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This course provides an in-depth exploration of the principles and techniques used in the assessment and intervention of pediatric populations. Students will learn about developmental milestones, common pediatric conditions, screening tools, and standardized assessment methods to evaluate the physical, cognitive, and psychosocial needs of children from infancy through adolescence. The course also covers family-centered care, interdisciplinary collaboration, and evidence-based intervention strategies to support optimal growth, development, and participation in daily activities for children with various health, developmental, or behavioral challenges. Emphasis is placed on culturally sensitive practices and ethical considerations in pediatric healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Wongs Nursing Care of Infants and Children 10th Edition by Hockenberry
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35 Chapters
1814 Verified Questions
1814 Flashcards
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4161
Sample Questions
Q1) Which are included in the evaluation step of the nursing process? (Select all that apply.)
A) Determination if the outcome has been met
B) Ascertaining if the plan requires modification
C) Establish priorities and selecting expected patient goals
D) Selecting alternative interventions if the outcome has not been met
E) Determining if a risk or actual dysfunctional health problem exists
Answer: A, B, D
Q2) Interventions are put into action
A)Assessment
B)Diagnosis
C)Outcomes identification
D)Planning
E)Implementation
F)Evaluation
Answer: E
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41 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is planning care for a patient with a different ethnic background. Which should be an appropriate goal?
A) Adapt, as necessary, ethnic practices to health needs.
B) Attempt, in a nonjudgmental way, to change ethnic beliefs.
C) Encourage continuation of ethnic practices in the hospital setting.
D) Strive to keep ethnic background from influencing health needs.
Answer: A
Q2) Which describe the feelings and behaviors of early preschool children related to divorce? (Select all that apply.)
A) Regressive behavior
B) Fear of abandonment
C) Fear regarding the future
D) Blame themselves for the divorce
E) Intense desire for reconciliation of parents
Answer: A, B, D
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching student nurses about newborn screening. Which statement made by the student indicates understanding of the teaching?
A) "The newborn screening is not mandatory but voluntary."
B) "It is acceptable to 'layer' the blood on the Guthrie paper."
C) "The initial specimen should be collected as close to discharge as possible."
D) "It is best to collect the specimen before the newborn takes the first feeding."
Answer: C
Q2) Which is a birth defect or disorder that occurs as a new case in a family and is not inherited?
A) Sporadic
B) Polygenic
C) Monosomy
D) Association
Answer: A
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which explains the importance of detecting strabismus in young children?
A) Color vision deficit may result.
B) Amblyopia, a type of blindness, may result.
C) Epicanthal folds may develop in the affected eye.
D) Corneal light reflexes may fall symmetrically within each pupil.
Q2) Which is the single most important factor to consider when communicating with children?
A) Presence of the child's parent
B) Child's physical condition
C) Child's developmental level
D) Child's nonverbal behaviors
Q3) When the nurse interviews an adolescent, which is especially important?
A) Focus the discussion on the peer group.
B) Allow an opportunity to express feelings.
C) Use the same type of language as the adolescent.
D) Emphasize that confidentiality will always be maintained.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a staff development program about levels of sedation in the pediatric population. Which statement by one of the participants should indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
A) "With minimal sedation, the patient's respiratory efforts are affected, and cognitive function is not impaired."
B) "With general anesthesia, the patient's airway cannot be maintained, but cardiovascular function is maintained."
C) "During deep sedation, the patient can be easily aroused by loud verbal commands and tactile stimulation."
D) "During moderate sedation, the patient responds to verbal commands but may not respond to light tactile stimulation."
Q2) Which is a complication that can occur after abdominal surgery if pain is not managed?
A) Atelectasis
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Decrease in heart rate
D) Increase in cardiac output
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Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella (MMRV) vaccine. Which is a contraindication associated with administering this vaccine?
A) The child has recently been exposed to an infectious disease.
B) The child has symptoms of a cold but no fever.
C) The child is having intermittent episodes of diarrhea.
D) The child has a disorder that causes a deficient immune system.
Q2) What causes warts?
A) A virus
B) A fungus
C) A parasite
D) Bacteria
Q3) What often causes cellulitis?
A) Herpes zoster
B) Candida albicans
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Streptococci or staphylococci
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which should the nurse use when assessing the physical maturity of a newborn?
A) Length
B) Apgar score
C) Posture at rest
D) Chest circumference
Q2) What should nursing interventions to maintain a patent airway in a newborn include?
A) Positioning the newborn supine after feedings.
B) Wrapping the newborn as snugly as possible.
C) Placing the newborn to sleep in the prone (on abdomen) position.
D) Using a bulb syringe to suction as needed, suctioning the nose first and then the pharynx.
Q3) In term newborns, the first meconium stool should occur no later than within how many hours after birth?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 24
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should the nurse expect jaundice to be present in a full-term infant with hemolytic disease?
A) At birth
B) Within 24 hours after birth
C) 25 to 48 hours after birth
D) 49 to 72 hours after birth
Q2) Which intervention may decrease the incidence of physiologic jaundice in a healthy full-term infant?
A) Institute early and frequent feedings.
B) Bathe newborn when the axillary temperature is 36.3° C (97.5° F).
C) Place the newborn's crib near a window for exposure to sunlight.
D) Suggest that the mother initiate breastfeeding when the danger of jaundice has passed.
Q3) The parents of an infant with a cleft palate ask the nurse, "What follow-up care will our infant need after the repair?" Which is an accurate response by the nurse?
A) "Your infant will not need any subsequent follow-up care."
B) "Your infant will only need to be evaluated by an audiologist."
C) "Your infant will only need follow-up with a speech pathologist."
D) "Your infant will need follow-up with audiologists and orthodontists."
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infant of a mother with herpes simplex infection has just been born. What should nursing considerations include?
A) The infant should be isolated in a nursery.
B) No special precautions are necessary.
C) The mother and infant should be together in a private room.
D) Immediate discharge is indicated to prevent spread of infection.
Q2) What is most descriptive of the signs observed in neonatal sepsis?
A) Seizures
B) Sudden hyperthermia
C) Decreased urinary output
D) Subtle, vague, and nonspecific physical signs
Q3) Which is an important nursing action related to the use of tape or adhesives on premature neonates?
A) Avoid using tape and adhesives until skin is more mature.
B) Remove adhesives with water, mineral oil, or petrolatum.
C) Use scissors carefully to remove tape instead of pulling off the tape.
D) Use solvents to remove tape and adhesives instead of pulling on the skin.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents of a 4-month-old infant tell the nurse that they are getting a microwave oven and will be able to heat the baby's formula faster. What should the nurse recommend?
A) Heat only 8 oz or more.
B) Do not heat a plastic bottle in a microwave oven.
C) Leave the bottle top uncovered to allow heat to escape.
D) Shake the bottle vigorously for at least 30 seconds after heating.
Q2) Turning the hips and shoulders to one side causes all the other body parts to follow.
A)Labyrinth righting
B)Body righting
C)Otolith righting
D)Landau
E)Parachute
Q3) According to Piaget, a 6-month-old infant should be in which developmental stage?
A) Use of reflexes
B) Primary circular reactions
C) Secondary circular reactions
D) Coordination of secondary schemata
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a parent with a 2-month-old infant who has been diagnosed with colic about ways to relieve colic. Which statement by the parent indicates the need for additional teaching?
A) "I should let my infant cry for at least 30 minutes before I respond."
B) "I will swaddle my infant tightly with a soft blanket."
C) "I should massage my infant's abdomen whenever possible."
D) "I will place my infant in an upright seat after feeding."
Q2) A health care provider prescribes adrenaline (epinephrine), intramuscularly (IM) 0.15 mg, times one, stat. The medication label states: "Epinephrine 1:1000 1 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer the stat dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using two decimal places.
Q3) The parent of an infant with colic tells the nurse, "All this baby does is scream at me; it is a constant worry." What is the nurse's best action?
A) Encourage the parent to verbalize feelings.
B) Encourage the parent not to worry so much.
C) Assess the parent for other signs of inadequate parenting.
D) Reassure the parent that colic rarely lasts past age 9 months.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A toddler's parent asks the nurse for suggestions on dealing with temper tantrums. What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A) Punish the child.
B) Explain to child that this is wrong.
C) Leave the child alone until the tantrum is over.
D) Remain close by the child but without eye contact.
Q2) What child behavior indicates to the nurse that temper tantrums have become a problem? (Select all that apply.)
A) The child is 2 to 3 years old
B) Tantrums occur at bedtime
C) Tantrums occur past 5 years of age
D) Tantrums last longer than 15 minutes
E) Tantrums occur more than five times a day
Q3) To avoid a fall from a crib, the nurse recommends to parents that their toddler should sleep in a bed rather than a crib when reaching what height?
A) 30 in
B) 35 in
C) 40 in
D) 45 in
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parents are worried that their preschool-aged child is showing hyperaggressive behavior. What are signs of hyperaggresive behavior? (Select all that apply.)
A) Disrespect
B) Noncompliance
C) Infrequent impulsivity
D) Occasional temper tantrums
E) Unprovoked physical attacks on other children
Q2) The nurse understands that traits of gifted children include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fair memory skills
B) Limited sense of humor
C) Perfectionism as a focus
D) Inquisitive; always asking questions
E) Displays intense feelings and emotion
Q3) What characteristic best describes the language skills of a 3-year-old child?
A) Asks meanings of words
B) Follows directional commands
C) Can describe an object according to its composition
D) Talks incessantly regardless of whether anyone is listening
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Sample Questions
Q1) A health care provider prescribes flumazenil (Romazion), 0.2 mg IV once, stat for a benzodiazepine poisoning. The medication label states: "Flumazenil (Romazion), 1 mg/10 ml." The nurse prepares to administer the dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.
Q2) What is the most common form of child maltreatment?
A) Sexual abuse
B) Child neglect
C) Physical abuse
D) Emotional abuse
Q3) The nurse is administering activated charcoal to a preschool child with acetaminophen (Tylenol) poisoning. What potential complications from the use of activated charcoal should the nurse plan to assess for? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diarrhea
B) Vomiting
C) Fluid retention
D) Intestinal obstruction
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Q1) What is descriptive of the play of school-age children?
A) They like to invent games, making up the rules as they go.
B) Individuality in play is better tolerated than at earlier ages.
C) Knowing the rules of a game gives an important sense of belonging.
D) Team play helps children learn the universal importance of competition and winning.
Q2) Characteristics of bullies include what? (Select all that apply.)
A) Female
B) Depressed
C) Good peer relationships
D) Poor academic performance
E) Exposed to domestic violence
Q3) The school nurse recognizes that children respond to stress by using which tactics? (Select all that apply.)
A) Passivity
B) Delinquency
C) Daydreaming
D) Delaying tactics
E) Becoming outgoing
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a child who has a temperature of 30° C (86° F). What physical effects of hypothermia should the nurse expect to observe in this child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Reduced urinary output
B) Injury to peripheral tissue
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Tachycardia
E) Irritability with loss of consciousness
F) Rigid extremities
Q2) A toddler has a deep laceration contaminated with dirt and sand. Before closing the wound, the nurse should irrigate with what solution?
A) Alcohol
B) Normal saline
C) Povidone-iodine
D) Hydrogen peroxide
Q3) What is characteristic of children with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
A) Denial as a defense mechanism is unusual.
B) Traumatic effects cannot remain indefinitely.
C) Previous coping strategies and defense mechanisms are not useful.
D) Children often play out the situation over and over again.
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Q1) The development of sexual orientation during adolescence is what?
A) Inflexible
B) A developmental process
C) Differs for boys and girls
D) Proceeds in a defined sequence
Q2) In boys, what is the initial indication of puberty?
A) Voice changes
B) Growth of pubic hair
C) Testicular enlargement
D) Increased size of penis
Q3) The nurse is preparing a pamphlet for parents of adolescents about guidance during the adolescent years. What suggestion should the nurse include in the pamphlet?
A) Provide criticism when mistakes are made or when views are different.
B) Use comparisons with older siblings or extended family to promote good outcomes.
C) Begin to disengage from school functions to allow the adolescent to gain independence.
D) Provide clear, reasonable limits and define consequences when rules are broken.
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Q1) What factor is most likely to increase the likelihood that an adolescent will misuse alcohol?
A) Female gender
B) Regular school attendance
C) Rural environment
D) Unconventional behavior
Q2) A health care provider prescribes leuprolide (Lupron), 3.75 mg, IM, monthly, for a patient with endometriosis. The medication label states: "Leuprolide (Lupron) 5 mg/1 ml." The nurse prepares to administer the monthly dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer the dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using two decimal places.
Q3) A sexually active adolescent asks the school nurse about prevention of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). What should the nurse recommend?
A) Use of condoms
B) Prophylactic antibiotics
C) Any type of contraception method
D) Withdrawal method of contraception
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Q1) What nursing intervention is most appropriate in promoting normalization in a school-age child with a chronic illness?
A) Give the child as much control as possible.
B) Ask the child's peer to make the child feel normal.
C) Convince the child that nothing is wrong with him or her.
D) Explain to parents that family rules for the child do not need to be the same as for healthy siblings.
Q2) What finding by the nurse is most characteristic of chronic sorrow?
A) Lack of acceptance of child's limitation
B) Lack of available support to prevent sorrow
C) Periods of intensified sorrow when experiencing anger and guilt
D) Periods of intensified sorrow at certain landmarks of the child's development
Q3) What are supportive interventions that can assist a preschooler with a chronic illness to meet developmental milestones? (Select all that apply.)
A) Encourage socialization.
B) Encourage mastery of self-help skills.
C) Provide devices that make tasks easier.
D) Clarify that the cause of the child's illness is not his or her fault.
E) Discuss planning for the future and how the condition can affect choices.
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Q1) A school-age child is diagnosed with a life-threatening illness. The parents want to protect their child from knowing the seriousness of the illness. The nurse should provide which explanation?
A) This attitude is helpful to give parents time to cope.
B) This will help the child cope effectively by denial.
C) Terminally ill children know when they are seriously ill.
D) Terminally ill children usually choose not to discuss the seriousness of their illness.
Q2) At which developmental period do children have the most difficulty coping with death, particularly if it is their own?
A) Toddlerhood
B) Preschool
C) School age
D) Adolescence
Q3) When is an autopsy required?
A) In the case of a suspected suicide
B) When a person has a known terminal illness
C) With a hospice patient who dies at home
D) With the victim of a motor vehicle collision
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Q1) The nurse is teaching parents of a child with cataracts about the upcoming treatment. The nurse should give the parents what information about the treatment of cataracts?
A) "The treatment may require more than one surgery."
B) "It is corrected with biconcave lenses that focus rays on the retina."
C) "Cataracts require surgery to remove the cloudy lens and replace it."
D) "Treatment is with a corrective lenses; no surgery is necessary."
Q2) The nurse is discussing sexuality with the parents of an adolescent girl who has a moderate cognitive impairment. What factor should the nurse consider when dealing with this issue?
A) Sterilization is recommended for any adolescent with cognitive impairment.
B) Sexual drive and interest are very limited in individuals with cognitive impairment.
C) Individuals with cognitive impairment need a well-defined, concrete code of sexual conduct.
D) Sexual intercourse rarely occurs unless the individual with cognitive impairment is sexually abused.
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Q1) The nurse is providing support to parents adapting to the hospitalization of their child to the pediatric intensive care unit. The nurse notices that the parents keep asking the same questions. What should the nurse do?
A) Patiently continue to answer questions, trying different approaches.
B) Kindly refer them to someone else for answering their questions.
C) Recognize that some parents cannot understand explanations.
D) Suggest that they ask their questions when they are not upset.
Q2) The nurse is notified that a 9-year-old boy with nephrotic syndrome is being admitted. Only semiprivate rooms are available. What roommate should be best to select?
A) A 10-year-old girl with pneumonia
B) An 8-year-old boy with a fractured femur
C) A 10-year-old boy with a ruptured appendix
D) A 9-year-old girl with congenital heart disease
Q3) What choice of words or phrases would be inappropriate to use with a child?
A) "Rolling bed" for "stretcher"
B) "Special medicine" for "dye"
C) "Make sleepy" for "deaden"
D) "Catheter" for "intravenous"
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Sample Questions
Q1) A preschool child needs a dressing change. To prepare the child, what strategy should the nurse implement?
A) Explain the procedure using medical terminology.
B) Plan a 30-minute teaching session.
C) Give choices when possible but avoid delay.
D) Allow time after the procedure for questions and discussion.
Q2) The nurse has just collected blood by venipuncture in the antecubital fossa. What should the nurse do next?
A) Keep the child's arm extended while applying a Band-Aid to the site.
B) Keep the child's arm extended and apply pressure to the site for a few minutes.
C) Apply a Band-Aid to the site and keep the arm flexed for 10 minutes.
D) Apply a gauze pad or cotton ball to the site and keep the arm flexed for several minutes.
Q3) What disease processes require contact isolation? (Select all that apply.)
A) Rotavirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Streptococcal pharyngitis
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia
E) Respiratory syncytial virus
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Q1) A health care provider prescribes nitroprusside (Nipride), 1 mcg/kg/min in a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion for a child in shock. The child weighs 20 kg. The medication is available as nitroprusside 50 mg in 250 ml. The nurse prepares to calculate the rate. How many milliliters per hour will the nurse set the IV infusion pump to deliver 1 mcg/kg/min? Fill in the blank. Record your answer in a whole number.
Q2) A 7-year-old child with acute diarrhea has been rehydrated with oral rehydration solution (ORS). The nurse should recommend that the child's diet be advanced to what kind of diet?
A) Regular diet
B) Clear liquids
C) High carbohydrate diet
D) BRAT (bananas, rice, applesauce, and toast or tea) diet
Q3) What explains physiologically the edema formation that occurs with burns?
A) Vasoconstriction
B) Reduced capillary permeability
C) Increased capillary permeability
D) Diminished hydrostatic pressure within capillaries
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Q1) Congenital defects of the genitourinary tract, such as hypospadias, are usually repaired as early as possible to accomplish what?
A) Minimize separation anxiety.
B) Prevent urinary complications.
C) Increase acceptance of hospitalization.
D) Promote development of normal body image.
Q2) What signs and symptoms are indicative of a urinary tract disorder in the infancy period (1-24 months)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pallor
B) Poor feeding
C) Hypothermia
D) Excessive thirst
E) Frequent urination
Q3) For minimal change nephrotic syndrome (MCNS), prednisone is effective when what occurs?
A) Appetite increases and blood pressure is normal
B) Urinary tract infection is gone and edema subsides
C) Generalized edema subsides and blood pressure is normal
D) Diuresis occurs as urinary protein excretion diminishes
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child with Meckel diverticulum. What type of stool does the nurse expect to observe?
A) Steatorrhea
B) Clay colored
C) Currant jelly-like
D) Loose stools with undigested food
Q2) What procedure is most appropriate for assessment of an abdominal circumference related to a bowel obstruction?
A) Measuring the abdomen after feedings
B) Marking the point of measurement with a pen
C) Measuring the circumference at the symphysis pubis
D) Using a new tape measure with each assessment to ensure accuracy
Q3) What should the nurse consider when providing support to a family whose infant has just been diagnosed with biliary atresia?
A) The prognosis for full recovery is excellent.
B) Death usually occurs by 6 months of age.
C) Liver transplantation may be needed eventually.
D) Children with surgical correction live normal lives.
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Q1) The nurse must suction a 6-month-old infant with a tracheostomy. What intervention should be included?
A) Encourage the child to cough to raise the secretions before suctioning.
B) Perform each pass of the suction catheter for no longer than 5 seconds.
C) Allow the child to rest after every five times the suction catheter is passed.
D) Select a catheter with a diameter three quarters of the diameter of the tracheostomy tube.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who is receiving 2 L of oxygen per nasal cannula. What disadvantage should the nurse consider when planning care for the child?
A) The child may need to have high humidity administered with the oxygen.
B) The child may not be able to eat and drink comfortably.
C) A nasal cannula may cause an accumulation of moisture on the face.
D) A nasal cannula may cause abdominal distention.
Q3) How much oxygen is contained in ambient air (room air)?
A) 15%
B) 21%
C) 30%
D) 42%
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Q1) A school-age child has asthma. The nurse should teach the child that if a peak expiratory flow rate is in the yellow zone, this means that the asthma control is what?
A) 80% of a personal best, and the routine treatment plan can be followed.
B) 50% to 79% of a personal best and needs an increase in the usual therapy.
C) 50 % of a personal best and needs immediate emergency bronchodilators.
D) Less than 50% of a personal best and needs immediate hospitalization.
Q2) A 5-year-old child is admitted with bacterial pneumonia. What signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess with this disease process?
A) Fever, cough, and chest pain
B) Stridor, wheezing, and ear infection
C) Nasal discharge, headache, and cough
D) Pharyngitis, intermittent fever, and eye infection
Q3) A preschool child has asthma, and a goal is to extend expiratory time and increase expiratory effectiveness. What action should the nurse implement to meet this goal?
A) Encourage increased fluid intake.
B) Recommend increased use of a budesonide (Pulmicort) inhaler.
C) Administer an antitussive to suppress coughing.
D) Encourage the child to blow a pinwheel every 6 hours while awake.
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Q1) A 12-year-old child with Down syndrome is admitted to the hospital for surgical correction of a heart defect. The boy's mental age is that of a 3-year-old child. The nurse should prepare the child and family for surgery by what method?
A) Extend preoperative teaching over several days.
B) Explain the surgery to the child and the parents in detail.
C) Exclude the child from preoperative teaching; teach only the parents.
D) Provide teaching to the parents, keeping the information to the child simple.
Q2) The two upper chambers of the heart
A)Mitral valve
B)Tricuspid valve
C)Atria
D)Ventricles
Q3) A 1-year-old has been admitted for complete repair of a tetralogy of Fallot. What assessment finding should the nurse expect to be documented?
A) Weight gain
B) Pale skin color
C) Increasing cyanosis
D) Decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit
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Q1) A child with sickle cell anemia (SCA) develops severe chest and back pain, fever, a cough, and dyspnea. What should be the first action by the nurse?
A) Administer 100% oxygen to relieve hypoxia.
B) Notify the practitioner because chest syndrome is suspected.
C) Infuse intravenous antibiotics as soon as cultures are obtained.
D) Give ordered pain medication to relieve symptoms of pain episode.
Q2) The clinic nurse is evaluating causes for iron deficiency due to impaired iron absorption. What should the nurse recognize as causes for iron deficiency due to impaired iron absorption? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gastric acidity
B) Chronic diarrhea
C) Lactose intolerance
D) Absence of phosphates
E) Inflammatory bowel disease
Q3) What condition precipitates polycythemia?
A) Dehydration
B) Severe infections
C) Immunosuppression
D) Prolonged tissue hypoxia

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Q1) A 5-year-old child is being prepared for surgery to remove a brain tumor. Preparation for surgery should be based on which information?
A) Removal of the tumor will stop the various signs and symptoms.
B) Usually the postoperative dressing covers the entire scalp.
C) He is not old enough to be concerned about his head being shaved.
D) He is not old enough to understand the significance of the brain.
Q2) A parent of a hospitalized child on chemotherapy asks the nurse if a sibling of the hospitalized child should receive the varicella vaccination. The nurse should give which response?
A) The sibling can get a varicella vaccination.
B) The sibling should not get a varicella vaccination.
C) The sibling should wait until the child is finished with chemotherapy.
D) The sibling should get varicella-zoster immune globulin if exposed to chickenpox.
Q3) Calculate the absolute neutrophil count for a child with a WBC = 6000/mm³, neutrophils = 18%, and nonsegmented neutrophils (bands) = 20%. Record your answer below in a whole number.

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Q1) A child is admitted for revision of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for noncommunicating hydrocephalus. What is a common reason for elective revision of this shunt?
A) Meningitis
B) Gastrointestinal upset
C) Hydrocephalus resolution
D) Growth of the child since the initial shunting
Q2) The nurse is caring for a 10-year-old child who has an acute head injury, has a pediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of 9, and is unconscious. What intervention should the nurse include in the child's care plan?
A) Elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees with the head maintained in midline.
B) Maintain an active, stimulating environment.
C) Perform chest percussion and suctioning every 1 to 2 hours.
D) Perform active range of motion and nontherapeutic touch every 8 hours.
Q3) What clinical manifestations suggest hydrocephalus in an infant?
A) Closed fontanel and high-pitched cry
B) Bulging fontanel and dilated scalp veins
C) Constant low-pitched cry and restlessness
D) Depressed fontanel and decreased blood pressure
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Q1) An adolescent diabetic is admitted to the emergency department for treatment of hyperglycemia and pneumonia. What are characteristics of diabetic hyperglycemia?
A) Cold, clammy skin and lethargy
B) Hunger and hypertension
C) Thirst, being flushed, and fruity breath
D) Disorientation and pallor
Q2) A health care provider prescribes hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 200 mg IV STAT for a child with acute adrenocortical insufficiency. The medication label states Solu-Cortef 100 mg/2 ml. The nurse prepares to administer one dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer below in a whole number.

Q3) A child with growth hormone (GH) deficiency is receiving GH therapy. When is the best time for the GH to be administered?
A) At bedtime
B) After meals
C) Before meals
D) After arising in morning
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a 14-year-old child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA). What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Erythema over joints
B) Soft tissue contractures
C) Swelling in multiple joints
D) Morning stiffness of the joints
E) Loss of motion in the affected joints
Q2) An adolescent comes to the school nurse after experiencing shin splints during a track meet. What reassurance should the nurse offer?
A) Shin splints are expected in runners.
B) Ice, rest, and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) usually relieve pain.
C) It is generally best to run around and "work the pain out."
D) Moist heat and acetaminophen are indicated for this type of injury.
Q3) What statement is true concerning osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)?
A) It is easily treated.
B) It is an inherited disorder.
C) Braces and exercises are of no therapeutic value.
D) Later onset disease usually runs a more difficult course.
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Q1) The nurse is teaching the family with a child with cerebral palsy (CP) strategies to prevent constipation. What should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increase fluid intake.
B) Increase fiber in the diet.
C) Administer stool softeners daily as prescribed.
D) Increase the amount of dairy products in the diet.
E) Allow the child to decide when to try to have a bowel movement.
Q2) What functional goal should the nurse expect for a child who has a C7 spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.)
A) Able to drive automobile with hand controls
B) Complete independence within limitations of a wheelchair
C) Can roll over in bed, sit up in bed, and eat independently
D) Requires some assistance in transfer and lower extremity dressing
E) Ambulation with bilateral long braces using four-point or swing-through crutch gait
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