Pediatric and Maternity Nursing Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Pediatric and Maternity Nursing is a course designed to introduce students to the fundamental concepts and practices involved in the care of childbearing families and children from infancy through adolescence. The curriculum covers the physiological and psychological changes during pregnancy, labor, delivery, and postpartum, as well as the unique health care needs of newborns, infants, children, and adolescents. Emphasis is placed on holistic, family-centered nursing care, growth and development milestones, disease prevention, health promotion, and common pediatric and maternity health conditions. Students also explore ethical, cultural, and communication considerations pertinent to pediatric and maternity nursing practice.
Recommended Textbook
Maternity Nursing 8th Edition by Deitra Leonard Lowdermilk
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24 Chapters
512 Verified Questions
512 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: 21st Century Maternity Nursing: Culturally
Competent, Family and Community Focused
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A married couple lives in a single-family house with their newborn son and the husband's daughter from a previous marriage. On the basis of the information given, what family form best describes this family?
A) Married-blended family
B) Extended family
C) Nuclear family
D) Same-sex family
Answer: A
Q2) The nurse should be aware that the criteria used to make decisions and solve problems within families are based primarily on family:
A) Rituals and customs.
B) Values and beliefs.
C) Boundaries and channels.
D) Socialization processes.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Assessment and Health Promotion
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old patient calls the clinic to report that she has found a lump in her breast. The nurse's best response is:
A) "Don't worry about it. I'm sure it's nothing."
B) "Wear a tight bra, and it should shrink."
C) "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician."
D) "Check it again in 1 month and call me back if it's still there."
Answer: C
Q2) Women with severe and persistent mental illness are likely to be more vulnerable to being involved in controlling and/or violent relationships. However, many women develop mental health problems as a result of long-term abuse. The psychologic consequences of continued abuse do not include:
A) Substance abuse.
B) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
C) Eating disorders.
D) Bipolar disorder.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Common Concerns
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the alterations in cyclic bleeding that occurs between periods is called:
A) Oligomenorrhea.
B) Menorrhagia.
C) Leiomyoma.
D) Metrorrhagia.
Answer: D
Q2) Nafarelin (200 mcg bid per nasal spray) currently is used as a treatment for mild-to-severe endometriosis. The nurse should tell the woman taking this medication that the drug:
A) Stimulates the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), thereby stimulating ovarian activity.
B) Should be sprayed into one nostril every other day.
C) Should be injected into subcutaneous tissue BID.
D) Can cause her to experience some hot flashes and vaginal dryness.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Contraception, Abortion, and Infertility
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An unmarried young woman describes her sex life as "active" and involving "many" partners. She wants a contraceptive method that is reliable and does not interfere with sex. She requests an intrauterine device (IUD). The nurse's most appropriate response is:
A) "The IUD does not interfere with sex."
B) "The risk of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) will be higher for you."
C) "The IUD will protect you from sexually transmitted infections (STIs)."
D) "Pregnancy rates are high with the IUD."
Q2) Which statement is the most complete and accurate description of medical abortions?
A) They are performed only for maternal health.
B) They can be achieved through surgical procedures or with drugs.
C) They are mostly performed in the second trimester.
D) They can be either elective or therapeutic.
Q3) Which contraceptive method best protects against sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A) Periodic abstinence
B) Barrier methods
C) Hormonal methods
D) They all offer about the same protection.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetics, Conception, and Fetal Development
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regarding the development of the respiratory system, maternity nurses should be aware that:
A) The respiratory system does not begin developing until after the embryonic stage.
B) The infant's lungs are considered mature when the lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is 1:1, at about 32 weeks.
C) Maternal hypertension can reduce maternal-placental blood flow, accelerating lung maturity.
D) Fetal respiratory movements are not visible on ultrasound scans until at least 16 weeks.
Q2) A woman's cousin gave birth to an infant with a congenital heart anomaly. The woman asks the nurse when such anomalies occur during development. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A) "We don't really know when such defects occur."
B) "It depends on what caused the defect."
C) "They occur between the third and fifth weeks of development."
D) "They usually occur in the first 2 weeks of development."
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Chapter 6: Anatomy and Physiology of Pregnancy
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To reassure and educate their pregnant patients about changes in their blood pressure, maternity nurses should be aware that:
A) A blood pressure cuff that is too small produces a reading that is too low; a cuff that is too large produces a reading that is too high.
B) Shifting the patient's position and changing from arm to arm for different measurements produces the most accurate composite blood pressure reading at each visit.
C) The systolic blood pressure increases slightly as pregnancy advances; the diastolic pressure remains constant.
D) Compression of the iliac veins and inferior vena cava by the uterus contributes to hemorrhoids in the later stage of term pregnancy.
Q2) The nurse providing care to the pregnant woman should know that all are normal gastrointestinal changes in pregnancy except:
A) Ptyalism.
B) Pyrosis.
C) Pica.
D) Decreased peristalsis.
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Chapter 7: Nursing Care of the Family During Pregnancy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to dental care during pregnancy, maternity nurses should be aware that:
A) Dental care can be dropped from the priority list because the woman has enough to worry about and is getting a lot of calcium anyway.
B) Dental surgery, in particular, is contraindicated because of the psychologic stress it engenders.
C) If dental treatment is necessary, the woman will be most comfortable with it in the second trimester.
D) Dental care interferes with the expectant mother's need to practice conscious relaxation.
Q2) The nurse should be aware that the partner's main role in pregnancy is to:
A) Provide financial support.
B) Protect the pregnant woman from "old wives' tales."
C) Support and nurture the pregnant woman.
D) Make sure the pregnant woman keeps prenatal appointments.
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9
Chapter 8: Maternal and Fetal Nutrition
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pregnant adolescents are at high risk for _____ because of lower body mass indices (BMIs) and "fad" dieting.
A) Obesity
B) Diabetes
C) Low-birth-weight babies
D) High-birth-weight babies
Q2) A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI) of 18.0. The nurse knows that this woman's total recommended weight gain during pregnancy should be at least:
A) 20 kg (44 lb).
B) 16 kg (35 lb).
C) 12.5 kg (27.5 lb).
D) 10 kg (22 lb).
Q3) To help a woman reduce the severity of nausea caused by morning sickness, the nurse might suggest that she:
A) Try a tart food or drink such as lemonade or salty foods such as potato chips.
B) Drink plenty of fluids early in the day.
C) Brush her teeth immediately after eating.
D) Never snack before bedtime.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Labor and Birth Processes
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The factors that affect the process of labor and birth, known commonly as the five Ps, include all except:
A) Passenger.
B) Passageway.
C) Powers.
D) Pressure.
Q2) The nurse has received a report about a woman in labor. The woman's last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and -2. The nurse's interpretation of this assessment is that:
A) The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
B) The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
C) The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
D) The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines.
Q3) The _________ pelvic shape is ideal for a vaginal birth.
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Chapter 10: Management of Discomfort
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To help patients manage discomfort and pain during labor, nurses should be aware that:
A) The predominant pain of the first stage of labor is the visceral pain located in the lower portion of the abdomen.
B) Referred pain is the extreme discomfort between contractions.
C) The somatic pain of the second stage of labor is more generalized and related to fatigue.
D) Pain during the third stage is a somewhat milder version of the second stage.
Q2) A woman in the active phase of the first stage of labor is using a shallow pattern of breathing, which is about twice the normal adult breathing rate. She starts to complain about feeling lightheaded and dizzy and states that her fingers are tingling. The nurse should:
A) Notify the woman's physician.
B) Tell the woman to slow the pace of her breathing.
C) Administer oxygen via a mask or nasal cannula.
D) Help her breathe into a paper bag.
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Chapter 11: Fetal Assessment During Labor
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with:
A) Hypotension.
B) Cord compression.
C) Maternal drug use.
D) Hypoxemia.
Q2) Perinatal nurses are legally responsible for:
A) Correctly interpreting fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes.
B) Greeting the patient on arrival, assessing her, and starting an intravenous line.
C) Applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider.
D) Making sure that the woman is comfortable.
Q3) A nurse might be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp:
A) As part of fetal scalp blood sampling.
B) In response to tocolysis.
C) In preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring.
D) To elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR).
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Chapter 12: Nursing Care of the Family During Labor and Birth
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/30726
Sample Questions
Q1) For women who have a history of sexual abuse, a number of traumatic memories may be triggered during labor. The woman may fight the labor process and react with pain or anger. Alternately she may become a passive player and emotionally absent herself from the process. The nurse is in a unique position of being able to assist the woman to associate the sensations of labor with the process of childbirth and not the past abuse. The nurse can implement a number of care measures to help the woman view the childbirth experience in a positive manner. Which intervention would be key for the nurse to use while providing care?
A) Telling the woman to relax and that it won't hurt much
B) Limiting the number of procedures that invade her body
C) Reassuring the woman that as the nurse you know what is best
D) Allowing unlimited care providers to be with the woman
Q2) Through vaginal examination the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated, and the external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every 3½ to 4 minutes. The nurse would report this as:
A) First stage, latent phase.
B) First stage, active phase.
C) First stage, transition phase.
D) Second stage, latent phase.
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Chapter 13: Maternal Physiologic Changes
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to postpartum ovarian function, nurses should be aware that:
A) Almost 75% of women who do not breastfeed resume menstruating within a month after birth.
B) Ovulation occurs slightly earlier for breastfeeding women.
C) Because of menstruation/ovulation schedules, contraception considerations can be postponed until after the puerperium.
D) The first menstrual flow after childbirth usually is heavier than normal.
Q2) Which condition, not uncommon in pregnancy, is likely to require careful medical assessment during the puerperium?
A) Varicosities of the legs
B) Carpal tunnel syndrome
C) Periodic numbness and tingling of the fingers
D) Headaches
Q3) The interval between the birth of the newborn and the return of the reproductive organs to their normal nonpregnant state is called the:
A) Involutionary period because of what happens to the uterus.
B) Lochia period because of the nature of the vaginal discharge.
C) Mini-tri period because it lasts only 3 to 6 weeks.
D) Puerperium, or fourth trimester of pregnancy.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nursing Care of the Family During the Fourth Trimester
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman gave birth 48 hours ago to a healthy infant girl. She has decided to bottle-feed. During your assessment you notice that both of her breasts are swollen, warm, and tender on palpation. The woman should be advised that this condition can best be treated by:
A) Running warm water on her breasts during a shower.
B) Applying ice to the breasts for comfort.
C) Expressing small amounts of milk from the breasts to relieve pressure.
D) Wearing a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.
Q2) With regard to rubella and Rh issues, nurses should be aware that:
A) Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus.
B) Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic and that they must avoid pregnancy for 1 month after vaccination.
C) Rh immune globulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant.
D) Rh immune globulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations.
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16
Chapter 15: Transition to Parenthood
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After giving birth to a healthy infant boy, a primiparous woman, 16, is admitted to the postpartum unit. An appropriate nursing diagnosis for her at this time is risk for impaired parenting related to deficient knowledge of newborn care. In planning for the woman's discharge, what should the nurse be certain to include in the plan of care?
A) Tell the woman how to feed and bathe her infant.
B) Give the woman written information on bathing her infant.
C) Advise the woman that all mothers instinctively know how to care for their infants.
D) Provide time for the woman to bathe her infant after she views an infant bath demonstration.
Q2) In follow-up appointments or visits with parents and their new baby, it may be useful if the nurse can identify parental behaviors that can either facilitate or inhibit attachment. Which is a facilitating behavior?
A) The parents have difficulty naming the infant.
B) The parents hover around the infant, directing attention to and pointing at the infant.
C) The parents make no effort to interpret the actions or needs of the infant.
D) The parents do not move from fingertip touch to palmar contact and holding.
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17
Chapter 16: Physiologic and Behavioral Adaptations of the Newborn
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a "C" with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive:
A) Tonic neck reflex.
B) Glabellar (Myerson) reflex.
C) Babinski reflex.
D) Moro reflex.
Q2) What are modes of heat loss in the newborn? Choose all that apply.
A) Perspiration
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) Conduction
E) Urination
Q3) The transition period between intrauterine and extrauterine existence for the newborn:
A) Consists of four phases, two reactive and two of decreased responses.
B) Lasts from birth to day 28 of life.
C) Applies to full-term births only.
D) Varies by socioeconomic status and the mother's age.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Assessment and Care of the Newborn and Family
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Sample Questions
Q1) At 1 minute after birth the nurse assesses the infant and notes: a heart rate of 80 beats/min, some flexion of extremities, a weak cry, grimacing, and a pink body but blue extremities. The nurse would calculate an Apgar score of:
A) 4.
B) 5.
C) 6.
D) 7.
Q2) An Apgar score of 10 at 1 minute after birth would indicate:
A) An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life and needing no further testing.
B) An infant in severe distress that needs resuscitation.
C) A prediction of a future free of neurologic problems.
D) An infant having no difficulty adjusting to extrauterine life but who should be assessed again at 5 minutes after birth.
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19
Chapter 18: Newborn Nutrition and Feeding
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process whereby parents awaken the infant to feed every 3 hours during the day and at least every 4 hours at night is:
A) Known as demand feeding.
B) Necessary during the first 24 to 48 hours after birth.
C) Used to set up the supply-meets-demand system.
D) A way to control cluster feeding.
Q2) All of these statements indicate impacts of breastfeeding on the family or society at large except:
A) Breastfeeding requires fewer supplies and less cumbersome equipment.
B) Breastfeeding saves families money.
C) Breastfeeding costs employers in terms of time lost from work.
D) Breastfeeding benefits the environment.
Q3) A breastfeeding woman develops engorged breasts at 3 days' postpartum. What action would help this woman achieve her goal of reducing the engorgement? The woman:
A) Skips feedings to let her sore breasts rest.
B) Avoids using a breast pump.
C) Breastfeeds her infant every 2 hours.
D) Reduces her fluid intake for 24 hours.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Assessment of High Risk Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time?
A) Ultrasound examination
B) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein screening (MSAFP)
C) Amniocentesis
D) Nonstress test (NST)
Q2) Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP):
A) Is an accurate indicator of fetal well-being.
B) Is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy.
C) Consists of a Doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index.
D) Involves an invasive form of ultrasonic examination.
Q3) In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
A) Amniotic fluid volume.
B) Uterine abnormalities.
C) Placental location and maturity.
D) Cervical length.
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Chapter 20: Pregnancy at Risk: Preexisting Conditions
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) With what heart condition is pregnancy not usually contraindicated?
A) Peripartum cardiomyopathy
B) Eisenmenger syndrome
C) Heart transplant
D) All of these contraindicate pregnancy.
Q2) Since the gene for cystic fibrosis was identified in 1989, it has been possible to collect data for the purposes of genetic counseling for couples in regard to carrier status. According to statistics, how often does cystic fibrosis occur in Caucasian live births?
A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 1200
C) 1 in 2500
D) 1 in 3200
Q3) Maternal phenylketonuria (PKU) is an important health concern during pregnancy because:
A) It is a recognized cause of preterm labor.
B) The fetus may develop neurologic problems.
C) A pregnant woman is more likely to die without dietary control.
D) Women with PKU are usually retarded and should not reproduce.
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Chapter 21: Pregnancy at Risk: Gestational Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for pregnant women must be aware that the most common medical complication of pregnancy is:
A) Hypertension.
B) Hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) Hemorrhagic complications.
D) Infections.
Q2) A woman presents to the emergency department complaining of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion?
A) Incomplete
B) Inevitable
C) Threatened
D) Septic
Q3) The antidote administered to reverse magnesium toxicity is
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Chapter 22: Labor and Birth at Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1½ to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
A) She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
B) She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
C) She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
D) She is experiencing pelvic dystocia.
Q2) With regard to the process of augmentation of labor, the nurse should be aware that it:
A) Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory.
B) Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed.
C) Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forceps-assisted birth.
D) Uses vacuum cups.
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Chapter 23: Postpartum Complications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite popular belief, there is a rare type of hemophilia that affects women of childbearing age. Von Willebrand disease is the most common of the hereditary bleeding disorders and can affect males and females alike. It results from a factor VIII deficiency and platelet dysfunction. Although factor VIII levels increase naturally during pregnancy, there is an increased risk for postpartum hemorrhage from birth until 4 weeks after delivery as levels of von Willebrand factor (vWf) and factor VIII decrease. The treatment that should be considered first for the patient with von Willebrand disease who experiences a postpartum hemorrhage is:
A) Cryoprecipitate.
B) Factor VIII and vWf.
C) Desmopressin.
D) Hemabate.
Q2) ____________________ is the most common cause of postpartum infection.
Q3) The perinatal nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is most likely caused by:
A) Subinvolution of the placental site.
B) Defective vascularity of the decidua.
C) Cervical lacerations.
D) Coagulation disorders.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Newborn at Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome receives artificial surfactant. How would the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
A) "Surfactant improves the ability of your baby's lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide."
B) "The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation."
C) "Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea."
D) "Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection."
Q2) What bacterial infection is definitely decreasing because of effective drug treatment?
A) Escherichia coli infection
B) Tuberculosis
C) Candidiasis
D) Group B streptococcal infection
Q3) Infants of mothers with diabetes are at higher risk for developing:
A) Anemia.
B) Hyponatremia.
C) Respiratory distress syndrome.
D) Sepsis.
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