PC Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of personal computer (PC) hardware and software components, emphasizing the principles and practices of routine maintenance and effective troubleshooting techniques. Through hands-on lab sessions, students learn to assemble, configure, and upgrade PCs, identify and resolve common hardware and software issues, manage system performance, and ensure data security. The course also introduces diagnostic tools and procedures for problem-solving and covers industry-standard preventive maintenance practices, preparing students for real-world technical support roles and certification exams such as CompTIA A+.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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2
Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) Very few people pay full price for the A+ exams, because most companies that provide CompTIA A+ training offer discount _______________.
Answer: vouchers
Q2) Briefly describe three study tactics recommended in this text.
Answer: One trick used by students in law and medical schools who have to memorize reams of information: write it down.The act of writing something down (not typing, writing) in and of itself helps you to remember it even if you never look at what you wrote again.Try taking separate notes on the material and re-creating diagrams by hand to help solidify the information in your mind.Another oldie but goodie: Make yourself flash cards with questions and answers on topics you find difficult.A third trick: Take your notes to bed and read them just before you go to sleep.Many people find they really do learn while they sleep!
Q3) The term _______________ refers to an item that techs interact with, can set up, and repair.
Answer: personal computer (PC)
Q4) Building, maintaining, and fixing _______________-groups of computers that enable people to share resources-represent a logical set of skills for computer technicians.
Answer: networks
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you have long hair, why might you consider tying it back in a pony-tail?
Answer: You don't want anything getting caught in a fan or stuck on a component.Preventing this type of situation can save you and your components a lot of pain.
Q2) At what stage of the troubleshooting theory process should backups be performed?
Answer: Backups should be performed during the identification stage of the troubleshooting theory process, before making any changes.
Q3) When building out a computer space and cutting drywall, wear a(n) _______________ for breathing protection.
Answer: air filter mask
Q4) Should you build customer confidence and trust in your technical abilities by memorizing customer passwords and confidential document locations?
Answer: No.Avoid learning other folks' passwords, and always respect confidential customer property.
Q5) When engaging with a user, explaining a situation clearly and eliciting answers in a non-judgmental and non-accusatory manner are examples of _______________.
Answer: assertive communication
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the processing stage of the computer process. Answer: The parts inside the device or case take over after input as the operating system tells the hardware to do what you've requested.This is processing.
Q2) Which port on the back of a PC's system unit is used for output to a monitor?
A)eSATA
B)NIC
C)PS/2 or mini-DIN
D)HDMI
Answer: D
Q3) Which tool enables you to copy any Unicode character into the Clipboard and paste into your document?
A)Control Panel
B)Device Manager
C)My Computer
D)Character Map
Answer: D
Q4) Data _______________ refers to saving a permanent copy of your work so that you can come back to it later.
Answer: storage
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) The CPUs of _______________ devices must consume as little electricity as possible, to conserve battery life and limit heat.
Q2) In today's computers, the CPU tells _______________ the clock speed it needs, and the clock chip then automatically adjusts for the CPU.
A)the motherboard
B)RAM
C)the address Bus
D)the hard disk
Q3) What is the purpose of CPU code names?
Q4) Which type of coolers are heat-sink and fan assemblies that are included with most Intel retail-boxed CPU?
A)Liquid coolers
B)OEM CPU coolers
C)Specialized CPU coolers
D)Internal coolers
Q5) SRAM used to preload as many instructions as possible and keep copies of already run instructions and data in case the CPU needs to work on them again is called a(n)
Q6) How do mass storage devices differ from RAM?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) Some motherboards that support DDR3 also support features called _______________ architecture or quad-channel architecture, which work a lot like dual-channel, but with three or four sticks of RAM, respectively, instead of two.
Q2) What is the core RAM clock speed for RAM with a DDR2 speed rating of DDR2-400 and a PC speed rating of PC2-3200?
A)100 MHz
B)200 MHz
C)400 MHz
D)800 MHz
Q3) As CPU data bus sizes increased, DRAM manufacturers responded by creating wider DRAM chips, such as ×4, ×8, and ×16, and putting multiples of them on a small circuit board called a(n) _______________ or module.
Q4) _______________ arrived on the scene in late 2014 with much fanfare and slow adoption, offering higher densities and lower voltages than DDR3 and handling faster data transfer rates.
Q5) What is an indication that disk thrashing may be occurring?
Q6) What does a Windows 8/8.1/10 system display as its NMI proprietary crash screen?
Q7) Describe some best practices to follow when installing DIMMs.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) What is a bootable disk?
Q2) What two types of hardware are supported by every system BIOS?
Q3) Some CMOS setup programs allow you to control the ATA Security Mode Feature Set, also commonly referred to as _______________.
Q4) A separate memory chip called the _______________ chip stores the information that describes specific device parameters.
Q5) Compare the function of the Northbridge chip versus the Southbridge chip.
Q6) Briefly describe LoJack.
Q7) In a graphical system setup utility, where would you get information about devices, and configure, hard drives, optical drives and other built-in components?
Q8) Which features/restrictions does UEFI support?
A)It requires x86-compliant hardware.
B)It allows booting to drives larger than 2.2 TB.
C)It boots directly from RAM.
D)It toasts a perfect bagel.
Q9) Many PCs have CMOS setup menus that display information about the _______________ and _______________, and include controls for overclocking them.
Q10) Why are ROM chips considered nonvolatile?
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) Flashing the BIOS entails running a small command-line program to write a new BIOS in the flash _______________ chip.
A)Northbridge
B)Southbridge
C)ROM
D)RAM
Q2) _______________ motherboards enable companies to create systems that stand out from the generic ones.
Q3) Older, original BIOS _______________ chips handled some expansion devices and mass storage drives such as hard drives.
Q4) Why do chipsets factor hugely in the purchase or recommendation of a particular motherboard?
Q5) Which port is considered to be a newer video port?
A)DIN
B)USB
C)HDMI
D)VGA
Q6) Briefly list the four steps one would take when selecting a case and motherboard.
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of wire carries no voltage?
A)Ground
B)Hot
C)Multimeter
D)Neutral
Q2) Modern motherboards use a(n) _______________- or _______________-pin
P1 power connector.
Q3) The pressure of electrons in a wire is called _______________.
Q4) Which unit is used to measure resistance?
A)Joule
B)Ampere
C)Ohm
D)Watt
Q5) Most case fans have standard _______________ connectors that are easy to plug in but can be forced to be connected the wrong way.
A)Molex
B)mini
C)micro
D)sub-mini
Q6) How do the electrons flow in DC current versus AC current?
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) Describe four problems associated with the parallel ATA interface.
Q2) What tool can you use in Windows to configure and manage hard drives and RAID levels?
A)FDISK
B)Disk Management
C)AHCI
D)Device Manager
Q3) Regardless of the external interface, you will find an ordinary SATA drive inside the _______________ (the name used to describe the casing of external hard drives).
Q4) What is autodetection?
Q5) Which drive technology rules the roost in the server market?
A)Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (S.M.A.R.T.)
B)Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI)
C)Redundant array of independent (or inexpensive) disks (RAID)
D)Small computer system interface (SCSI)
Q6) As per the PATA standard, if there is only one hard drive, the drive's jumper is set to master or _______________.
Q7) How did SATA change autodetection?
Q8) ATA hard drives are often referred to as _______________ drives.
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) FAT32 does not work on drives larger than _______________ TB.
Q2) Any removable media that has a bootable OS is generically known as a(n) _______________.
Q3) All basic hard drive partition tables support up to _______________ partitions.
A)one
B)two
C)four
D)six
Q4) A(n) _______________ organizes each partition on the hard disk in such a way that the operating system can store files and folders.
Q5) What are some symptoms of a dying hard drive?
Q6) Which code indicates that a sector in the hard drive is bad?
A)FFFF
B)FFF7
C)0007
D)0000
Q7) What should you do if you want to run both Windows 7 and Linux on your PC?
Q8) _______________ a hard drive creates a file system and root directory.
Q9) You should never defrag a(n) _______________ because it can shorten its lifetime. Page 12
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) What type of USB ports and connectors are used for interfacing with a PC?
A)Macro ports and micro connectors
B)Micro ports and macro connectors
C)USB A ports and connectors
D)USB B ports and connectors
Q2) The _______________ is both the oldest and still the primary way to input data into a PC.
Q3) CDs store data by using _______________ pits burned into a glass master CD with a powerful laser.
A)bubble
B)synthetic
C)wave
D)microscopic
Q4) FireWire supports a maximum of _______________ devices.
A)15
B)63
C)127
D)128
Q5) FireWire IEEE 1394b runs at _______________ Mbps.
Q6) How should you clean modern pointing devices such as an optical mouse?
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) A(n) _______________ workstation needs a high-quality audio interface with inputs that enable you to connect professional microphones and instruments.
Q2) What is a zero-fill (or overwrite) operation on a disk?
Q3) Microsoft and many tech writers also use the term _______________ installation to define an upgrade.
Q4) A free utility, usually called Windows _______________, can be run on a system to see if the hardware and software will work with a newer version of Windows.
Q5) What kind of hardware support for sound is needed in a home-theater PC?
Q6) The minimum recommended CPU requirements for a Windows 64-bit thick client are _______________.
A)1 gigahertz (GHz) processor
B)2 GHz processor
C)4 cores
D)an Intel or AMD processor
Q7) _______________ allows the running of more than one OS at the same time on a single machine.
Q8) A(n) _______________ file tracks any errors during a phase of an installation.
Page 15
Q9) In multibooting, why would you use Boot Camp?
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) In a(n) _______________ system, the MBR/GUID partition table (GPT) nor the file system boot code is run.
Q2) What command enables you to view running processes on a local or remote system?
A)Taskview
B)Control Panel
C)Tasklist
D)Services
Q3) You can kill a process using the _______________ command, using either the name or the PID.
Q4) The _______________ command can modify the Registry in only one way, adding (or registering) dynamic link library (DLL) files as command components.
Q5) What can be typed in the Windows Search to open the Services Control Panel applet?
A)Regserv.mmc
B)Perfmon.msc
C)Service.mmc
D)Services.msc
Q6) What is the function of Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)?
Q7) What is the function of the winload.exe file?
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) Jane's account is changed from administrator to standard user.How does this impact Jane's personal files/folders and her privileges on the computer?
Q2) Briefly describe BitLocker to Go.
Q3) Briefly compare copying an encrypted file to a non-NTFS formatted drive to copying an encrypted file to a drive with NTFS.
Q4) In Windows systems, the _______________ account might be used to provide casual Internet access to users at a library terminal.
Q5) In a Windows Vista system, the _______________library folders are accessible by all users on the computer.
Q6) Created automatically by Windows, _______________ give local administrators access to resources whether they log on locally or remotely.
A)administrative shares
B)simple file sharing
C)shared folders
D)public folders
Q7) To create and manage user accounts in Windows, you must be a member of the ____________________ group.
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) Although Mac OS X handles most chores automatically these days, Apple still includes the _______________, a disk maintenance utility/tool.
Q2) What is the backup utility called in Windows Vista?
Q3) The purpose of Windows Update is to allow users to easily ________________.
A)install important or recommended updates
B)update drivers
C)update virus signatures
D)download viruses
Q4) The small programs that are used to support the various functions of an operating system are known as _______________ and _______________.
Q5) _______________ updates address critical security or stability issues and are the most critical.
Q6) Which types of updates must be installed manually in Windows?
A)important
B)recommended
C)optional
D)special
Q7) In Linux, drivers should be updated by using _______________.
Q8) What is the procedure for removing Mac Store applications?
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) Which key in the Windows command-line interface brings back the previous command, one letter at a time?
A)F1
B)F3
C)F10
D)F12
Q2) If a command has its own executable file, it is called a(n) _______________ program.
Q3) The Windows System File Checker, or simply _______________ .exe, scans, detects, and restores important Windows system files, folders, and paths.
Q4) What is the purpose of the gpresult tool?
Q5) In the command-line interface, there are two _______________ characters: the asterisk (*) and question mark (?).
Q6) The Linux command _______________ displays the current working directory.
Q7) What is the difference between a folder and a subfolder, or a directory and a subdirectory?
Q8) The cd \ command in Windows always navigates back to the _______________.
Q9) What type of file does the Windows extension ".exe" identify?
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Q10) The command to find every file that starts with the letter c is _______________.
Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) How can the Recovery Console be used to resolve boot problems?
Q2) A user has reconfigured the refresh rate on his monitor such that it no longer displays.To be able to access the settings, you would select ______________ from the Advanced Startup Options menu.
Q3) In Windows, ______________ starts up Windows loading only very basic drivers for the mouse, resolution monitor, keyboard, mass storage, and system services.
Q4) What does the logon command do in the Recovery Console?
Q5) What are two critical files required to boot modern Windows?
Q6) When do Windows XP boot failures occur in the startup process?
A)After the Windows login screen appears
B)Between the time POST ends and the Loading Windows screen begins
C)Before POST starts and the Loading Windows screens begins
D)After the GUI starts and before POST starts
Q7) Which command provides a detailed query about drives and volumes?
A)reset
B)initiate
C)bootrec
D)fsinfo
Q8) Describe the Windows Preinstallation Environment (PE).
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Describe the difference between emulation and virtualization.
Q2) Full virtualization requires an extra layer of sophisticated programming called a(n) _______________ to manage vastly more complex interactions.
Q3) Hyper-V is a part of which distribution?
A)Mac OS
B)Windows 7
C)Windows 8 Pro
D)Linux
Q4) Which hypervisor runs in Windows, Mac OS X, and Linux hosts?
A)KVM
B)Hyper-V
C)VirtualBox
D)VMware Fusion
Q5) The most popular reason for virtualization is easier system _______________.
Q6) A(n) _______________ environment is called a virtual machine (VM).
Q7) What are two virtualization products available for Mac operating systems?
Q8) Describe the hardware factors that affect virtualization scalability.
Q9) Define virtualization.
Q10) PaaS stands for _______________.
Q11) Inactive virtual machines are stored as _______________.
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) Every 3-D game stores a number of image files called _______________.
A)dots
B)pixels
C)signals
D)textures
Q2) Describe the twisted nematic (TN) technology.
Q3) List three ways an inverter can cause damage to a technician or the component itself.
Q4) What are some negative effects of excessive heat inside a case?
Q5) What was the resolution of the earliest graphics cards?
A)100 × 50 pixels
B)115 × 100 pixels
C)320 × 200 pixels
D)210 × 400 pixels
Q6) Which LCD components are powered by a high-voltage electrical circuit that can give you a nasty shock?
A)CCFL frontlights
B)Convergers
C)Low-voltage b-nodes
D)Inverters
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) The connection between a computer and a switch is called a(n)
Q2) Describe twisted pair cabling.
Q3) There are close to _______________ different Ethernet fiber optic cabling standards.
A)20
B)50
C)100
D)250
Q4) All network interfaces cards (NICs) have a(n) _______________ "burned" into them.
A)domain name
B)DNS name
C)IP address
D)MAC address
Q5) Both clients and servers need _______________ that define or label the machine on the?network.
Q6) Most modern Ethernet networks employ one of three speeds: 10BaseT, 100BaseT, or
24
Q7) You can hook two computers directly together using a special UTP cable called a(n) _______________ cable.
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) Describe the process by which a computer obtains an IPv4 DHCP address.
Q2) What command verifies communication with a remote system by sending packets to it and receiving them back?
A)ping
B)tracert
C)ipconfig
D)net
Q3) Describe the features of a Homegroup.
Q4) The _______________ utility verifies that you can communicate with a remote system.
Q5) What is the Linux/Mac OS equivalent of tracert?
A)ipconfig
B)traceroute
C)tracert
D)telnet
Q6) Suppose a network is characterized as /20.What does this mean? How many host IDs can the network support?
Q7) What is usually the issue when failing to connect to a new resource?
Q8) Describe the net command.
Q9) ::1 is the IPv6 _______________.
Page 25
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) What do dipole antennas look like?
Q2) Two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode form what's called a(n)
Q3) What should you check first when troubleshooting wireless connectivity issues?
A)Wireless configuration utility
B)Wireless NIC link light
C)Encryption settings
D)Dipole gain
Q4) A(n) ______________ enables you to connect to the Internet through a network-aware smartphone, tablet, or other mobile device.
Q5) Because nodes on a wireless network can't easily detect collisions, which protocol is an option to transfer data over a network?
Q6) What are the three methods that wireless networks use to secure access to the network itself and secure the data being transferred?
Q7) At what range is the maximum throughput speed of 802.11 networks typically achieved?
Q8) The maximum distance between infrared devices is ______________.
Q9) What is the security flaw in WPS?
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) Describe the contents of the Connections tab in the Internet Options applet.
Q2) ______________ enables you to give anyone control of your desktop or take control of anyone else's desktop.
Q3) What allows you to give anyone control of your desktop through an e-mail invitation?
A)Secure Shell
B)SMTP
C)Proxy
D)Remote Assistance
Q4) Like Microsoft and SMB, Apple developed the ______________ in the late 1980s to support file sharing between Macintosh computers on early LANs.
Q5) You can use ______________ to make voice calls over your computer?network.
Q6) What type of signal does a computer use to communicate?
A)Analog
B)Digital
C)Encrypted
D)Wave
Q7) Almost all ______________ modems connect to a PCI or PCI Express (PCIe) expansion bus slot inside the computer.
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) What allows a user to log into a computer with a card and PIN number?
A)Expansion slot
B)Memory card reader
C)Smart card reader
D)Smart port
Q2) Most full-sized laptops have a(n) _______________ wired Ethernet connection.
Q3) What is the difference between HDD and SSD?
Q4) Tablets have two main form factors: _______________ (with a fold-out keyboard) and _______________ (no keyboard).
Q5) Most current laptops use what kind of DDR4 SO-DIMMs?
A)200-pin
B)204-pin
C)144-pin
D)160-pin
Q6) When you don't need access to a number of ports at once, you can often find a(n) _______________ for whatever you need to connect, such as an optical drive.
Q7) Portable PCs have a standard _______________-mm audio out port.
Q8) What is the main advantage of a touchpad over other pointing device options for laptops?
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) Most mobile operating systems come with some sort of _______________ or application development kit that you can use to create custom apps or add features to existing apps on the device.
Q2) Explain how to configure a portable hotspot.
Q3) Describe a portable hotspot.
Q4) What is the name of Microsoft's virtual assistant?
A)Apple Now
B)Google Now
C)Siri
D)Cortana
Q5) Apple's closed-source mobile operating system, _______________, runs on the iPhone, iPad, and iPod Touch.
Q6) A(n) _______________ is a device designed for reading electronic books (e-books).
Q7) Explain how to join a Wi-Fi network.
Q8) Describe a personal digital assistant (PDA).
Q9) _______________ uses chips embedded in mobile devices that create electromagnetic fields when these devices are close to each other.
Q10) What is the advantage of synchronizing to the cloud?
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) The first step on troubleshooting a dim display is to check the _______________.
Q2) What is a liquid contact indicator (LCI)?
Q3) In Android, where would you go to force stop an app?
A)Home screen
B)Application manager
C)Battery settings
D)Task manager
Q4) Removing OS restrictions on an Apple device is known as _______________.
A)rooting
B)jailbreaking
C)device spoofing
D)access injection
Q5) What are the two typical settings on a device to control its brightness?
Q6) What is a hard reset?
Q7) What is the knowledge factor when talking about authentication?
Q8) What are the two ways to view battery life?
Q9) How can you uninstall an app?
Q10) Some devices have _______________ modes and may even be able to display _______________ instead of full color.
Q11) What are some common reasons for a weak signal?
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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120 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A laser printer's transfer corona applies a positive charge to the paper, drawing the ______________ charged toner particles to the paper.
Q2) In a laser printer, the _______________ uses friction to isolate a single sheet any others that were picked up.
A)duplexing assembly
B)separation pad
C)transfer roller
D)gearbox
Q3) The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing?
A)PPM
B)RGB
C)CMYK
D)LEDS
Q4) At the end of the laser printing process, what is cleaned?
A)Toner
B)Laser head
C)Photosensitive drum
D)Power unit
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surprise browser windows that appear automatically when you visit a Web site are known as _______________.
Q2) What does Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI) involve?
Q3) Antimalware programs can passively monitor your computer's activity.What are they called when operating in this mode?
A)Grayware
B)Spyware
C)Virus shields
D)Virus swords
Q4) What is a checksum?
Q5) What is a software program that looks like one thing (such as a utility or a game) but is actually doing something else (such as modifying CMOS settings)?
A)Spyware
B)Trojan
C)Virus
D)Worm
Q6) The tool used to set local policies on an individual system is _______________.
Q7) What is a stealth virus?
Q8) What tool is used to set security policies on an individual system?
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