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Pediatric Assessment and Intervention provides students with foundational knowledge and practical skills essential for evaluating and addressing the health, developmental, and functional needs of children from infancy through adolescence. The course emphasizes comprehensive assessment techniques, including developmental screenings, standardized tests, and clinical observations, to identify physical, cognitive, emotional, and social challenges. Students will also explore evidence-based intervention strategies tailored to pediatric populations across diverse settings, while considering family-centered care, cultural sensitivity, and interdisciplinary collaboration. Through case studies and hands-on practice, learners will develop the ability to create and implement individualized intervention plans that promote optimal growth, development, and quality of life for children and their families.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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Q1) The nurse is conducting a teaching session for parents on nutrition. Which characteristics of families should the nurse consider that can cause families to struggle in providing adequate nutrition? (Select all that apply.)
A) Homelessness
B) Lower income
C) Migrant status
D) Working parents
E) Single parent status
Answer: A, B, C
Q2) What do mortality statistics describe?
A) Disease occurring regularly within a geographic location
B) The number of individuals who have died over a specific period
C) The prevalence of specific illness in the population at a particular time
D) Disease occurring in more than the number of expected cases in a community
Answer: B
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Q1) When discussing discipline with the mother of a 4-year-old child, which should the nurse include?
A) Parental control should be consistent.
B) Withdrawal of love and approval is effective at this age.
C) Children as young as 4 years rarely need to be disciplined.
D) One should expect rules to be followed rigidly and unquestioningly.
Answer: A
Q2) A mother brings 6-month-old Eric to the clinic for a well-baby checkup. She comments, "I want to go back to work, but I don't want Eric to suffer because I'll have less time with him." Which is the nurse's most appropriate answer?
A) "I'm sure he'll be fine if you get a good babysitter."
B) "You will need to stay home until Eric starts school."
C) "Let's talk about the child care options that will be best for Eric."
D) "You should go back to work so Eric will get used to being with others."
Answer: C
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Q1) A hospitalized school-age child with phenylketonuria (PKU) is choosing foods from the hospital's menu. Which food choice should the nurse discourage the child from choosing?
A) Banana
B) Milkshake
C) Fruit juice
D) Corn on the cob
Answer: B
Q2) Which genetic term refers to the transfer of all or part of a chromosome to a different chromosome after chromosome breakage?
A) Trisomy
B) Monosomy
C) Translocation
D) Nondisjunction
Answer: C
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Q1) Which is the single most important factor to consider when communicating with children?
A) Presence of the child's parent
B) Child's physical condition
C) Child's developmental level
D) Child's nonverbal behaviors
Q2) Which type of breath sound is normally heard over the entire surface of the lungs except for the upper intrascapular area and the area beneath the manubrium?
A) Vesicular
B) Bronchial
C) Adventitious
D) Bronchovesicular
Q3) The nurse is preparing to perform a physical assessment on a 10-year-old girl. The nurse gives her the option of her mother staying in the room or leaving. This action should be considered which?
A) Appropriate because of child's age
B) Appropriate, but the mother may be uncomfortable
C) Inappropriate because of child's age
D) Inappropriate because child is same sex as mother
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Q1) The nurse is using the CRIES pain assessment tool on a preterm infant in the neonatal intensive care unit. Which are the components of this tool? (Select all that apply.)
A) Color
B) Moro reflex
C) Oxygen saturation
D) Posture of arms and legs
E) Sleeplessness
F) Facial expression
Q2) Which coanalgesics should the nurse expect to be prescribed for pruritus? (Select all that apply.)
A) Naloxone (Narcan)
B) Inapsine (Droperidol)
C) Hydroxyzine (Atarax)
D) Promethazine (Phenergan)
E) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
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Q1) Which is described as an elevated, circumscribed skin lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter and filled with serous fluid?
A) Cyst
B) Papule
C) Pustule
D) Vesicle
Q2) Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for which?
A) Sympathetic nerve fibers
B) Parasympathetic nerve fibers
C) Lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord
D) Posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord
Q3) Treatment for herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2) includes which?
A) Corticosteroids
B) Oral griseofulvin
C) Oral antiviral agent
D) Topical or systemic antibiotic
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Q1) Why are rectal temperatures not recommended in newborns?
A) They are inaccurate.
B) They do not reflect core body temperature.
C) They can cause perforation of rectal mucosa.
D) They take too long to obtain an accurate reading.
Q2) The stump of the umbilical cord usually drops off in how many days?
A) 3 to 6
B) 10 to 14
C) 16 to 21
D) 24 to 28
Q3) What is most descriptive of the shape of the anterior fontanel in a newborn?
A) Circle
B) Square
C) Triangle
D) Diamond
Q4) Which finding in the newborn is considered abnormal?
A) Nystagmus
B) Profuse drooling
C) Dark green or black stools
D) Slight vaginal reddish discharge

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Q1) Which interventions should the nurse implement for a newborn with a subgaleal hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.)
A) Monitor bilirubin levels.
B) Monitor hematocrit levels.
C) Prepare the newborn for skull radiography.
D) Monitor the newborn's level of consciousness.
E) Place a warm compress on the affected area.
Q2) A mother has just given birth to a newborn with a cleft lip. Sensing that something is wrong, she starts to cry and asks the nurse, "What is wrong with my baby?" What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Encourage the mother to express her feelings.
B) Explain in simple language that the baby has a cleft lip.
C) Provide emotional support until the practitioner can talk to the mother.
D) Tell the mother a pediatrician will talk to her as soon as the baby is examined.
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Q1) The home care nurse is visiting a 6-month-old infant with bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD). The nurse assesses the child for which signs of overhydration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Edema
B) Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L
C) Urine specific gravity of 1.008
D) Weight gain of 1 lb in 1 week
Q2) The neonatal intensive care nurse is caring for a neonate born at 36 weeks of gestation in an incubator. Which actions should the nurse plan to assure adequate skin care for the neonate? (Select all that apply.)
A) Changing any adhesives every 12 hours
B) Removing adhesives or skin barriers slowly
C) Using an adhesive remover when removing tape
D) Applying emollient as needed for dry, flaking skin
E) Using cleanser or soaps no more than two or three times a week
Q3) Which statement best describes the characteristics of preterm infants?
A) Thermoregulation is well established.
B) Extremities remain in attitude of flexion.
C) Sucking reflex is absent, weak, or ineffectual.
D) The head is proportionately small in relation to the body.
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of parents at a community education program about introducing solid foods to their infants. Which recommendations should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Spoon feeding should be introduced after an entire milk feeding.
B) It is best to introduce a wide variety of foods during the first year.
C) As solid food consumption increases, the quantity of milk should decrease.
D) Introduction of low-calorie milk and food should be done by the end of the first year.
E) Introduction of citrus fruits, meats, and eggs should be delayed until after 6 months of age.
F) Each new food item should be introduced at 5- to 7-day intervals.
Q2) The nurse is performing an assessment on a 12-month-old infant. Which fine or gross motor developmental skill demonstrates the proximodistal acquisition of skills?
A) Standing
B) Sitting without assistance
C) Fully developed pincer grasp
D) Taking a few steps holding onto something
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Q1) The parent of an infant with colic tells the nurse, "All this baby does is scream at me; it is a constant worry." What is the nurse's best action?
A) Encourage the parent to verbalize feelings.
B) Encourage the parent not to worry so much.
C) Assess the parent for other signs of inadequate parenting.
D) Reassure the parent that colic rarely lasts past age 9 months.
Q2) What are risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A) Postterm
B) Female gender
C) Low Apgar scores
D) Recent viral illness
E) Native American infants
Q3) A new parent relates to the nurse that the family has many known food allergies. Which is considered a primary strategy for feeding the infant with many family food allergies?
A) Using soy formula for feeding
B) Maternal avoidance of cow's milk protein
C) Exclusive breastfeeding for 4 to 6 months
D) Delaying the introduction of highly allergenic foods past 6 months
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Q1) Exclude meat and eggs but drink milk
A)Lacto-ovo vegetarians
B)Lactovegetarians
C)Pure vegetarians (vegans)
D)Macrobiotics
E)Semi-vegetarians
Q2) Eliminate all foods of animal origin, including milk and eggs, allowing only a few types of fruits, vegetables, and legumes
A)Lacto-ovo vegetarians
B)Lactovegetarians
C)Pure vegetarians (vegans)
D)Macrobiotics
E)Semi-vegetarians
Q3) Parents ask the nurse, "How should we deal with our toddler's regression since our new baby has come home?" The nurse should give the parents which response?
A) "Introduce new areas of learning."
B) "Use time-out as punishment when regression occurs."
C) "Ignore the behavior and praise appropriate behavior."
D) "Explain to the toddler that the behavior is not acceptable."
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Q1) Which type of play is most typical of the preschool period?
A) Team
B) Parallel
C) Solitary
D) Associative
Q2) The parent of a 4-year-old boy tells the nurse that the child believes "monsters and bogeymen" are in his bedroom at night. What is the nurse's best suggestion for coping with this problem?
A) Let the child sleep with his parents.
B) Keep a night light on in the child's bedroom.
C) Help the child understand that these fears are illogical.
D) Tell the child that monsters and bogeymen do not exist.
Q3) A parent taking a preschool child to school on the first day asks the nurse, "What do I do if my child wants me to stay?" What is an appropriate response by the nurse?
A) "It is better if you do not stay."
B) "It is best to stay and participate in the activities."
C) "It is OK to stay part of the first day, but be inconspicuous."
D) "It would be better to have a good friend take your child to class the first day."
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Q1) A child with diazepam (Valium) poisoning has been admitted to the emergency department. What antidote does the nurse anticipate being prescribed?
A) Succimer (Chemet)
B) EDTA (Versenate)
C) Flumazenil (Romazicon)
D) Octreotide acetate (Sandostatin)
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child with suspected ingestion of some type of poison. What action should the nurse take next after initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
A) Empty the mouth of pills, plants, or other material.
B) Question the victim and witness.
C) Place the child in a side-lying position.
D) Call poison control.
Q3) A child is admitted with a suspected diagnosis of Munchausen syndrome by proxy (MSBP). What is an important consideration in the care of this child?
A) Monitoring the parents whenever they are with the child
B) Reassuring the parents that the cause of the disorder will be found
C) Teaching the parents how to obtain necessary specimens
D) Supporting the parents as they cope with diagnosis of a chronic illness
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents about safety for their "latchkey" children. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Teach the child first-aid procedures.
B) Keep the key in an easy place to find.
C) Teach the child weather-related safety.
D) Teach the child to open the door for delivery people.
E) Emphasize fire safety rules and conduct practice fire drills.
Q2) An 8-year-old girl tells the nurse that she has cancer because God is punishing her for "being bad." What should the nurse interpret this as?
A) A common belief at this age
B) Indicative of excessive family pressure
C) Faith that forms the basis for most religions
D) Suggestive of a failure to develop a conscience
Q3) What statement best describes fear in school-age children?
A) Increasing concerns about bodily safety overwhelm them.
B) They should be encouraged to hide their fears to prevent ridicule by peers.
C) Most of the new fears that trouble them are related to school and family.
D) Children with numerous fears need continuous protective behavior by parents to eliminate these fears.
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Q1) The management of a child who has just been stung by a bee or wasp should include applying what?
A) Cool compresses
B) Antibiotic cream
C) Warm compresses
D) Corticosteroid cream
Q2) The school nurse is assessing a child's severely scraped knee for infection. What are signs of a wound infection? (Select all that apply.)
A) Odor
B) Edema
C) Dry scab
D) Purulent exudate
E) Decreased temperature
Q3) Itching
A)Pruritus
B)Anesthesia
C)Hyperesthesia
D)Hypesthesia
E)Paresthesia
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Q1) The nurse is preparing a pamphlet for parents of adolescents about guidance during the adolescent years. What suggestion should the nurse include in the pamphlet?
A) Provide criticism when mistakes are made or when views are different.
B) Use comparisons with older siblings or extended family to promote good outcomes.
C) Begin to disengage from school functions to allow the adolescent to gain independence.
D) Provide clear, reasonable limits and define consequences when rules are broken.
Q2) The nurse is caring for children on an adolescent-only unit. What growth and development milestones should the nurse expect from 11- and 14-year-old adolescents?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Self-centered with increased narcissism
B) No major conflicts with parents
C) Established abstract thought process
D) Have a rich, idealistic fantasy life
E) Highly value conformity to group norms
F) Secondary sexual characteristics appear
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Q1) What best describes central nervous system (CNS) stimulants?
A) Acute intoxication can lead to coma.
B) They produce strong physical dependence.
C) Withdrawal symptoms are life threatening.
D) They can result in strong psychologic dependence.
Q2) What conditions are physical complications of obesity? (Select all that apply.)
A) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
B) QT interval prolongation
C) Fatty liver disease
D) Gastrointestinal dysfunction
E) Abnormal growth acceleration
F) Dental erosion
Q3) The school nurse suspects a testicular torsion in a young adolescent student. What action should the nurse take?
A) Place a warm moist pack on the scrotal area.
B) Instruct the adolescent to lie down and elevate the legs.
C) Refer the adolescent for immediate medical evaluation.
D) Suggest that the adolescent wear a scrotum-protecting guard.
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Q1) The nurse is planning to use an interpreter with a non-English-speaking family. What should the nurse plan with regard to the use of an interpreter? (Select all that apply.)
A) Use a family member.
B) The nurse should speak slowly.
C) Use an interpreter familiar with the family's culture.
D) The nurse should speak only a few sentences at a time.
E) The nurse should speak to the interpreter during interactions.
Q2) What is the single most prevalent cause of disability in children and responsible for the recent increase in childhood disability?
A) Cancer
B) Asthma
C) Seizures
D) Heart disease
Q3) What is a major premise of family-centered care?
A) The child is the focus of all interventions.
B) Nurses are the authorities in the child's care.
C) Parents are the experts in caring for their child.
D) Decisions are made for the family to reduce stress.
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Q1) The sibling of a 4-year-old girl dies from sudden infant death syndrome. The parents are concerned because the 4-year-old girl showed more outward grief when her cat died than now. How should the nurse explain this reaction to the parents?
A) The child is not old enough to have a concept of death.
B) This suggests maladaptive coping, and referral is needed for counseling.
C) The death may be so painful and threatening that the child must deny it for now.
D) The child is not old enough to have formed a significant attachment to her sibling.
Q2) A school-age child is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness. The parents want to protect their child from knowing the seriousness of the illness. The nurse should provide which explanation?
A) This attitude is helpful to give parents time to cope.
B) This will help the child cope effectively by denial.
C) Terminally ill children know when they are seriously ill.
D) Terminally ill children usually choose not to discuss the seriousness of their illness.
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Q1) Autism is a complex developmental disorder. The diagnostic criteria for autism include delayed or abnormal functioning in which area with onset before age 3 years?
A) Parallel play
B) Gross motor development
C) Ability to maintain eye contact
D) Growth below the fifth percentile
Q2) The nurse is talking with a 10-year-old boy who wears bilateral hearing aids. The left hearing aid is making an annoying whistling sound that the child cannot hear. What intervention is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Ignore the sound.
B) Suggest he reinsert the hearing aid.
C) Ask him to reverse the hearing aids in his ears.
D) Suggest he raise the volume of the hearing aid.
Q3) Ability to see objects clearly at close range but not at a distance
A)Myopia
B)Hyperopia
C)Astigmatism
D)Anisometropia
E)Amblyopia

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Q1) A spinal tap must be done on a 9-year-old boy. While he is waiting in the treatment room, the nurse observes that he seems composed. When the nurse asks him if he wants his mother to stay with him, he says, "I am fine." How should the nurse interpret this situation?
A) This child is unusually brave.
B) He has learned that support does not help.
C) Nine-year-old boys do not usually want a parent present during the procedure.
D) Children in this age group often do not request support even though they need and want it.
Q2) The nurse needs to assess a 15-month-old child who is sitting quietly on his father's lap. What initial action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
A) Ask the father to place the child on the exam table.
B) Undress the child while he is still sitting on his father's lap.
C) Talk softly to the child while taking him from his father.
D) Begin the assessment while the child is in his father's lap.
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Q1) What are the advantages of an implanted port (Port-a-Cath)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced risk of infection
B) Reduced cost for the family
C) Placed completely under the skin
D) Easy to use for self-administered infusions
E) Removal does not require a surgical procedure
Q2) What disease processes require airborne precautions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Measles
B) Varicella
C) Pertussis
D) Meningitis
E) Tuberculosis
Q3) A preschool child needs a dressing change. To prepare the child, what strategy should the nurse implement?
A) Explain the procedure using medical terminology.
B) Plan a 30-minute teaching session.
C) Give choices when possible but avoid delay.
D) Allow time after the procedure for questions and discussion.
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Q1) What clinical manifestation(s) is associated with calcium depletion (hypocalcemia)?
A) Nausea, vomiting
B) Weakness, fatigue
C) Muscle hypotonicity
D) Neuromuscular irritability
Q2) The nurse is teaching the family of a child with a long-term central venous access device about signs and symptoms of bacteremia. What finding indicates the presence of bacteremia?
A) Hypertension
B) Pain at the entry site
C) Fever and general malaise
D) Redness and swelling at the entry site
Q3) Prevention of burn injury is important anticipatory guidance. In the infant and toddler period, which mode is the most common cause of burn?
A) Matches
B) Electrical cords
C) Hot liquids in the kitchen
D) Microwave-heated foods
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Q1) What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a child with minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS) who has scrotal edema?
A) Place an ice pack on the scrotal area.
B) Place the child in an upright sitting position.
C) Elevate the scrotum with a rolled washcloth.
D) Place a warm moist pack to the scrotal area.
Q2) What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the neonatal period (birth to 1 month)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Edema
B) Bradypnea
C) Frequent urination
D) Poor urinary stream
E) Failure to gain weight
Q3) What pathologic process is believed to be responsible for the development of postinfectious glomerulonephritis?
A) Infarction of renal vessels
B) Immune complex formation and glomerular deposition
C) Bacterial endotoxin deposition on and destruction of glomeruli
D) Embolization of glomeruli by bacteria and fibrin from endocardial vegetation
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to admit a 7-year-old child with Crohn disease. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pain is common.
B) Weight loss is severe.
C) Rectal bleeding is common.
D) Diarrhea is moderate to severe.
E) Anal and perianal lesions are rare.
Q2) The nurse should instruct parents to administer a daily proton pump inhibitor to their child with gastroesophageal reflux at which time?
A) Bedtime
B) With a meal
C) Midmorning
D) 30 minutes before breakfast
Q3) What test is used to screen for carbohydrate malabsorption?
A) Stool pH
B) Urine ketones
C) C urea breath test
D) ELISA stool assay
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Q1) A child is in uncompensated respiratory acidosis. What should the nurse expect the arterial blood gas to be?
A) O<sub>2</sub>, 95; CO<sub>2</sub>, 45; pH, 7.40
B) O<sub>2</sub>, 88; CO<sub>2</sub>, 55; pH, 7.30
C) O<sub>2</sub>, 88; CO<sub>2</sub>, 35; pH, 7.28
D) O<sub>2</sub>, 92; CO<sub>2</sub>, 54; pH, 7.35
Q2) The nurse is caring for a child on oxygen being delivered by a nasal cannula. What is the advantage of delivering oxygen in this manner?
A) It can deliver mist if desired.
B) It is less likely to cause abdominal distention.
C) The child is able to eat and talk while getting oxygen.
D) This method can deliver a higher concentration of oxygen.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a child with a tracheostomy. What clinical manifestation should the nurse recognize as an early sign of impending respiratory distress or failure?
A) Cyanosis
B) Restlessness
C) Audible stridor
D) Crowing respirations
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Q1) Children who are taking long-term inhaled steroids should be assessed frequently for what potential complication?
A) Cough
B) Osteoporosis
C) Slowed growth
D) Cushing syndrome
Q2) What statement is the most descriptive of asthma?
A) It is inherited.
B) There is heightened airway reactivity.
C) There is decreased resistance in the airway.
D) The single cause of asthma is an allergic hypersensitivity.
Q3) A school-age child has asthma. The nurse should teach the child that if a peak expiratory flow rate is in the yellow zone, this means that the asthma control is what?
A) 80% of a personal best, and the routine treatment plan can be followed.
B) 50% to 79% of a personal best and needs an increase in the usual therapy.
C) 50 % of a personal best and needs immediate emergency bronchodilators.
D) Less than 50% of a personal best and needs immediate hospitalization.
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Q1) What structural defects constitute tetralogy of Fallot?
A) Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
B) Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
C) Aortic stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
D) Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Q2) A health care provider prescribes captopril (Capoten), 2.5 mg PO every 12 h for a child with heart failure. The medication label states: "Captopril 5 mg/5 ml." The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.
Q3) The two bottom chambers of the heart
A)Mitral valve
B)Tricuspid valve
C)Atria
D)Ventricles
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Q1) What physiologic defect is responsible for causing anemia?
A) Increased blood viscosity
B) Depressed hematopoietic system
C) Presence of abnormal hemoglobin
D) Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
Q2) What are signs and symptoms of anemia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pallor
B) Fatigue
C) Dilute urine
D) Bradycardia
E) Muscle weakness
Q3) What immunoglobulin pattern does the nurse expect in a child recently diagnosed with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
A) Diminished levels of IgG
B) Diminished levels of IgA
C) Diminished levels of IgM
D) Diminished levels of IgE
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Q1) What is an important priority in dealing with the child suspected of having Wilms tumor?
A) Intervening to minimize bleeding
B) Monitoring temperature for infection
C) Ensuring the abdomen is protected from palpation
D) Teaching parents how to manage the parenteral nutrition
Q2) What chemotherapeutic agent can cause an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Prednisone (Deltasone)
B) Vincristine (Oncovin)
C) L-Asparaginase (Elspar)
D) Methotrexate (Trexall)
Q3) The nurse should teach the family that which residual disabilities can occur for a child being treated for a brain tumor? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ataxia
B) Anorexia
C) Dysphagia
D) Sensory deficits
E) Crania nerve palsies
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Q1) If an intramuscular (IM) injection is administered to a child who has Reye syndrome, the nurse should monitor for what?
A) Bleeding
B) Infection
C) Poor absorption
D) Itching at the injection site
Q2) A 5-year-old girl sustained a concussion when she fell out of a tree. In preparation for discharge, the nurse is discussing home care with her mother. What sign or symptom is considered a manifestation of postconcussion syndrome and does not necessitate medical attention?
A) Vomiting
B) Blurred vision
C) Behavioral changes
D) Temporary loss of consciousness
Q3) What term refers to seizures that involve both hemispheres of the brain?
A) Absence
B) Acquired
C) Generalized
D) Complex partial
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Q1) The health care provider has prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU) 7 mg/kg/day PO divided every 12 hours for a child with Graves disease. The child weighs 66 lb. The nurse is preparing to administer the 0800 dose. Calculate the dose the nurse should administer in milligrams. Record your answer below in a whole number.
Q2) The nurse is planning care for a child recently diagnosed with diabetes insipidus (DI). What intervention should be included?
A) Encourage the child to wear medical identification.
B) Discuss with the child and family ways to limit fluid intake.
C) Teach the child and family how to do required urine testing.
D) Reassure the child and family that this is usually not a chronic or life-threatening illness.
Q3) What blood glucose measurement is most likely associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
A) 185 mg/dl
B) 220 mg/dl
C) 280 mg/dl
D) 330 mg/dl
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Q1) What is the recommended drink for athletes during practice and competition?
A) Sports drinks to replace carbohydrates
B) Cold water for gastrointestinal tract rapid absorption
C) Carbonated beverages to help with acid-base balance
D) Enhanced performance carbohydrate-electrolyte drinks
Q2) The nurse stops to assist an adolescent who has experienced severe trauma when hit by a motorcycle. The emergency medical system (EMS) has been activated. The first person who provided assistance applied a tourniquet to the child's leg because of arterial bleeding. What should the nurse do related to the tourniquet?
A) Loosen the tourniquet.
B) Leave the tourniquet in place.
C) Remove the tourniquet and apply direct pressure if bleeding is still present.
D) Remove the tourniquet every 5 minutes, leaving it off for 30 seconds each time.
Q3) Slanting and circular, twisting around the bone shaft
A)Transverse
B)Oblique
C)Spiral
D)Comminuted
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Q1) The nurse is teaching the family of an infant with cerebral palsy how to administer a diazepam (Valium) pill by gastrostomy tube. What should the nurse include in the teaching session?
A) The pill should be crushed and mixed with a small amount of water.
B) The pill should be crushed and mixed with the infant's formula.
C) After administering the medication, flush the tube with air.
D) Before administering the medication, check the placement of the tube.
Q2) Neuropathic bladder disorders are common among children with which disorder?
A) Plagiocephaly
B) Meningocele
C) Craniosynostosis
D) Myelomeningocele
Q3) The nurse is caring for a family whose infant was just born with anencephaly. What is the most important nursing intervention?
A) Implement measures to facilitate the attachment process.
B) Help the family cope with the birth of an infant with a fatal defect.
C) Prepare the family for extensive surgical procedures that will be needed.
D) Provide emotional support so the family can adjust to the birth of an infant with problems.
Page 37
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