what can the therapist do to minimize the risk of hematoma formation in a patient who requires frequent radial arterial punctures?
A)Have the patient maintain the arm in an elevated position for a couple of hours after the radial puncture.
B)Have the patient shake the arm periodically throughout the day.
C)Alternate arms used for arterial puncture and use other sites as well.
D)Apply a bandage to the puncture site.
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist has been asked to measure preductal oxygen saturation.Where could the therapist place the pulse oximeter probe?
A)Right thumb
B)Left thumb
C)Forehead
D)Left earlobe
Q2) Which of the following conditions will preclude the use of indirect calorimetry?
I.Cuffed endotracheal tubes
II.Circuit leaks
III.FiO 40%
IV.HFOV
A)I,II,and III only
B)II and III only
C)II and IV only
D)I,III,and IV only
Q3) What is the purpose of indirect calorimetry?
A)To measure heat produced and lost from the body
B)To calculate energy expenditure by measuring VO and VCO
C)To calculate resting energy expenditure
D)To measure gas exchange
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Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following devices would be most appropriate to use for a 3-year-old patient who experiences immediate postextubation hypoxemia?
A)Blow-by setup
B)Partial rebreathing mask
C)Aerosol mask
D)T-piece
Q2) The therapist notices that the reservoir bag on a partial rebreathing mask being worn by a pediatric patient collapses completely during each inspiration.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Increase the oxygen flow to the device.
B)Decrease the oxygen flow to the apparatus.
C)Switch to a nonrebreathing mask.
D)Continue monitoring the patient as the device is operating correctly.
Q3) What is the minimum level of oxygen tension in a child that requires oxygen administration?
A)PaO of 80 mm Hg
B)PaO of 60 mm Hg
C)SPo of 92%
D)SPo of 95%
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A conventional jet nebulizer with a dead volume of 1 mL is filled with a 3-mL solution of albuterol.What percent of the medication is available for nebulization?
A)33%
B)50%
C)66%
D)100%
Q2) Pneumatic nebulizers operate according to which of the following physical tenets?
A)Venturi principle
B)Bernoulli principle
C)Law of continuity
D)Law of conservation of energy
Q3) Where in the ventilator circuit should a continuous jet nebulizer be placed to improve efficiency of aerosol delivery?
A)Between the "y" adapter and the endotracheal tube
B)30 cm from the ETT in the inspiratory limb
C)30 cm from the heated humidifier
D)In the expiratory limb
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13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A respiratory therapist has been assigned to administer ACT to a patient with acute lobar atelectasis.What should the RT consider to determine the length and frequency of the treatment?
I.Most pediatric patients require ACTs for at least 45 minutes.
II.ACT is rarely needed more than every 4 hours.
III.ACT orders should be evaluated at least every 48 hours for patients in the ICU.
IV.ACT for patients with atelectasis due to CF requires at least 30 to 45 minutes.
A)I,II,and III only
B)II and III only
C)III and IV only
D)II,III and IV only
Q2) A respiratory therapist has been assigned to administer FET to a 5-year-old patient.Since small children are typically unable to perform such a maneuver,what should the RT do at this time?
A)Request to cancel the order and change therapy.
B)Try to instruct the child on how to perform FET.
C)Apply gentle chest wall compression during the expiratory phase.
D)Ask the child to forcefully cough after a deep breath.
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old child is brought to the emergency department in severe respiratory distress with a diagnosis of epiglottitis.What measures must be performed to secure the child's airway?
A)The child should be immediately intubated orally in the emergency department.
B)A tracheotomy needs to be performed in the emergency department.
C)The child is in urgent need of transport to the operating room to be intubated.
D)Nebulized 2.2% racemic epinephrine needs to be given via face mask every 10 minutes.
Q2) What conditions should be met before considering decannulation?
I.Original indication for tracheostomy has resolved
II.Tolerance of a Passey-Muir valve most of the day
III.No need for suctioning
IV.Absence of fever
A)I,II,and III only
B)I and III only
C)III and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A full-term infant received surfactant as rescue therapy for RDS.Despite redosing,the infant has not been able to be extubated during the first 2 weeks of life.What should this neonate be evaluated for?
A)a1-antitrypsin deficiency
B)Vitamin B deficiency
C)SP-A deficiency
D)SP-D deficiency
Q2) A term baby with meconium aspiration syndrome is receiving mechanical ventilation per protocol.On the third day,the therapist observes that the FiO requirement is increasing and both lung compliance and oxygenation index are worsening.What should be suggested at this time?
A)Switch to a pressure-limited mode
B)High-frequency chest oscillation
C)ECMO
D)Administer surfactant
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16
Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44435
Sample Questions
Q1) How is the positive pressure level established in a bubble CPAP system?
A)The therapist dials the desired CPAP level directly on the ventilator.
B)The therapist immerses the distal end of the expiratory limb a certain distance below the water surface.
C)The CPAP level is established by stacking adaptors with weighted balls to the distal opening of the expiratory limb.
D)The positive pressure is achieved by tightening a screw clamp attached to the expiratory limb until the desired pressure is achieved.
Q2) After initiating IF-CPAP in an infant at 8 cm H O,the therapist notices a low-pressure alarm.What should be done to correct this situation?
A)Correct the leak by placing a chin trap.
B)Change to a smaller cannula.
C)Increase the flow through the CPAP system.
D)Change the flow generator.
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is considered the most successful therapeutic condition where NPPV can be used in children?
A)Treatment of hypoxemic exacerbation of children with chronic neuromuscular disorders
B)Treatment of hypercapnic exacerbation of children with chronic neuromuscular disorders
C)Treatment of exacerbation of children with acute asthma attacks
D)Treatment of exacerbation of children with pulmonary edema due to congenital heart defects
Q2) What is the clinical significance of the IPAP-EPAP gradient in bilevel NPPV?
A)It represents the mean airway pressure to which the patient's lungs are exposed.
B)It determines the patient's tidal volume.
C)The IPAP-EPAP gradient determines the inspiratory time.
D)This gradient determines the level of pressure support the patient will receive.
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Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During HFOV manipulation of which of the following components establishes the continuous distending pressure?
A)Gas flow through the pneumotachometer during expiration
B)Peak inspiratory pressure-trough pressure gradient
C)Inspiratory valve aperture
D)Bias flow
Q2) Which of the following forms of mechanical ventilation is the most efficacious method for acquired bronchopleural fistulas?
A)High-frequency jet ventilation (HFJV)
B)High-frequency oscillatory ventilation (HFOV)
C)High-frequency flow interruption (HFFI)
D)Conventional ventilation (CV)
Q3) Which of the following factors influences the gas volume compressed in the ventilator circuit?
A)Ventilation time constant
B)Water level in the humidifier
C)Location of the exhalation valve
D)Size (inner diameter)of the endotracheal tube
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Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been admitted with status asthmaticus is receiving beta adrenergics every 2 hours and heliox with very limited response.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Change heliox to 100% helium
B)Administer nitrogen
C)Administer inhaled anesthetics
D)Add iNO
Q2) Which of the following inhaled anesthetic gases has/have demonstrated the possibility to treat status asthmaticus?
I.Halothane
II.Thromboxane
III.Isoflurane
IV.Sevoflurane
A)II only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is not uncommon for patients undergoing ECMO to experience renal failure.What can be done to enhance renal function?
A)Add either colloids or crystalloids to fluid challenge the patient.
B)Perform hemofiltration.
C)Add either vasodilators or vasoconstrictors.
D)Conduct plasmapheresis.
Q2) Which of the following conditions are considered contraindications for neonatal ECMO?
A)Meconium aspiration
B)Less than 2 kg of weight
C)Prolonged mechanical ventilation (7 to 10 days)
D)Less than 36 weeks of gestation
Q3) The ECMO specialist has noticed excessive clotting in the circuit despite increase doses of heparin.What is the most feasible explanation for this event?
A)Too many platelet transfusions
B)Defective heparin
C)Blood flow too slow
D)Deficiency of ATIII
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Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following medications is the only drug that inhibits 5-lipoxygenase?
A)Montelukast
B)Omalizumab
C)Zafirlukast
D)Zileuton
Q2) Which of the following medications works to maintain the integrity of the mast cell?
A)Ipratropium bromide
B)Magnesium sulfate
C)Cromolyn sodium
D)Methylprednisolone
Q3) Which of the following statements accurately describes levalbuterol?
A)It is composed of both (R)- and (S)-albuterol.
B)The d-isomer is the most active compound.
C)A dose of 0.63 mg is equipotent to 1.25 mg of racemic albuterol.
D)The d-isomer possesses a longer duration of action.
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Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions are considered complications of thoracic organ transplantation?
I.Respiratory failure
II.Bronchiolitis obliterans
III.Lung allografts
IV.Infection
A)III and IV only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) Which of the following cardiac problems is responsible for the vast majority of neonatal cardiac transplants?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Ventricular septal defect
C)Cardiac pacemaker abnormalities
D)Hypoplastic left ventricle
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When neonatal pneumonia is suspected,how long does an infant generally receive broad-spectrum antibiotics?
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)72 hours
D)96 hours
Q2) Eight hours after being born,a baby presents with cyanosis despite administration of adequate ventilation,tachypnea,and retractions.Which of the following conditions should the therapist suspect is affecting this newborn?
A)RDS
B)BPD
C)PPHN
D)GBS pneumonia
Q3) When should a therapist consider CPAP for a newborn with respiratory distress?
A)Fio > 40% to 70% and SPo < 85%
B)Fio > 90% and SPo < 95%
C)Respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
D)PaO 50 to 60 mm Hg
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patterns are commonly found in the presentation of lung bud anomalies?
I.Appear early in the newborn period
II.Emerge later in childhood
III.Frequent respiratory infections
IV.Systemic hypertension
A)I and III only
B)II and III only
C)II and IV only
D)I,II,and III only
Q2) What is the most common patient complaint associated with pectus carinatum?
A)Cough
B)Dyspnea at rest
C)Cosmetic
D)Cardiac palpitations
Q3) Which of the following interventions is used to treat macroglossia?
A)Positioning the patient appropriately corrects most cases.
B)Most cases are corrected surgically.
C)Polysomnography to determine any effect on sleep is all that is required.
Page 25
D)Treatment is based on the severity of airway obstruction and etiology.
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Sample Questions
Q1) What factor is responsible for closure of the foramen ovale?
A)Increased PaO
B)Increased pressure on the left side of the heart
C)Blood flowing through the lungs
D)High pulmonary vascular resistance
Q2) The therapist is treating a child with a congenital heart defect who is unresponsive to oxygen therapy.Although the chest X-ray is relatively normal,the heart is described as "egg-shaped." Which of the following heart defects is more consistent with this description?
A)Complete transposition of the great arteries
B)Coarctation of the aorta
C)Truncus arteriosus
D)Tetralogy of Fallot
Q3) At birth,what factor causes dilation of the pulmonary vascular bed and a decrease in the pulmonary vascular resistance?
A)Increased arterial partial pressure of oxygen (PaO )
B)Decreased arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO )
C)Lung inflation
D)Circulating indomethacin
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The childhood syndrome of OSA is distinct from adult OSA.Which of the following features are common in adult OSA but infrequent or less common in pediatric OSA?
A)Large neck circumference
B)Snoring
C)Excessive daytime sleepiness
D)REM abnormality
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes the condition sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A)More than 70% of victims are found in the late evening hours after the afternoon naps.
B)Infants are most likely to experience SIDS in the first 12 to 24 months of life.
C)SIDS is uncommon after infants are 6 months old.
D)SIDS occurs exclusively when the infant is presumed to have been asleep during the night.
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27
Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 18-month-old child has been admitted with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis due to RSV.The therapist has administered a single dose of albuterol and racemic epinephrine,but the child shows no signs of improvement.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Alternate albuterol and racemic epinephrine every 4 hours
B)Use albuterol every 1 hour for 4 hours and then space treatments to every 4 hours
C)Discontinue therapy
D)Add an inhaled corticosteroid to the albuterol every 12 hours
Q2) A 10-month-old child has been brought into the emergency room (ER)by her parents,who state that after few days with low-grade fever,malaise,and rhinorrhea,their child presented with a "barking" cough and increased work of breathing.What condition is this child likely exhibiting?
A)Epiglottitis
B)Laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)
C)Bronchitis
D)Bronchiolitis
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28
Chapter 27: Asthma
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following spirometric measurements is sensitive to small changes in airway caliber and decreases in value with increasing obstructive disease?
A)Forced vital capacity (FVC)
B)Forced expiratory flow between 200 and 1200 mL of the FVC (FEF200-1200)
C)Mean forced expiratory flow during the middle half of the FVC (FEF25-75)
D)Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV )
Q2) The therapist has been asked to check the FENO on a patient with asthma.The level is < 15 ppb.How should the therapist interpret this data?
A)The asthma is well controlled.
B)The patient is less likely to respond to corticosteroids.
C)The patient is likely to require immunotherapy.
D)The patient has a neutrophilic phenotype of asthma.
Q3) A 2-year-old child diagnosed with asthma has a family history of frequent respiratory infections.What is the most common respiratory virus isolated from infants who wheeze?
A)Adenovirus
B)Parainfluenza virus
C)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D)Coxsackievirus
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following therapeutic interventions should be the focus of the treatment of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A)Airway clearance techniques
B)Bronchodilators
C)Antihistamines
D)PEP therapy
Q2) On pulmonary function testing,which of the following lung abnormalities is/are common in patients with severe cystic fibrosis?
I.Obstructive pattern
II.Restrictive pattern
III.Airway hyperreactivity
IV.Normal pattern when asymptomatic
A)I only
B)I and IV only
C)II and III only
D)I,II,and III only
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Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How should the therapist use the point on the pressure-volume loop where the shape changes from concave to exponential?
A)To set PEEP
B)To set VT
C)To set Ti
D)To set PIP
Q2) On the basis of the Berlin definition of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS),the definition of moderate acute respiratory distress syndrome comprises which of the following components?
I.PaO /FiO £200 mm Hg
II.Onset of respiratory symptoms within 1 week of clinical insult
III.Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure greater than 18 mm Hg
IV.Chest radiograph with bilateral infiltrates not fully explained by effusions or collapse
A)I and II only
B)I and III only
C)II and IV only
D)I,II,and IV only
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Q1) During the treatment of sepsis,what intervention may be needed if hypotension persists despite the maximal application of inotropic and vasomotor support?
A)Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
B)High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
C)Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
D)Hyperbaric oxygenation
Q2) Which of the following signs is one of the first to indicate decreased peripheral perfusion in children?
A)Tachycardia
B)Bradycardia
C)Hypotension
D)Dyspnea
Q3) A child is receiving aggressive therapy for shock.Cardiac failure has developed.Which of the following inotropes is the most frequently used under these circumstances?
A)Epinephrine
B)Dopamine
C)Norepinephrine
D)Digitalis
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Q1) Which of the following conditions is the most commonly associated with penetrating chest trauma?
A)Pulmonary contusion
B)Hemothorax
C)Empyema
D)Pleural effusion
Q2) What is the mechanism of action of the osmotic diuretic mannitol in the setting of increased ICP?
A)Mannitol crosses the blood-brain barrier and removes water from the cerebral vascular spaces.
B)Mannitol increases the permeability of the loop of Henle,causing water to leave the nephrons.
C)Mannitol enters the ventricles of the brain,causing fluid to leave the choroid plexus and enter the circulation for delivery to the kidneys.
D)Mannitol remains in the plasma,creating an osmotic gradient that draws water from the brain into the cerebral capillaries.
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Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Q1) Which of the following clinical symptoms is associated with a pleural effusion?
A)Chest pain
B)Productive cough
C)Dyspnea
D)Dysphagia
Q2) What procedure should the therapist suggest to relieve a tension pneumothorax while awaiting more definitive treatment?
A)Insertion of thoracostomy tubes
B)Thoracotomy
C)Thoracentesis with a large-bore needle
D)Needle thoracostomy
Q3) The therapist is assessing a water seal and a collection chamber and observes bubbling in the water seal chamber.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Nothing because bubbling indicates normal function
B)Increase the suction pressure
C)Reassess the patient because bubbling indicates presence of air leak
D)Remove the chest tube
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Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) What are the consequences of bulbar muscle dysfunction?
I.Dysphagia
II.Impaired coughing
III.Dysarthria
IV.Impaired inspiration
A)II and IV only
B)I and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) The therapist is performing an airway clearance technique to a 5-month-old child with a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia.The child has a very weak cough and,although he appears alert,he cannot move.Which of the following disorders of the motor nerve should the therapist suspect?
A)Polio
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Spinal muscular atrophy
D)Guillian-Barré
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Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) How much medical gas needs to be taken on a transport?
A)Enough to last 30 minutes beyond the calculated duration
B)Twice the calculated amount
C)Three times the calculated amount
D)Enough gas is always on board
Q2) Which of the following communication systems is the most advantageous for fixed-wing ambulances to have to accomplish air-to-hospital communications?
A)UHF/AM transceiver
B)Walkie-talkie type phone
C)VHF radios
D)Satellite-type cell phone
Q3) Which of the following effects are expected during ascent in air transport?
A)Decreased urine output
B)Respiratory rate decreases
C)Endotracheal tube cuff pressure decreases
D)Depth of breathing increases
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) Before a ventilator-dependent child can be discharged home,which of the following criteria must be met?
A)The ventilator setting must be stable for at least 3 weeks.
B)Arterial blood gas measurements must be stable and within normal limits.
C)The patient's Fio must be 0.80 or less.
D)If PEEP is used,it must be no more than 10 cm H O.
Q2) Who is responsible for deciding the type of oxygen delivery system that will be used in the home?
A)Physician
B)Patient
C)Durable medical equipment (DME)company
D)Discharge planner
Q3) What is the utility of downloading information from an apnea monitor?
A)It facilitates billing the patient for services.
B)It helps monitor oxygen use.
C)It enables differentiating among different types of apnea.
D)It helps decide the next laboratory evaluation.
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) A therapist is assisting the pulmonologist during a bronchoscopy.While the child's oxygen saturation was reading above 90%,the patient had been apneic for approximately 1 minute and suffered a mild anoxic injury.What is the name of an event like this?
A)Near miss
B)Precursor safety event
C)Serious safety event
D)Sentinel event
Q2) Lack of skills and/or failure to follow or deviation from standard practices/procedures is known as:
A)Sentinel event
B)Six Sigma
C)Negligence
D)Health failure mode
Q3) Prevention of safety events is critical in pediatric patients because,when a safety event occurs:
A)Hospital stay is 10 times longer
B)Hospital mortality may be as high as 18 times greater
C)Hospital charges are 50 times higher
D)Hospitals do not get reimbursed
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