Pediatric and Neonatal Pathophysiology Practice
Exam
Course Introduction
Pediatric and Neonatal Pathophysiology explores the mechanisms of disease and physiological alterations unique to infants, children, and newborns. The course examines differences from adult pathophysiology, focusing on the etiology, development, and progression of illnesses specific to these populations. Students will study genetic, developmental, and environmental factors that contribute to pediatric and neonatal conditions, including congenital anomalies, metabolic disorders, infectious diseases, and organ dysfunction. The course emphasizes understanding clinical manifestations, diagnostic approaches, and the implications for treatment and long-term health outcomes in pediatric and neonatal care.
Recommended Textbook
Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4th Edition by Brian K. Walsh
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36 Chapters
733 Verified Questions
733 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Fetal Lung Development
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6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following phases of human lung development is characterized by the formation of a capillary network around airway passages?
A)Pseudoglandular
B)Saccular
C)Alveolar
D)Canalicular
Answer: D
Q2) What is the purpose of the substance secreted by the type II pneumocyte?
A)To increase the gas exchange surface area
B)To reduce surface tension
C)To maintain lung elasticity
D)To preserve the volume of the amniotic fluid
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Fetal Gas Exchange and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following events causes cessation of right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovale?
A)Increased levels of Po in the blood of the neonate
B)Decreased levels of Pco in the blood of the newborn
C)Increased systemic vascular resistance
D)Removal of the placenta,causing lowered blood volume returning to the right side of the fetal heart
Answer: C
Q2) How long after birth should it take for the ductus arteriosus to close completely?
A)24 hours
B)48 hours
C)96 hours
D)1 week
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Antenatal Assessment and High Risk Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is a significant problem in postterm pregnancy?
A)Infection
B)Fetal anencephaly
C)Meconium aspiration
D)Obesity
Answer: C
Q2) In lieu of obtaining a scalp blood gas sample,what can the therapist do to conduct intrapartum assessment of the fetus?
A)Fetal scalp stimulation
B)Umbilical cord blood sampling
C)Placental blood sampling
D)Biophysical profile
Answer: A
Q3) How should the therapist interpret an amniotic fluid index of 5 cm?
A)Polyhydramnios
B)Multihydramnios
C)Oligohydramnios
D)Anhydramnios
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Exam and Assessment of the Neonatal and Pediatric Patient
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33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parameters of the Apgar score provides the most important prognostic value?
A)Heart rate
B)Respiratory rate
C)Skin color
D)Muscle tone
Q2) What measures can the therapist take to prevent heat loss and cold stress before performing resuscitation on a preterm neonate?
I.Dry the infant's skin.
II.Wrap the infant in pre-warmed blankets.
III.Remove wet linens from around the infant.
IV.Measure the neonate's body temperature.
A)IV only
B)I and II only
C)I,II,and III only
D)I,II,and IV only
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Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing and Bedside
Pulmonary Mechanics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the clinical purpose for measuring the maximal inspiratory pressure (MIP)?
A)To assess lung function before and after bronchodilator administration
B)To help patients with asthma management at home
C)To evaluate the strength of respiratory muscles
D)To assist in performing bronchial hygiene techniques
Q2) On the basis of the data presented below,calculate the time constant.
Tidal volume (VT),600 mL
Respiratory rate (RR),12 breaths/minute
Lung compliance (C),0.2 L/cm H O
Airway resistance (Raw),2.5 cm H O/L/second
Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP),30 cm H O
Inspiratory time (TI),2 seconds
Expiratory time (TE),1 second
A)4.5 seconds
B)3.0 seconds
C)0.5 second
D)0.1 second
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Chapter 6: Radiographic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is evaluating a child with suspected foreign body aspiration.The radiographer gently adds pressure to the abdomen during expiration to take the chest radiograph.If an obstruction is confirmed,what changes should the RT expect to see?
A)The size of the affected lung will decrease.
B)The size of both lungs will decrease.
C)The size of the affected lung will remain the same or the lung will be hyper-expanded.
D)The size of the unaffected lung will increase.
Q2) Which of the following structures on a chest radiograph projects to the left,causes a prominent bulge of the superior mediastinum,and creates a mild indentation on the trachea?
A)Left hemidiaphragm
B)Apex of the heart
C)Aortic arch
D)Hilum
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8
Chapter 7: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flexible bronchoscopy has been ordered in a child undergoing mechanical ventilation for acute respiratory distress syndrome.After several events of desaturation and therapeutic recruitment maneuvers,the physician wants to rule out mucus plugging.What should the therapist suggest to avoid alveolar derecruitment in this patient?
A)Take the patient off and bag throughout the procedure.
B)Increase PEEP on the ventilator until the procedure is completed.
C)Use a PEEP-Keep TM adaptor.
D)Increase tidal volume to sustain lung recruitment during the procedure.
Q2) Which of the following organisms is often responsible for cross-contamination between bronchoscopies?
A)Staphylococcus
B)Mycoplasma
C)Pseudomonas
D)Klebsiella
Q3) What percent lidocaine spray is used for neonatal flexible bronchoscopy?
A)Less than 1% lidocaine
B)1% to 2% lidocaine
C)3% to 4% lidocaine
D)5% to 6% lidocaine
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Chapter 8: Invasive Blood Gas Analysis and Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions can cause methemoglobinemia?
A)Anemia
B)Inhalation of nitric oxide (NO)
C)Use of dobutamine
D)High fraction of inspired oxygen
Q2) The neonatal intensive care unit (NICU)respiratory therapy supervisor is observing a therapist obtain an arterial blood sample from an infant's radial artery and notices that the therapist has the bevel of the needle pointed upward,entering the patient's skin at a 45-degree angle and in a direction against the arterial flow.What should the supervisor do at this time?
A)Continue to observe the procedure.
B)Inform the therapist to turn the bevel downward.
C)Tell the therapist to penetrate the infant's skin at about a 60-degree angle.
D)Advise the therapist to insert the needle in the same direction as the blood flows.
Q3) How would tricuspid stenosis be expected to influence a patient's CVP value?
A)Elevate it above normal
B)Cause it to fall below normal
C)Produce fluctuations in the CVP value
D)Have no effect in the CVP value
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Chapter 9: Noninvasive Monitoring in Neonatal and Pediatric Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The therapist is assessing a mechanically ventilated infant and observes that the transcutaneous electrode temperature is set between 41° C and 44° C.What action does the therapist need to take at this time?
A)The temperature range set is appropriate;therefore,no action is necessary.
B)The therapist should increase the temperature range to 47° C to 48° C.
C)The temperature of the transcutaneous electrode needs to be reduced to 36° C to 38° C.
D)The electrode needs to be repositioned and maintained at the same temperature.
Q2) What is volumetric capnography able to determine?
I.Airway dead space
II.Alveolar tidal volume
III.Shunt fraction
IV.Alveolar minute volume
A)II,III,and IV only
B)I only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,II,III,and IV
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Chapter 10: Oxygen Administration
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is treating a hypoxemic child with a nasal cannula at 3 L/min.However,after few hours the child becomes tachypneic,demonstrates shallow breathing,and becomes hypoxemic.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Increase flow rate on the cannula to 4 L/min.
B)Switch to a partial rebreathing mask.
C)Switch to an air-entrainment mask.
D)Apply positive pressure ventilation.
Q2) Which of the following devices would be most appropriate to use for a 3-year-old patient who experiences immediate postextubation hypoxemia?
A)Blow-by setup
B)Partial rebreathing mask
C)Aerosol mask
D)T-piece
Q3) What is the concern when administering oxygen to a sedated infant who is wearing a nasal cannula?
A)Too low of an Fio may be delivered.
B)Too high of an Fio may be given.
C)Gastric distention may develop.
D)The patient may stop breathing.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Aerosols and Administration of Medication
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nebulizers should be suggested to improve lung dose in patients undergoing invasive mechanical ventilation?
A)Jet nebulizer
B)Ultrasonic nebulizer
C)Breath-actuated nebulizer
D)Vibrating mesh nebulizer
Q2) Which of the following considerations is most important when using a large-volume nebulizer to provide oxygen and humidification to an infant in an incubator?
A)Meeting the inspiratory flow demands of the infant
B)Supplying the infant with adequate humidification
C)Delivering sufficient oxygen to meet the infant's needs
D)Preventing a high noise level from developing
Q3) By what percentage can breath holding increase particle deposition in the lungs?
A)5%
B)10%
C)15%
D)20%
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13
Chapter 12: Airway Clearance Techniques and Lung
Volume Expansion
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important variable used to assess the efficacy of CPT?
A)Quality of the chest radiograph
B)Degree and persistence of coughing
C)Changes in the color and consistency of mucus
D)Amount of mucus obtained during and after treatment
Q2) By which of the following mechanisms are high-frequency chest compressions purported to mobilize tracheobronchial secretions?
A)By dislodging mucus directly from bronchial walls
B)By advancing the mucociliary escalator at a faster than normal rate
C)By mechanically lysing long molecules of mucus into smaller,more mobile segments
D)By generating high expiratory air velocities
Q3) When performing endotracheal suctioning on a neonate,why should the therapist routinely avoid advancing the catheter tip beyond the distal end of the endotracheal tube?
A)To reduce the risk of inadvertent extubation with the suction catheter
B)To prevent the development of bronchial stenosis and granulomas
C)To decrease the chance of removing too much lung volume
D)To minimize the risk of oxygen desaturation
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Chapter 13: Airway Management
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the upper airway of an infant should the laryngoscope straight blade be placed to expose the glottis during endotracheal intubation?
A)The epiglottis is directly lifted with the tip of the laryngoscope blade.
B)The tip of the laryngoscope blade is placed in the vallecula.
C)The tip of the laryngoscope blade is placed in the uvula.
D)The laryngoscope blade is used to sweep the tongue to the left.
Q2) How should the therapist confirm proper placement of an endotracheal tube?
A)Presence of end tidal CO one breath after intubation
B)Pulse oximetry > 88%
C)Presence of end tidal CO five breaths after intubation
D)Presence of vapor in the ETT
Q3) How should the therapist determine the depth of insertion of an endotracheal tube marked with three rings in an infant during the intubation procedure?
A)Just when the Murphy eye clears the vocal cords and enters the trachea
B)At the location where the second double-ring mark just passes the glottis
C)At the point where the first heavy black line just moves beyond the glottis
D)Just after the distal third of the tube passes into the trachea past the glottis
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Chapter 14: Surfactant Replacement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common form of surfactant abnormality associated with acute lung injury?
A)Inactivation by proteins
B)Altered surfactant metabolism
C)Altered surfactant pool
D)Altered surfactant composition
Q2) Which of the following relationships is correct regarding the analysis of amniotic fluid to determine fetal lung maturity?
A)Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)and phosphatidylcholine (lecithin)increase while sphingomyelin decreases during gestation.
B)PG increases and lecithin and sphingomyelin decrease during gestation.
C)PG and lecithin decrease while sphingomyelin increases during gestation.
D)PG and lecithin increase while sphingomyelin decreases during gestation.
Q3) Which of the following clinical conditions should be suspected in a neonate unresponsive to surfactant due to its inactivation?
A)Pulmonary hypertension
B)Pulmonary hemorrhage
C)Pneumonia
D)Methemoglobinemia
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Non-Invasive Mechanical Ventilation and
Continuous Positive Pressure of the Neonate
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following anatomic structures should be closely evaluated when using nasal masks in the administration of IF-CPAP?
A)Tragus
B)Philtrum
C)Sphenoid axis
D)Lower lip
Q2) After initiating IF-CPAP in an infant at 8 cm H O,the therapist notices a low-pressure alarm.What should be done to correct this situation?
A)Correct the leak by placing a chin trap.
B)Change to a smaller cannula.
C)Increase the flow through the CPAP system.
D)Change the flow generator.
Q3) Where in the CPAP delivery system should the pressure-relief/pop-off valve be placed to detect circuit occlusion?
A)Anywhere along the exhalation limb
B)Anywhere along the inspiratory limb
C)Inside the ventilator
D)As close to the patient's airway as possible
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Chapter 16: Noninvasive Mechanical Ventilation of the Child
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the only absolute contraindication to a trial of NPPV in pediatric patients with acute respiratory distress?
A)Cardiovascular instability
B)Nasopharyngeal obstruction
C)Inability to handle oral secretions
D)Extreme agitation or anxiety
Q2) What is the clinical significance of the IPAP-EPAP gradient in bilevel NPPV?
A)It represents the mean airway pressure to which the patient's lungs are exposed.
B)It determines the patient's tidal volume.
C)The IPAP-EPAP gradient determines the inspiratory time.
D)This gradient determines the level of pressure support the patient will receive.
Q3) When NPPV is used to ventilate pediatric patients,which operating mode of ventilation is generally used?
A)Timed
B)Spontaneous
C)CPAP
D)Spontaneous/timed
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Chapter 17: Mechanical Ventilation of the Neonate and Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors influences the gas volume compressed in the ventilator circuit?
A)Ventilation time constant
B)Water level in the humidifier
C)Location of the exhalation valve
D)Size (inner diameter)of the endotracheal tube
Q2) What is the recommended inspiratory time percent setting for HFOV?
A)20%
B)25%
C)33%
D)50%
Q3) During volume-controlled ventilation,which of the following factors influences the peak inspiratory pressure?
A)Pulmonary capillary perfusion
B)Ventilation-perfusion relationships
C)Pulmonary compliance
D)Volume compressed in the ventilatory circuit at end inspiration
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Administration of Gas Mixtures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been admitted with status asthmaticus is receiving beta adrenergics every 2 hours and heliox with very limited response.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Change heliox to 100% helium
B)Administer nitrogen
C)Administer inhaled anesthetics
D)Add iNO
Q2) Which of the following inhaled anesthetics should the therapist recommend to administer via a face mask to a conscious,spontaneously breathing pediatric patient who has status asthmaticus?
A)Isoflurane
B)Enflurane
C)Sevoflurane
D)Halothane
Q3) Which of the following medications contributes to an increased right-to-left intrapulmonary shunting?
A)Dobutamine
B)Dopamine
C)Prostacyclin
D)Prostaglandin A
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Chapter 19: Extracorporeal Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the ECMO flow considered as minimal support?
A)100 mL/Kg
B)80 ml/kg
C)50 mL/Kg
D)30 mL/Kg
Q2) What is considered the most concerning complication of ECMO in the newborn?
A)Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
B)Pneumonia
C)Intracranial hemorrhage
D)Hemosiderosis
Q3) During venovenous ECMO,what effect does the cardiac output have on oxygenation?
A)An increase in cardiac output will have a significant effect on the patient's oxygenation.
B)A decrease in cardiac output will have a major impact on the patient's oxygenation.
C)Changes in cardiac output either way will have little influence on the patient's oxygenation.
D)The influence of alterations in cardiac output on the patient's oxygenation cannot be predicted.
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Chapter 20: Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nebulized pentamidine should be administered in a negative pressure room and through which of the following nebulizer systems?
A)Pari LC Plus
B)Nebutech
C)Respirgard II
D)SPAG
Q2) While working at the bedside of a small child who has myasthenia gravis,the therapist notices a new medication order prescribing glycopyrrolate for the control of secretions.What should the therapist do at this time?
A)Inform the nurse that this medication is contraindicated for patients with myasthenia gravis.
B)Inform the nurse that the dose is incorrect.
C)Inform the nurse that this medication is contraindicated in children.
D)Mention nothing because the prescription is correct.
Q3) Which of the following statements accurately describes levalbuterol?
A)It is composed of both (R)- and (S)-albuterol.
B)The d-isomer is the most active compound.
C)A dose of 0.63 mg is equipotent to 1.25 mg of racemic albuterol.
D)The d-isomer possesses a longer duration of action.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Thoracic Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cardiac problems is responsible for the vast majority of neonatal cardiac transplants?
A)Cardiomyopathy
B)Ventricular septal defect
C)Cardiac pacemaker abnormalities
D)Hypoplastic left ventricle
Q2) The therapist notices the following signs in a pediatric patient who recently had a heart transplant:
Decreased cardiac contractility
Congestive heart failure
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Malaise
How should the therapist interpret these signs?
A)These signs are normal and expected after heart transplantation.
B)The patient has become hypovolemic.
C)The patient requires cardioversion.
D)The patient is in rejection.
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Chapter 22: Neonatal Complications and Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What radiographic features is the therapist likely to see on a typical chest X-ray of an infant with MAS?
A)Ground-glass appearance
B)Complete whiteout
C)Decreased lung volume
D)Patchy areas of atelectasis
Q2) Which of the following blood gas parameters should the therapist target when managing patients with PPHN?
I.SaO > 95%
II.PaCO 35-45 mm Hg
III.pH 7.35-7.45
IV.PaO > 95 mm Hg
A)I only
B)II and III only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 23: Congenital and Surgical Disorders That Affect
Respiratory Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should a respiratory therapist do to confirm a diagnosis of choanal atresia?
A)Recommend lateral mandibular radiographs
B)Inspect the nasal cavities with a rhinoscope
C)Attempt to insert an 8 French suction catheter through each nasal cavity
D)Gently pinch the infant's nose closed until oral breathing occurs
Q2) What is a possible consequence of inadvertent rupture of the systemic arterial supply in cases of pulmonary sequestration when this supply arises directly from the aorta?
A)Hypoxemia
B)Pulmonary hypoperfusion
C)Significant blood loss or exsanguination
D)Decreased anatomic shunt
Q3) Which of the following conditions is consistent with micrognathia,glossoptosis,and cleft palate in a newborn?
A)Pierre Robin syndrome
B)Choanal atresia
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Esophageal atresia
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Chapter 24: Congenital Cardiac Defects
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Q1) What factor is responsible for closure of the foramen ovale?
A)Increased PaO
B)Increased pressure on the left side of the heart
C)Blood flowing through the lungs
D)High pulmonary vascular resistance
Q2) Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with an atrial septal defect (ASD)?
A)An ASD often causes congestive heart failure (because of decreased pulmonary blood flow).
B)The right ventricle may become hypertrophic (right ventricular hypertrophy).
C)Most patients with an ASD are symptomatic in the neonatal intensive care unit,presenting with right atrial enlargement.
D)Chest radiographs are usually abnormal.
Q3) Why must supplemental oxygen be judiciously administered to patients with an atrioventricular canal defect?
A)To prevent the development of retinopathy of prematurity
B)To avoid oxygen-induced hypoventilation
C)To minimize pulmonary vascular dilation
D)To reduce oxidative stress
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Sudden Infant Death Syndrome Sleep Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is the major cause of OSA in children without any predisposing factor?
A)Choanal atresia
B)Macroglossia
C)Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
D)Pierre Robin Syndrome
Q2) What is the leading cause of death in infants?
A)Congenital malformations (e.g. ,heart defects)
B)CSA
C)SIDS
D)ALTE
Q3) Which of the following risk factors are associated with SIDS?
I.Maternal cigarette smoking
II.Breastfeeding
III.Loose bedding
IV.Bed sharing
A)I and III only
B)I,II,and III only
C)I,II,and IV only
D)I,III,and IV only
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Chapter 26: Pediatric Airway Disorders and Pulmonary Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 18-month-old child has been admitted with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis due to RSV.The therapist has administered a single dose of albuterol and racemic epinephrine,but the child shows no signs of improvement.What should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Alternate albuterol and racemic epinephrine every 4 hours
B)Use albuterol every 1 hour for 4 hours and then space treatments to every 4 hours
C)Discontinue therapy
D)Add an inhaled corticosteroid to the albuterol every 12 hours
Q2) The therapist is evaluating a child in the emergency department who displays the following signs: inability to cry,ineffective cough,high-pitched inspiratory sound,and cyanosis.What should the therapist suspect?
A)Tracheomalacia
B)Severe or complete airway obstruction
C)Vascular ring
D)Status asthmaticus
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Chapter 27: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) What appears to be the strongest identifiable predisposing factor for developing asthma?
A)Atopy
B)Genetics
C)Socioeconomic status
D)Race
Q2) A 2-year-old child diagnosed with asthma has a family history of frequent respiratory infections.What is the most common respiratory virus isolated from infants who wheeze?
A)Adenovirus
B)Parainfluenza virus
C)Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D)Coxsackievirus
Q3) Which of the following events occurs during the first phase of airway inflammation?
A)Release of preformed mediators
B)Antigen-antibody reactions on the surface of mast cells
C)Inhalation of offending antigen
D)Bronchial mucosal edema
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29
Chapter 28: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following aerosolized antibiotics is nebulized to treat infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in patients with CF?
A)Gentamycin
B)Tobramycin
C)Amiloride
D)Ibuprofen
Q2) A sweat chloride test and CFTR mutation analysis performed in a 10-year-old child with signs and symptoms consistent with CF are inconclusive.Which of the following tests should the therapist suggest at this time?
A)Sodium in urine
B)Nasal potential difference
C)CT scan of the chest with contrast
D)Immunoreactive trypsinogen
Q3) Approximately what percentage of patients with cystic fibrosis present with pulmonary symptoms?
A)100%
B)80%
C)50%
D)30%
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Which of the following interventions should the therapist implement to decrease mortality in patients with ARDS?
A)High PEEP
B)Alveolar recruitment maneuvers
C)Low tidal volume
D)High respiratory rate
Q2) What pathophysiologic change accounts for the alteration of the hysteresis curve during ARDS?
A)High transpulmonary pressures
B)High transairway pressures
C)Hyperinflated lungs
D)Refractory hypoxemia
Q3) What level of Ppl t should the therapist target to improve outcomes in patients with ARDS?
A)35 cm H O
B)32 cm H O
C)25 cm H O
D)20 cm H O
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Chapter 30: Shock, Sepsis and Anaphylaxis
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Q1) What is the mainstay of therapy for patients with anaphylactic shock?
A)Vasopressin
B)Dopamine
C)Epinephrine
D)IV fluids
Q2) Which of the following microorganisms are currently the leading causes of childhood meningitis?
I.Group B Streptococcus
II.Streptococcus pneumoniae
III.Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
IV.Neisseria meningitides
A)I and IV only
B)II and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q3) Which of the following types of shock is the most common among children?
A)Hypovolemic
B)Cardiogenic
C)Obstructive
D)Distributive
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Chapter 31: Pediatric Trauma
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Q1) A child with a head injury displays bruising discolorations around the orbits,or "raccoon eyes." What does this indicate?
A)Direct trauma to the eyes
B)Frontal trauma
C)Basilar skull fracture
D)Brain herniation
Q2) A penetrating chest wall trauma that produces a ball-valve type injury of the visceral pleura frequently produces which type of condition?
A)Empyema
B)Hydrothorax
C)Flail chest
D)Tension pneumothorax
Q3) A child is admitted to the emergency department displaying an abnormal breathing pattern consisting of random,ineffective,haphazard breaths and pauses.What is the name of this breathing pattern?
A)Apneustic
B)Ataxic
C)Cheyne Stokes
D)Primary alveolar hypoventilation
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Disorders of the Pleura
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Q1) Which of the following clinical conditions causes fluid to accumulate in the pleural space?
A)Congestive heart failure
B)Asthma
C)Cor pulmonale
D)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Q2) Which of the following factors determines the amount of fluid present in the pleural space?
A)Intracapillary hydrostatic pressure
B)Subatmospheric pressure in the pleural space
C)Pleural pressure
D)Intra-alveolar pressure
Q3) Which of the following clinical symptoms is associated with a pleural effusion?
A)Chest pain
B)Productive cough
C)Dyspnea
D)Dysphagia
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34
Chapter 33: Neurologic and Neuromuscular Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is characterized by demyelination of sheaths that coat peripheral nerves?
A)Poliomyelitis
B)Guillain-Barré syndrome
C)Chiari malformations
D)Infantile botulism
Q2) Which of the following glycogen storage diseases has the most severe respiratory symptoms?
A)Pompe disease
B)Diabetes
C)Von Gierke
D)Forbes-Cori disease
Q3) The therapist is performing an airway clearance technique to a 5-month-old child with a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia.The child has a very weak cough and,although he appears alert,he cannot move.Which of the following disorders of the motor nerve should the therapist suspect?
A)Polio
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Spinal muscular atrophy
D)Guillian-Barré
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Chapter 34: Transport of Infants and Children
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Q1) Which of the following professional organizations have developed educational requirements or training programs for pediatric transport personnel?
I.National Board for Respiratory Care
II.American Association for Respiratory Care
III.American Academy of Pediatrics
IV.Air & Surface Transport Nurses Association
A)I and II only
B)III and IV only
C)I,II,and III only
D)II,III,and IV only
Q2) What are some of the operational features that characterize a pediatric transport unit?
I.110-V AC electrical power
II.Point-of-care radiographic equipment
III.Medical air and oxygen
IV.Suction capabilities and equipment
A)III and IV only
B)I,II,and IV only
C)I,III,and IV only
D)II,III,and IV only
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Chapter 35: Home Care
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Q1) Before a ventilator-dependent child can be discharged home,which of the following criteria must be met?
A)The ventilator setting must be stable for at least 3 weeks.
B)Arterial blood gas measurements must be stable and within normal limits.
C)The patient's Fio must be 0.80 or less.
D)If PEEP is used,it must be no more than 10 cm H O.
Q2) Which of the following backup equipment needs to be provided for a home-ventilated infant who (1)lacks the ability to breathe spontaneously for at least 4 successive hours,(2)lives 2 hours away by automobile from medical assistance,and (3)requires mechanical ventilation for mobility?
A)Point-of-care blood gas analyzer
B)Second oxygen concentrator
C)Additional source of oxygen
D)Additional ventilator and ventilator circuits
Q3) Which of the following is the most important disadvantage of a liquid oxygen system?
A)It is very heavy.
B)It requires a power source.
C)It requires filling every 6 months.
D)It vents regardless of whether the flow is on or off.
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Chapter 36: Quality and Safety
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Q1) Lack of skills and/or failure to follow or deviation from standard practices/procedures is known as:
A)Sentinel event
B)Six Sigma
C)Negligence
D)Health failure mode
Q2) What has been described by the IOM as a necessary component of change needed to occur to improve patient safety?
A)Increase the number of physicians
B)Increase the number of nurses and allied health professionals
C)Develop teams of caregivers for multidisciplinary communication
D)Involve the family in the health care team
Q3) Which of the following processes enables organizations to continuously measure services,practices,costs,and products using best practices to improve care?
A)Self-reporting
B)Benchmarking
C)Quality measure reporting
D)Quarterly budget
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