PC Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
This course provides students with fundamental knowledge and practical skills in maintaining and troubleshooting personal computers. Key topics include hardware components, operating systems, system upgrades, and peripheral devices. Students will learn to diagnose and solve common hardware and software issues, perform routine PC maintenance, install and configure operating systems, and ensure optimal system performance. Suitable for beginners and those preparing for entry-level IT certifications, the course combines theoretical foundations with hands-on experience in real-world scenarios.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) When will CompTIA incorporate coverage of Windows 10 into its exams?
Answer: Assuming CompTIA stays true to form, there's a very good chance that you'll see a Windows 10 update on the exams within a year or two of the Windows 10 rollout.
Q2) If a professional hasn't already achieved _______________ certification, they should make it their next certification goal after CompTIA A+ certification.
A)Certiport's IC³
B)CompTIA Security+
C)CompTIA Network+
D)CompTIA IT Fundamentals
Answer: C
Q3) Who administers the A+ Certification testing?
Answer: Pearson VUE administers the CompTIA A+ testing at over 5000 testing centers in 165 countries.
Q4) The 220-901 exam tests your knowledge of computer _______________, expecting you to be able to identify just about every common device on PCs, including variations within device types.
Answer: components
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3
Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Q1) What is the first step of the troubleshooting theory?
A)Identify the problem.
B)Establish theory of probable cause.
C)Test the theory.
D)Verify full system functionality.
Answer: A
Q2) As a tech, the last step of every troubleshooting job should be to document your findings, _______________, and _______________.
Answer: actions, outcomes
Q3) Which tool is generally included in a typical technician toolkit?
A)Crescent wrench
B)Hammer
C)Measuring tape
D)Parts retriever
E)Measuring tape.
Answer: D
Q4) What is a critical preventive measure to consider in almost every case?
Answer: Educate the user.Take advantage of the time with the user to informally train him about the problem.
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Q1) Within the original Windows 8 operating system, what is the result when a user scrolls with a mouse wheel?
Answer: Scrolling with the mouse wheel scrolls right to left rather than up and down.
Q2) In Windows 10, how does a user bring up the Start menu?
Answer: When you press the Windows logo key on the keyboard, Windows 10 brings up the Start menu with useful tools and your most used apps on the left and pinned apps on the right.
Q3) What are the three major components in a modern computer?
A)Operating system, data storage, and networking
B)Control Panel, Device Manager, and System Tools
C)Computer case, central processing unit, and ports
D)Hardware, operating system, and applications
Answer: D
Q4) How does a user switch to the classic view of the Windows Control Panel in Windows Vista and in Windows 7?
Answer: In Windows Vista, choose Classic View.In Windows 7, select either Large icons or Small icons from the View by drop-down list for a similar effect.
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Q1) Briefly describe the four steps or stages of a CPU in one sentence each.
Q2) What is the purpose of the SRAM?
Q3) In some instances, you can create a system that has no fan for the CPU with what is called fanless or _______________ cooling.
Q4) What performance enhancement is accomplished through jumpers, CMOS settings, or software configuration?
A)Multicore processing
B)Virtualization
C)Hyper-threading
D)Overclocking
Q5) What is overclocking?
Q6) SRAM _______________ as many instructions as possible and keeps copies of already run instructions and data.
Q7) What is equivalent to 1024 bytes?
A)1 kilobyte
B)1 megabyte
C)1 nanobyte
D)1 terabyte
Q8) What causes the CPU to process a command placed on the EDB?
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) Briefly describe error correction code RAM (ECC RAM) and explain how it works.
Q2) What does excessive disk thrashing suggest?
A)There is a bad hard drive that needs to be replaced.
B)The system needs more CPU power.
C)The system needs more RAM.
D)The operating system needs to be reinstalled.
Q3) The first type of error-detecting RAM was known as _______________ RAM.
Q4) As CPU data bus sizes increased, DRAM manufacturers responded by creating wider DRAM chips, such as ×4, ×8, and ×16, and putting multiples of them on a small circuit board called a(n) _______________ or module.
Q5) How are DDR2 I/O speeds related to clock speeds?
A)DDR2 I/O speeds are the same as the clock speeds.
B)DDR2 I/O speeds are double the clock speeds.
C)DDR2 I/O speeds are triple the clock speeds.
D)DDR2 I/O speeds are quadruple the clock speeds.
Q6) DDR sticks use a rather interesting naming convention based on the number of _______________ per second of data throughput the RAM can handle.
Q7) Today's PCs that need to watch for RAM errors use a special type of RAM called _______________ RAM.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) What is the Southbridge called in newer CPUs?
Q2) What are three advantages of UEFI over the 16-bit BIOS?
Q3) Every time a key is pressed on the keyboard, the _______________ chip in the keyboard notices which key has been pressed.
Q4) What are the functions of the system ROM?
Q5) Rather than being stored on option ROM, every video card contains its own
Q6) Which component is a read-only device?
A)DRAM
B)Hard disk
C)RAM
D)ROM
Q7) Which component handles the interconnection between most devices and the CPU?
A)Northbridge
B)RAM
C)ROM
D)Southbridge
Q8) What will likely occur if you put an old-style BIOS bootable disk in a UEFI system?
Q9) A flash ROM chip on the motherboard is called _______________.
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) With a(n) _______________ failure, the computer just will not boot.
Q2) Describe how motherboards support video.
Q3) Describe how motherboards support networking.
Q4) Why are the connections and capabilities of a motherboard sometimes different from those that the chipset of the motherboard uses?
Q5) _______________ motherboards enable companies to create systems that stand out from the generic ones.
Q6) Briefly describe PCIe.
Q7) Why should you document your troubleshooting efforts?
Q8) In what order should you install a device and its device driver?
Q9) For almost all expansion cards, their BIOS comes in the form of _______________-software support programs-loaded from an optical disc provided by the card manufacturer.
Q10) Every device soldered to the motherboard is designed to run at the speed of the
Q11) What is the importance of the motherboard book?
Q12) A Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) displaying in the midst of heavy computing is an example of a(n) _______________ failure. Page 9
Q13) Older, original BIOS _______________ chips handled RAM.
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Q1) A(n) _______________ is used to create more connections to power all the devices in a PC.
Q2) How many watts of power does an Intel i7-4790K require at peak performance?
A)50
B)100
C)150
D)200
Q3) Large sags in electricity are also known as _______________.
Q4) What is the purpose of slot covers?
Q5) Describe elements and function of a multimeter.
Q6) A system you maintain locks up randomly.This is very likely due to _______________ problems.
Q7) Every device in a PC requires a certain amount of _______________ to function, derived from the amount of amps and volts it needs.
Q8) What are two ways in which power supplies can fail?
Q9) How does a typical power supply deal with changing voltages in different countries?
Q10) To handle the power needs of high-end equipment, how is adequate 12-volt power supplied from a power supply?
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) A traditional hard disk drive (HDD) is composed of individual disks, or aluminum platters that are coated with a(n) _______________ medium.
Q2) How many functional failures can RAID 10 withstand and remain functional?
A)One
B)Up to two
C)Up to four
D)Up to 10
Q3) Drive bay _______________ sit at the front of a bay and blow air across the drive.
Q4) What is the minimum number of drives needed to implement RAID 5?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q5) What is the best friend a tech has when it comes to troubleshooting hard drive?installation?
Q6) What options are generally available if you do not see a label on the drive that tells you how to set the jumpers?
Q7) When installing PATA drives, how do you set the jumpers?
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) In Windows, each _______________ is assigned a drive letter from C : to Z:.
A)cylinder
B)file
C)sector
D)partition
Q2) When a computer boots up, where does BIOS look for instructions?
Q3) The _______________ tool can be used to help eliminate unneeded files such as files in the Recycle Bin.
Q4) What is the purpose of encryption in NTFS?
Q5) One of the benefits of mount points is that they do not require a(n) drive
Q6) The _______________ feature of NTFS provides security for files and folders.
Q7) Which Windows versions support dynamic disks?
Q8) A(n) _______________ volume is similar to a primary partition, but in fact, is not a primary partition.
A)mirrored
B)simple
C)spanned
D)striped
Q9) What is the purpose of high-level formatting? Page 13
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) Which type of DVD media has a storage capacity of 7.95 GB?
A)DVD-5
B)DVD-9
C)DVD-10
D)DVD-18
Q2) USB _______________ are flash devices that contain a standard USB connection.
Q3) What is the storage capacity of a Secure Digital Extended Capacity (SDXC) card?
A)4 MB to 4 GB
B)4 GB to 32 GB
C)32 GB to 2 TB
D)128 MB to 2 GB
Q4) Digital cameras plug directly into a(n) _______________ port.
A)VGA
B)USB
C)HDMI
D)DVI-D
Q5) Describe the features of the Intel High Definition Audio (HDA) sound standard.
Q6) A microphone records sound by detecting _______________ and turning them into an electronic signal.
15
Q7) Briefly define the term sampling.
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) _______________ allows the running of more than one OS at the same time on a single machine.
Q2) _______________ installation is the best installation method for a large organization with hundreds of computers that require new software at the same time.
Q3) What kind of hardware support for sound is needed in a home-theater PC?
Q4) What type of connection carries both the video signal and the surround-sound audio signal and can be plugged into the television directly from the PC?
A)RCA
B)VGA
C)DVI
D)HDMI
Q5) A(n) _______________ is a system designed to handle only very basic applications with an absolute minimum amount of hardware required by the operating system.
Q6) Both Windows _______________ and iTunes have a feature to share media files on a local network.
Q7) How is virtualization most often used on workstations?
Q8) What is the preferred connector between a television and a home-theater PC?
Page 16
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) What is the function of HKEY_CURRENT_USER?
Q2) Which tab in Task Manager allows you to troubleshoot network performance issues?
Q3) _______________ assists in object sharing between applications and computers on a network.
Q4) The best way to work with services is to use the _______________ applet.
Q5) The _______________ command enables you to view running processes on a local or remote system.
Q6) How does regsvr32 differ from reg?
Q7) What is one major risk of editing the Registry?
A)Malware infecting the computer
B)Applications not starting up
C)Applications being uninstalled
D)E-mails being sent unintentionally
Q8) How many root keys are in the Registry?
A)Seven
B)Four
C)Six
D)Five
Q9) What does the "Performance" tab in Task Manager show?
Q10) A(n) _______________ tracks specific information about an object. Page 17
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) Prior to Vista, what was the functionality of the Power Users group?
Q2) What are the two most common ways to turn off UAC in Windows?
Q3) How are Libraries folders displayed in Windows 8.1 File Explorer?
A)Simply open File Explorer; they display automatically.
B)Navigate to the folder C : \Users\MyLibraries.
C)Right-click in the navigation section and click Show Libraries.
D)Double click on Favorites and click Show Libraries in the dialog box.
Q4) User Account Control (UAC) can be turned on or off in the ____________________ applet.
Q5) Which NTFS permission for a folder is defined as enabling you to read, write, and delete both files and subfolders?
A)Full Control
B)Modify
C)List Folder Contents
D)Read
Q6) List a few examples of the Public libraries in the Windows Vista.
Q7) Both Linux and Mac OS X have been using one UAC function for a long time-it is called _______________.
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Q8) What feature do the most recent professional versions of Windows use to encrypt files?
Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) In Windows, System Restore is turned on _______________.
A)by default
B)only manually by the user
C)permanently
D)when the system crashes
Q2) The command-line name for the System Information Tool in Windows is _______________.
Q3) The first task of Disk Cleanup is to ______________.
A)remove all unneeded files
B)calculate the space to be freed up
C)display the Disk Cleanup dialog box
D)check the disk-controller status
Q4) What function does the Disk Cleanup utility perform?
Q5) To clean up the Registry in Windows, you should ______________.
A)acquire the right third-party tool
B)run Registry Cleanup
C)configure Windows Update
D)restart your computer
Q6) _______________ updates include device drivers, language packs, and other nonessential updates.
20
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) The part of a file name following the period (.) is called the _______________.
A)Extension
B)Designation
C)Folder
D)Command
Q2) Which command shows the contents of the current directory in Windows?
A)dir
B)directory
C)list
D)show
Q3) Which Windowscommand will power down a local or remote computer?
A)restart
B)poweroff
C)shutdown
D)reboot
Q4) How is the wildcard character "?" used?
Q5) Use the _______________ switch to get help on the syntax and switches of a Windows command.
Q6) Where would you select the Run as administrator box when creating an administrator shortcut for the Command Prompt in Windows Vista?
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) Which tool can you use to temporarily prevent programs from autoloading?
A)System Configuration
B)Task Manager
C)Performance Monitor
D)Event Viewer
Q2) What does the bootrec /scanos command do?
Q3) Where are the backup Registry files located?
Q4) Windows requires that all very low-level drivers (kernel drivers) must have a(n)
Q5) What are some of the different types of Safe modes available?
Q6) What are two critical files required to boot modern Windows?
Q7) The best way to recover from a bad Registry load is to use the ______________ boot option.
Q8) What feature enables you to copy a file that is in use?
A)Volume Shadow Copy Service
B)System Restore
C)Recovery Console
D)Windows Recovery Environment
22
Q9) Windows starts in the ______________ mode when the Debugging Mode choice is selected.
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Discuss how virtualization enables power savings.
Q2) Where is hardware virtualization support for Intel and AMD processors enabled?
Q3) Describe the role of a supervisor in the context of single-OS machines.
Q4) What are the most limiting factors in a host's ability to run virtual machines?
A)Hard disk space and RAM
B)Network bandwidth and driver
C)CPU and RAM
D)Hard disk space and router
Q5) Which operating system, when added as a virtual machine, requires a separate, licensed copy?
A)Microsoft Windows
B)Ubuntu Linux
C)FreeDOS
D)OpenBSD
Q6) What is a hardware concern of emulation?
Q7) Which hypervisor runs in Windows, Mac OS X, and Linux hosts?
A)KVM
B)Hyper-V
C)VirtualBox
D)VMware Fusion
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) What subset of DirectX supports direct access to the hardware for joysticks and other game controllers?
A)DirectCPU
B)DirectInput
C)DirectX
D)DirectY
Q2) A(n) _______________ connector provides a video signal through a single cable that plugs into a standard RCA jack.
Q3) What does a video card need in order to run a 120 Hz monitor or television?
Q4) LCD monitor brightness is measured in _______________.
Q5) What unit is used to measure horizontal refresh rate (HRR)?
A)Hz
B)MHz
C)KHz
D)GHz
Q6) A pixel on a certain color is a(n) _______________ pixel.
Q7) A(n) _______________ is the amount of light given off by a light source from a certain angle that is perceived by the human eye.
Q8) How do you update video drivers in a Windows system?
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) What is a broadcast domain?
Q2) _______________ are a part of the frame.
A)Hosts
B)Packets
C)Datagrams
D)Protocols
Q3) _______________ is the process by which routers sort frames and send them along to the proper LAN.
Q4) To go beyond a LAN requires a(n) _______________-or a way that machines agree to communicate.
Q5) What hexadecimal value is represented by the binary value 1101?
A)B
B)C
C)D
D)E
Q6) A(n) _______________ is a device that connects dissimilar network technologies that transmit the same signal.
Q7) All rack-mounted equipment uses a height measurement known as a U, which is _______________ inches.
Q8) What is a LAN?
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) The ipconfig command shows an IP address of 169.254.0.27.This is indicative of the failure of what network element or service?
Q2) What is a tone generator?
Q3) A Workgroup shares folders over the network.What does a Homegroup share?
A)Passwords
B)Users
C)Libraries
D)Files
Q4) _______________ permission only apply to network sharing, whereas _______________ permissions affect both network and local access to shared resources.
Q5) List four useful Windows TCP/IP testing tools.
Q6) The vast majority of network disconnection problems occur at the _______________.
Q7) Under the class system, a Class B network supported up to _______________ host IDs.
Q8) Windows displays a(n) _______________ over the network icon in the notification area to indicate that you're not connected.
Q9) Describe the features of a network domain.
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) What is the speed at which the 802.11g wireless technology transfers data?
A)11 Mbps
B)20 Mbps
C)54 Mbps
D)64 Mbps
Q2) Where is the location for an omni-directional antenna in your home or office?
A)On the roof
B)Adjacent to the outside wall
C)Near the center
D)In a basement
Q3) What is the first step in choosing an optimal location for an access point?
A)Software upgrades
B)Market research
C)Site survey
D)Interference control
Q4) Changing the default ______________ for a WAP is the first step in setting up a new wireless network.
Q5) What is an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)?
Q6) Because nodes on a wireless network can't easily detect collisions, which protocol is an option to transfer data over a network?
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Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) The process of sending telephone transmission across fully digital lines end-to-end is called ______________ service.
Q2) What is the Common Internet File System (CIFS)?
Q3) Like Microsoft and SMB, Apple developed the ______________ in the late 1980s to support file sharing between Macintosh computers on early LANs.
Q4) Every Tier 1 and Tier 2 provider leases connections to the Internet to companies called ______________.
A)Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
B)Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
C)Internet service providers (ISPs)
D)World Wide Web (WWW)
Q5) One popular ______________ service is AT&T's U-verse, which generally offers download speeds from 1 to 75 Mbps and upload speeds from 384 Kbps to 8 Mbps.
Q6) What are Web servers?
Q7) What two pieces does a dial-up connection to the Internet require to work?
Q8) What is the Internet?
Q9) What is QoS?
Q10) What is the bandwidth of channels in an ISDN service?
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) Tablet PCs provide a screen that doubles as an input device.With a special pen, called a(n) _______________, you can actually write on the screen.
Q2) What size audio port do laptops have?
A)2.5-mm
B)3-mm
C)3.5-mm
D)2-mm
Q3) What do laptops often come with to indicate that the webcam is on?
A)Light
B)Microphone
C)Trackpad
D)Voice activation
Q4) When there is no power management, the system is said to be running at a(n) _______________ level, as defined by APM.
Q5) Which laptop-pointing device is most commonly used today?
A)Trackball
B)TouchStick
C)Touchpad
D)TrackPoint
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) List three features of wearable devices that distinguish them from other mobile devices.
Q2) IMEI numbers are unique to devices using the _______________ family of technologies, including its present-day descendants: 4G LTE and LTE-Advanced.
Q3) iOS apps are almost exclusively purchased, installed, and updated through Apple's _______________ Store.
Q4) What is the typical range for NFC communications?
Q5) How do iOS devices synchronize with local machines or with cloud-based servers over the Internet?
Q6) An SSL-based VPN uses the standard SSL port, _______________.
A)TCP 441
B)TCP 442
C)TCP 443
D)TCP 444
Q7) By default, mobile devices that use cellular networks for Internet connectivity use _______________, meaning they will jump from cell tower to cell tower and from your provider to another provider without obvious notice.
Q8) What is a mobile hotspot?
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) Even if _______________ are on, you may be able to find a happy medium by setting per-app restrictions for apps that use mapping, geocaching, and/or tagging.
Q2) A(n) _______________ is a string of bits used by a computer program to encrypt or decrypt data.
Q3) Having a user logon at a certain time of day, or even within so many seconds or minutes of another event, is known as a(n) _______________ factor.
A)knowledge
B)ownership
C)temporal
D)possession
Q4) What are some common reasons for a weak signal?
Q5) What are some types of locks you can put on your phone?
Q6) Why might you run into connectivity problems at large public gatherings?
A)Hyper-cell service
B)Location scrambling
C)An overloaded network
D)A cellular usage limit
Q7) What are some things that can cause a device to run hotter than normal?
Q8) What might happen when you close an application on a mobile device?
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is print resolution?
Q2) What kind of printers tend to have problems with ink drying out inside the nozzles when the printer is not used for a period?
A)Color
B)Laser
C)Inkjet
D)Dot-matrix
Q3) The dye-sublimation printing technique is an example of what method of color printing?
A)PPM
B)RGB
C)CMYK
D)LEDS
Q4) The term ______________ means to cause something to change from a solid form into a vapor and then back into a solid.
Q5) What is the usual final step to make sure a newly installed or changed printer works?
Q6) In Windows, a default printer is identified by a(n) ______________.
Q7) How do inkjet printers move ink using the heat method?
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
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Sample Questions
Q1) When configured to do so, Windows will create an entry in the Security Log when someone tries to access a certain file or folder-this is called _______________ auditing.
Q2) What is spoofing?
Q3) When you open or install new software, you must agree to abide by the use and sharing guidelines stipulated by the software copyright holder.This agreement is called the _______________ Agreement.
Q4) What is a Trojan horse?
Q5) What is a rootkit?
Q6) Describe a security token and an RSA token.
Q7) What can be used to set security policies for users or computers in a network?
Q8) A(n) _______________ is a device or software (or combination of both) used to protect an internal network from unauthorized access from the Internet.
Q9) What activity involves simply observing someone's screen or keyboard to get information, often passwords?
A)Shoulder surfing
B)Tailgating
C)Dumpster diving
D)Phishing
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