Patient Management in Dentistry
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Patient Management in Dentistry explores the principles and practices necessary for effectively handling diverse patient populations within dental settings. The course emphasizes communication skills, patient assessment, behavior management techniques, and strategies for developing trust and rapport. Topics include managing dental anxiety, cultural competence, ethical and legal considerations, and adapting care for patients with special needs. Students learn to integrate clinical knowledge with interpersonal skills to create positive patient experiences and optimize oral health outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Dental Hygiene Theory and Practice 4th Edition by Michele Leonardi
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64 Chapters
1581 Verified Questions
1581 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1166 Page 2
Chapter 1: The Dental Hygiene Profession
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23019
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a key behavior within the dental hygiene process of care?
A) Observation
B) Diagnosis
C) Communication skills
D) Client care
Answer: B
Q2) According to the Occupational Model, the dental hygienist:
A) uses a process of care to assess needs, diagnose dental hygiene problems, and plan, Implement, evaluate, and document dental hygiene care.
B) works together with the dentist, each offering professional expertise for the goal of Providing optimum oral healthcare to the public.
C) is a dental auxiliary who implements treatment plans and carries out isolated duties as
Directed by the supervising dentist.
D) explains dental hygiene from different perspectives.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Human Needs Theory and Dental Hygiene Care
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pockets greater than 4 mm, attachment loss greater than 4 mm, and bleeding on probing are all signs of a deficit in which human need?
A) Wholesome facial image
B) Protection from health risks
C) Biologically sound and functional dentition
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of head and neck
E) Chronic cutaneous lupus erythematosus
Answer: D
Q2) A deficit in the need for a wholesome facial image is a dissatisfaction with the appearance of one's teeth. This need is in deficit only if the client reports dissatisfaction.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Decision Making
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary research includes all of the following except:
A) experimental studies.
B) observational studies.
C) systematic reviews.
D) case control studies.
E) cohort studies.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the key critical analysis questions should be answered first so that your time is used most efficiently?
A) What are the results?
B) Are the results of the study valid?
C) Will the results help in caring for my client?
D) Why was the study conducted?
E) Was statistical significance found in analyzing the data?
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Health and Health Promotion
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) George Prince is asked to be a spokesperson for the event because he is a well-known former National Football League player. Karen's choice to ask him is based on which concept?
A) Directive announcements
B) Official enforcement
C) Social marketing
D) Popular vote
E) Personal entitlement
Q2) Which of the following marketing concepts is the sale of bubble gum in containers that look like chewing tobacco containers?
A) Product
B) Price
C) Purpose
D) Place
E) Promotion
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Changing Behaviors
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15 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Andragogy is the art and science of helping the _________________________ learn.
Q2) The two types of asking questions are __________ and ___________.
Q3) Nonverbal communication is the use of________________________ rather than words to transmit a message.
Q4) Oral health and education may not be highly valued when food, shelter, and clothing are not readily available.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Interpersonal communication is never _________________ but rather is a ________________, ongoing process.
Q6) The __________ Model of behavioral change is effective for use with young school-age children
Q7) The CARE principle identifies _____, _____, _____, and _____ as important aspects of effective dental hygienist-client helping relationships. (Show your answer in alphabetical order.)
Q8) The Zones of touch are _________________ and _______________________.
Q9) Communication generally stops with one encoded and decoded message. A)True B)False Page 7
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Page 8
Chapter 6: Cultural Competence
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Statement 1: Complex societies are homogenous. Statement 2: Immigrants of the first generation share the same culture as the second or third generation of immigrants.
A) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
B) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D) Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.
Q2) Nonverbal communication is important in a culturally sensitive environment. The clinician should be sensitive to:
A) gestures.
B) eye contact.
C) personal space.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Cultural competence starts with:
A) awareness of the client's background and cultural beliefs and values.
B) understanding the client's perspective and social context.
C) applying a variety of communication skills to appeal to the client's identity.
D) awareness of one's own cultural beliefs and practices.
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Chapter 7: Professional Portfolios
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Sample Questions
Q1) The student is creating an artifact for the e-portfolio and would like to use some radiographs and intraoral images of a client. The student asks the client for and receives permission to use the images in his project. While grading the project an instructor notices the student forgot to remove the client's name from the radiographs. Which core ethical principal did the student violate?
A) Justice
B) Beneficence
C) Confidentiality
D) Autonomy
Q2) A résumé is a summary of your experiences and skills relevant to the field of work you are entering. A curriculum vitae (CV) is a written description of your work experience, educational background and skills that is more detailed than a résumé.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 8: The Dental Hygiene Care Environment
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of radiography is used to produce a film or digital image of the maxillary and mandibular jaws.
A) intraoral
B) bitewing
C) panoramic
D) none of the above
Q2) Water used for dental treatment should meet the nationally recognized standards set by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for drinking water, which is ____ CFU/mL.
A) <10,000
B) <500
C) <600
D) <200
Q3) The dental laboratory is a well-ventilated are a. It is where dental work directly performed on the client takes place.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 11
Chapter 9: Infection Control
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should be part of infection prevention and control personnel health program?
A) An infection control education and training schedule
B) A predetermined number of personal days determined by job title and length of employment
C) A standard color and style for worker uniforms
D) An injury management protocol that allows an injured worker to seek care from the physician of his or her choice
E) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not true of gloves?
A) Certain hand lotions can affect the integrity of gloves.
B) Wearing gloves replaces the need for hand washing.
C) Sterile surgical gloves are recommended for oral surgical procedures.
D) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has identified glove failure rates for manufacturers.
E) Certain glove materials can interfere with the setting of impression materials.
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Chapter 10: Medical Emergencies
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medical consultation is performed by a dental professional after the client's medical and dental history is completed because legal liability is then the responsibility of the physician.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) The most important part of BLS is providing chest compressions and defibrillation. The first cycle of compressions (30 per 18 seconds) is delivered without the delay.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 11: Ergonomics
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a common symptom of thoracic outlet compression?
A) Numbness and tingling in the fingertips
B) Neck and shoulder muscle spasms
C) Warm extremities
D) Prominent or enhanced radial pulse
Q2) Which nerve is affected when Guyon's canal syndrome is evident?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Radial nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Nerves from the brachial plexus
Q3) The fulcrum finger must remain locked during instrument activation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What causes the shoulder injury trapezius myalgia?
Q5) What is the foremost risk factor for carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)?
A) Holding instruments too tightly
B) Repetition
C) Use of vibrating instruments
D) Cold room temperatures
Q6) Name the two symptoms of de Quervain's syndrome.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: The Health History
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions requires antibiotic prophylaxis before oral procedures?
A) Heart murmur
B) Mitral valve prolapse
C) Prior infective endocarditis
D) Heart transplant
Q2) The case control study completed by the Mayo Clinic concluded that:
A) antibiotic prophylaxis did not prevent infection in a prosthetic joint.
B) antibiotic prophylaxis diminishes the risk for infection in the prosthetic joint.
C) antibiotic prophylaxis is essential to prevent prosthetic joint infection.
D) dental procedures lead to prosthetic joint infection.
Q3) Evidence based protocols used in the dental office can protect the office if litigation occurs following a decision made for clinical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Direct observation is a component of the medical history assessment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Vital Signs
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When taking blood pressure, the systolic blood pressure measures which of the following?
A) The minimum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels
B) The maximum amount of pressure occurring in the blood vessels
Q2) Respiration is the process of:
A) speaking.
B) breathing.
C) the heart beating.
D) walking.
Q3) Which of the following is the normal respiration rate for adults?
A) 6 to 8 breaths/min
B) 12 to 20 breaths/min
C) 15 to 22 breaths/min
D) 20 to 30 breaths/min
Q4) The four vital signs used to detect a client's cardiovascular and systemic health are:
A) height, weight, age, and race.
B) respiration, temperature, pulse, and blood pressure.
C) speed, temperature, gait, and electrocardiogram.
D) cholesterol, blood pressure, vision, and blood sugar.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic History
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an adverse drug event that results in permanent tissue damage?
A) Side effect
B) Hypersensitivity reaction
C) Toxicity reaction
D) Therapeutic effect
Q2) Which of the following classes of medications can be used to stimulate salivary flow in clients with functional gland tissue?
A) Cholinergic agonists
B) Anticholinergics
C) Sympathomimetics
D) Adrenergic blockers
Q3) Which of the following substances are glycoproteins that provide lubrication to protect the oral mucous membranes from injury, ulceration, and toxins?
A) Mucins
B) Urea
C) Immunoglobulin A
D) Lactoferrin
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17
Chapter 15: Extraoral and Intraoral Clinical Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital palpation is used to:
A) to palpate the floor of the mouth and the lingual border of the mandible
B) to palpate the lymph nodes or thyroid gland
C) to palpate suspected lesion for more information
D) to palpate the lips, labial and buccal mucosa, and tongue
Q2) The earliest form of oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is termed:
A) invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
B) dysplastic tissue.
C) carcinoma in situ.
D) basal cell carcinoma.
Q3) The staging of oral cancer for the most effective evidence-based treatment is based on the:
A) TNM (tumor, node, and metastasis) system.
B) keratinization level of the overlying tissue, whether orthokeratinized or parakeratinized.
C) nearness to the sternocleidomastoid (SCM) muscle of the neck.
D) chronicity and induration of the original presenting lesion.
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Chapter 16: Dentition Assessment
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of rampant caries?
A) Sudden, rapid destruction of many teeth
B) Slow progressive decay process
C) Progress of decay process has halted
D) New decay around or under a restoration
Q2) All of the following are symptoms of pulpal damage except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Pain when biting down
B) Sensitivity with hot or cold beverages
C) Pain when chewing
D) Sensitivity to sweet or citrus foods
Q3) Abrasion is the wearing of tooth by what mechanism?
A) By dissolution of organic matrix
B) By tooth to tooth contact
C) By forces other than mastication
D) By wearing of tooth by a chemical process
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Chapter 17: Oral Hygiene Assessment: Soft and Hard Deposits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oral biofilm in a healthy mouth is located mainly supragingivally but grows subgingivally in plaque-induced gingival disease. In the presence of mature bacterial plaque, the host immune response is activated.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Plaque biofilm is a complex community of self-sustaining microorganisms. Which of the following are characteristic of oral biofilm? Select all that apply.
A) Resistant to essential oils
B) Bacteria in biofilm relocate to state a new community
C) Transparent, mineralized mass of bacterial colonies
D) Composed of loosely attached and unattached, free-flowing bacteria
Q3) Which of the following bacteria is not associated with a healthy periodontium?
A) Streptococcus oralis
B) Actinomyces sp.
C) Treponema
D) Streptococcus mitis
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Chapter 18: Dental Caries Management by Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) For high-risk and extremely high-risk individuals, chlorhexidine is recommended because it can be more effective than fluoride when there is high bacterial challenge.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) What is a white spot lesion?
A) A demineralized area due to loss of minerals in the subsurface
B) A demineralized area in the surface of the enamel
C) A remineralized area that has been treated with fluoride
D) An area to watch for development of a carious lesion
Q3) Two or more applications of fluoride varnish per year are effective in preventing caries in high-risk populations. Applying fluoride varnish every 6 months is effective in preventing caries in children and adolescents.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 21
Chapter 19: Periodontal and Risk Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes a gingival infection characterized by sudden onset, pain, necrosis at the tip of the interdental papillae, bleeding, and a pseudomembrane covering?
A) Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B) Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C) Linear gingival erythematous
D) Hematologic gingival disease
Q2) All of the following conditions can be observed on radiographs except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Status of the lamina dura
B) Tooth crown to root ratio
C) Height of the facial boney plate
D) Changes in the PDL space
Q3) Which of the following medications has a beneficial effect on the periodontium?
A) Phenytoin
B) Nifedipine
C) Cyclosporine
D) Tetracycline
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Chapter 20: Potential Impact of Periodontal Infections on
Overall General Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inflammatory thickening of the blood vessel wall triggered by injured endothelial cells is called a(n):
A) lipoma.
B) fibroma.
C) adenoma.
D) atheroma.
E) carcinoma.
Q2) The "blood-brain barrier" refers to:
A) bacteria in the bloodstream leading to the brain.
B) the link between periodontitis and systemic conditions.
C) bacteria in periodontal pockets that enter the brain.
D) junctions between the choroids plexus and capillary endothelial cells in the brain.
Q3) In Alzheimer's disease (AD):
A) there is a progressive atrophy of the cerebral cortex.
B) antigens from oral spirochetes have been detected in brain tissues at a higher rate than in non-AD controls.
C) a cause-and-effect relationship has not been shown between oral spirochetes and AD.
D) All of the above are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Dental Hygiene Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dental hygiene diagnosis is made after which process of care phase?
A) Assessment
B) Planning
C) Implementation
D) Evaluation
Q2) The dental hygiene diagnosis can be based on just one sign or symptom. This is to simplify the dental hygiene diagnostic process.
A) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q3) After assessment, the dental hygienist notes that a client who is a quadriplegic has a generalized 4 to 5 mm clinical attachment loss, generalized moderate bleeding on probing, and heavy plaque accumulation. What human needs deficit does this client most likely have?
A) Biologically sound and functional dentition
B) Freedom from fear and stress
C) Freedom from pain
D) Skin and mucous membrane integrity of the head and neck
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Page 24
Chapter 22: Dental Hygiene Care Plan, Evaluation, and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based upon the outcome of the goal being met, the dental hygienist will do all of the following except:
A) terminate the care plan.
B) determine a prognosis of the client's continued level of optimum oral health achieved.
C) recommend a continued cycle of care to support the client's long-term success.
D) modify the care plan.
Q2) A well-defined client-centered goal will reflect the evidence of the diagnosed unmet human need. Which component of the dental hygiene diagnosis are the client-centered goals defined?
A) Statement of the problem
B) Statement of cause/etiology
C) Statement of signs and symptoms
D) Statement of chief complaint
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25
Chapter 23: Toothbrushing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which ethical principle is represented by a dental hygienist's allocation of time for instruction, repetition, reinforcement, and continual assessment of each client's oral health practices?
A) Beneficence
B) Nonmaleficence
C) Society trust
D) Veracity
E) Autonomy
Q2) Toothbrushes can be a mode of indirect transmission for pathogenic organisms. Solid rather than hollow designs and toothbrush caps reduce toothbrush contamination.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 24: Mechanical Oral Biofilm Control: Interdental and Supplemental Self-Care Devices
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefit of daily interdental cleaning such as flossing is the reduction or prevention of inflammation caused by the immune response to the toxins produced by interdental plaque biofilm. Evidence from a comprehensive systematic review indicated that flossing in addition to toothbrushing reduces gingivitis in comparison with toothbrushing alone.
A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Q2) Which of the following interproximal devices may be used from both the facial and lingual aspects of the teeth?
A) Toothpicks
B) Toothpick holder
C) Triangular toothpick
D) Rubber tip stimulator
Q3) Which of the following devices is contraindicated for type I embrasures?
A) Power flosser
B) Floss holder
C) Floss threader
D) Tufted dental floss
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Dentifrices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient suffering from allergies may react to the ingredients in toothpaste. Some ingredients in toothpastes can trigger an allergic reaction.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Cinnamon may cause:
A) aphthous ulcers.
B) a metallic taste in the mouth.
C) a contact stomatitis.
D) xerostomia.
Q3) A new detergent is more and more present in which dentifrice?
A) Agar-agar
B) Sodium citrate
C) Cocamidopropyl betaine
D) Triclosan with copolymer
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Chapter 26: Hand-Activated Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The advantage(s) of a standing position while scaling the mandibular arch are which of the following?
A) Leverage for applying pressure in calculus removal
B) Enhanced access to reaching to deep periodontally involved areas
C) Diminished static sitting positions
D) All of the above
Q2) Which set of treatment instruments are not used for supragingival and subgingival calculus removal where tissue is retractable?
A) Hoe
B) File
C) Sickle
D) Universal
Q3) Which treatment instrument will roughen and crush the calculus along these apical regions for easier access?
A) Hirschfeld files
B) Area-specific curet
C) Diamond files
D) Chisel scaler
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Chapter 27: Ultrasonic Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following ways could an ultrasonic working end cause an undesirable surface alteration?
A) Power setting is too low.
B) Water spray is too great.
C) Point is adapted to the tooth.
D) Light pressure is used on the tooth.
E) The tooth to working end angulation is less than 15 degrees.
Q2) Working end wear of inserts and tips results in which of the following?
A) Frequency adjustment problems
B) Lack of efficiency
C) Limited cavitation
D) Need for decreased power settings
E) Inadequate water flow for cooling
Q3) Which of the following descriptions provides a visual cue to the clinician to correct the tuning of a standard ultrasonic insert?
A) A narrow steady stream of water
B) Very fine droplets of water covering a large area
C) Large drops of water covering a large area
D) Fine droplets of water and a narrow stream of water covering a large area
E) A steady stream of water
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Chapter 28: Root Morphology and Instrumentation
Implications
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proximal surfaces of roots that are narrower on the lingual than the facial surface are more readily approached from the lingual because there is more proximal space there for the adaptation of instruments.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q2) If a tooth with one root lost one-third of its attachment length, its loss of attachment surface would be greater than one-third because the root is larger in the cervical one-third of the tooth.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 29: Stain Management and Tooth Whitening
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Sample Questions
Q1) Five key variables affect tooth structure loss during extrinsic tooth stain removal with a rubber cup: abrasiveness of the prophylaxis paste, quantity of abrasive agent, contact time of the rubber cup on the tooth surface, speed of the rubber cup, and pressure or force applied to the rubber cup. To preserve tooth structure and prevent damage to teeth and restorative materials, the practitioner starts with the least abrasive agent and amount of agent, with the least amount of rubber cup contact time, and with the least amount of pressure to remove the extrinsic stain.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) The reason for using intermittent pressure when polishing is to do which of the following?
A) Allow proper adaptation of the rubber cup.
B) Increase extrinsic stain removal potential.
C) Enhance polishability of the paste.
D) Reduce frictional heat.
E) Reduce operator fatigue.
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Chapter 30: Decision Making Related to Nonsurgical
Periodontal
Therapy
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23048
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the first clinical feature of inflammatory periodontal disease?
A) Tooth mobility
B) Drifting of the anterior teeth
C) Periodontal pocket formation
D) Bleeding on probing
E) Edema
Q2) Challenges facing the dental hygienist in mechanical therapy adjacent to furcation involvement include all of the following except:
A) furcal anatomy.
B) difficulty in accessing area.
C) persistence of pathogenic microflora in the area.
D) location of the gingival margin in relation to the fulcra.
E) no instruments that adapt to the furca.
Q3) How long should PM continue for a client?
A) One year after initial therapy
B) Five years after active therapy
C) Until periodontal attachment loss is halted
D) Until 1 to 2 mm of clinical attachment level is gained
Page 33
E) For the life of the dentition or its implant replacements
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Chapter 31: Chemotherapy for the Control of Periodontitis
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23049
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the term used to describe the needlelike tip used for professional irrigation?
A) Jet tip
B) Cannula
C) Irrigant
D) Microsphere
Q2) The two dimensions of oral chemotherapeutics are the active ingredient and the delivery system. The delivery system can be either locally or systemically applied.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the ability of an active therapeutic agent to be retained in the oral cavity and to continue to be released over an extended period of time without losing its potency?
A) Antimicrobial
B) Bactericidal
C) Substantivity
D) Bacteriostatic
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Chapter 32: Acute Gingival and Periodontal Conditions,
Lesions of Endodontic Origin, and Avulsed Teeth
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23050
Sample Questions
Q1) What are significant signs for endodontic lesions?
A) Inflammatory processes in the periodontium
B) Ulceration and necrosis of the interdental papillae
C) Occur in the palate
D) Occurs in chronic periodontitis
Q2) What are the signs and symptoms of gingival abscess?
A) Reddened tissue (marginal gingival), as well as swelling and pain
B) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
C) Occurrence in chronic periodontitis sites
D) Tooth mobility
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of primary herpetic gingivostomatitis?
A) The ulcers have red, elevated, "halolike" margin with depressed yellow or gray central area
B) Presence of a large proportion of gram-positive organisms
C) The most commonly affected teeth are incisors
D) Inflammatory exudates seeping into the oral cavity
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35
Chapter 33: Fluorides, Chlorhexidine, Amorphous Calcium
Phosphate, and Xylitol
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23051
Sample Questions
Q1) Randomized controlled clinical trials are the gold standard to test therapeutic interventions. The American Dental Association periodically releases recommendations gleaned only from evidence-based research.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Pathologic risk factors are factors that improve the chance that a person will not develop caries. Protective risk factors are factors that contribute to the chance that a person will develop caries.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 34: Pit and Fissure Sealants
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moisture control and isolation of the teeth selected for sealant placement can include:
A) rubber dam and saliva ejector.
B) cotton rolls.
C) Dri-Angles.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which preventive aid(s) is (are) not thoroughly effective in cleaning the pit and fissures of a tooth?
A) Toothbrushing
B) Fluoride
C) Flossing
D) All of the above
Q3) Which population should have sealants placed on their teeth?
A) Children with newly erupted molars
B) Adolescents with deep pit and fissures on their posterior teeth
C) Adults with noncavitated lesions
D) All of the above
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Chapter 35: Nutritional Counseling
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23053
Sample Questions
Q1) During pregnancy, a woman's caloric needs increase by approximately how many calories per day?
A) 0
B) 150
C) 350
D) 550
Q2) What is the recommended daily allowance (RDA) of calcium in a healthy young adult diet?
A) 500 mg
B) 800 mg
C) 1000 mg
D) 1300 mg
Q3) For a client experiencing xerostomia, all of the following are recommended except:
A) use of sugar-free gums and candies.
B) chewing gum with xylitol.
C) frequent sips of flavored water.
D) moderate intake of diet sodas.
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Page 38
Chapter 36: Tobacco Cessation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23054
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are true when it comes to arranging follow-up with a tobacco user except:
A) the hygienist checks in on where the clients are at in their thinking about quitting.
B) the RDH checks in on the progress in coping with the quitting process.
C) the RDH asks how many times the tobacco user has quit before.
D) for those clients with an unsuccessful quit attempt, modifications are made.
E) new goals may be set or a new quit date.
Q2) All of the following identify symptoms of nicotine withdrawal except:
A) cravings.
B) anxiety.
C) insomnia.
D) stomach problems.
E) concern about confidentiality.
F) hunger or weight gain.
G) All of the above identify symptoms.
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Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best factor in controlling the setting time of alginate impression materials is the:
A) temperature of the water.
B) water-powder ratio.
C) length of spatulation.
D) All of the above are factors.
Q2) A nightguard was recommended to mediate her:
A) parafunctional occlusal forces.
B) orthodontic relapse.
C) moderate BOP.
D) recession.
Q3) Orthodontic aligners were recommended to remedy her:
A) parafunctional occlusal forces.
B) orthodontic relapse.
C) moderate BOP.
D) recession.
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Chapter 38: Restorative Therapy
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30 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23056
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of composite restoration placement?
A) Composite restoration placement is very technique sensitive.
B) Composite restorations can be placed in the presence of saliva.
C) Composite restorations are best placed with metal instruments.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) The process of abrading the surface of an amalgam to reduce the size of the scratches until the surface appears shiny is called:
A) polishing.
B) finishing.
C) cutting.
D) abrading.
Q3) Which of the following is (are) part(s) of the rubber dam retainer?
A) Bow
B) Prongs
C) Forceps holes
D) All of the above
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Chapter 39: Dental Hypersensitivity Management
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15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23057
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following factors from the client's assessment data might be the cause of gingival recession except which one?
A) Presence of carious lesions
B) Use of a hard toothbrush
C) Presence of abfraction
D) Presence of occlusal trauma
Q2) What term refers to the reduction of the dentinal tubule lumen as a result of the deposition of intratubular dentin?
A) Abfraction
B) Abrasion
C) Dentinal sclerosis
D) Attrition
Q3) All of the following interventions could be provided in the dental setting to treat this client's areas of dentinal hypersensitivity except which one?
A) Use of a 5% sodium fluoride varnish
B) Placement of Class V restorations
C) Use of a desensitizing agent such as potassium nitrate
D) In-office oral irrigation with 0.12% chlorhexidine
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Chapter 40: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two newer developments in anesthetic solutions are buffering agents that decrease the burning or stinging sensation of an acidic solution and a vasodilator to shorten the time of soft tissue anesthesia; however, both types of anesthetic solutions require the mixing of these additives to the cartridge right before use.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Contraindications to local anesthetics and vasoconstrictors are divided into two categories: absolute and relative. Absolute contraindications require that the drug in question not be administered to the individual under any circumstances and a relative contraindication means that the drug in question may be administered to the client after careful weighing of the risk of using the drug against its potential benefit.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Page 43
Chapter 41: Nitrous Oxideoxygen Analgesia
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proportion of oxygen the client in question 11 is receiving is which of the following?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 50%
E) 60%
Q2) Objective signs of a desirable level of sedation are:
1) normal eye reaction and pupil size.
2) normal blood pressure and pulse.
3) no loss of gag reflex.
4) ability to answer questions.
5) relaxed hands, fingers, and mandible.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) All of the above
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Chapter 42: Persons With Disabilities
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23060
Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason why most disabled people do not have access to dental care is they:
A) are unable to pay for their dental work.
B) do not care about their dental health.
C) are unable to travel to a dental office.
D) are unable to find a dentist who will treat them.
Q2) All of the following should be taken into consideration when treating a patient who is totally blind except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Greet the client by grasping their hand.
B) Allow the client to smell and feel materials that are to be used.
C) Instruct the client to leave the guide dog in the waiting area.
D) Explain to the client the location of the dental operatory.
Q3) What level of functional limitation would a client who uses adaptive equipment, such as an augmentative and alternative communication device, be classified?
A) Level I
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV
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45
Chapter 43: Cardiovascular Disease
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23061
Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs. Jones is a new client in the practice. Upon completing the medical history assessment, it is apparent that she was treated for a myocardial infarction 3 months ago. What is the appropriate decision concerning dental hygiene care?
A) The client should be asked to use her nitroglycerin tablets sublingually if angina pain is experienced.
B) The client should receive prophylactic antibiotic premedication before invasive dental hygiene therapy.
C) The client should be checked for her prothrombin time to be sure that it is in the range of normal.
D) Dental hygiene care should be postponed until the individual is 6 months or more postinfarction with no complications.
Q2) What is the most frequently occurring valvular heart defect that can result in cardiovascular damage?
A) Mitral valve prolapse
B) Heart murmur
C) Endocarditis
D) Rheumatic heart disease
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Chapter 44: Diabetes Mellitus
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23062
Sample Questions
Q1) Dental hygiene interventions for the person with diabetes will include:
A) reevaluation appointment.
B) monitoring of the overall health status.
C) collaboration with the physician or diabetes educator.
D) frequent periodontal maintenance intervals.
E) all of the above.
Q2) Xerostomia in people with diabetes is due to which of the following?
A) Increased fluid loss
B) Polydipsia
C) Neuropathy
D) Parotid gland swelling
Q3) When a person with diabetes displays signs of confusion, sweating, irritability, and tachycardia, the medical emergency is most likely to be:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) hyperglycemia.
C) hypoglycemia.
D) convulsions.
Q4) A person with prediabetes can prevent the onset of diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 45: Oral Care of Persons With Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23063
Sample Questions
Q1) Clients who develop demineralization following radiation therapy to the salivary glands despite compliance with daily fluoride applications should:
A) have all teeth removed to prevent bone infection and subsequent necrosis.
B) continue daily fluoride and see the dental hygienist for prophylaxis every 4 weeks.
C) begin a 2-week chlorhexidine regimen and apply daily a remineralizing gel in custom trays.
D) use a fluoride rinse in addition to fluoride gel applications.
Q2) Between 2004 and 2008, the incidence rate for oral cancer decreased in women and stabilized for men. Unfortunately, cancers of the lip, associated with the human papillomavirus (HPV), have seen an increase in recent years.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
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Chapter 46: Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23064
Sample Questions
Q1) Acute HIV syndrome may be mistaken for:
A) the common cold.
B) influenza virus infection.
C) mononucleosis.
D) syphilis.
E) all of the above.
Q2) A patient complains of painful ulcerations around one side of his mouth. You suspect oral herpesvirus infection. Which of the following is the best advice for this patient?
A) "You are contagious for 10 to 14 days, so be sure not to allow others to kiss you or drink after you."
B) "Be sure to wash your hands frequently and avoid touching your eyes."
C) "You are unlikely to experience this infection again in the future."
D) "The only way to cure this infection is to take chronic antiviral medications."
Q3) Reverse transcriptase is best characterized as converting:
A) RNA into DNA.
B) DNA into RNA.
C) RNA into tRNA.
D) the host cell into an HIV virion.
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Page 49
Chapter 47: Persons With Neurologic and Sensory Deficits
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23065
Sample Questions
Q1) Performing dental hygiene care for a client with difficulty in swallowing may require which of the following?
A) Using a mouth prop or bite
B) Seating client in an upright position
C) Securing patient in dental chair with restraint devices
D) Recommending home-use of a fluoride rinse
Q2) Individualized home dental care for a stroke client is most similar to that of the client with which other condition?
A) Arthritis
B) Diabetes
C) Epilepsy
D) Infective endocarditis
E) All of the above
Q3) When treating a client with epilepsy, it is advised not to perform which of the following?
A) Nitrous oxide and oxygen sedation
B) Scaling instrumentation
C) Placement of sealants
D) Coronal polishing
E) Fluoride tray delivery
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Chapter 48: Persons With Autoimmune Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23066
Sample Questions
Q1) Using a risk assessment tool for autoimmune disease is an appropriate way for dental hygienists to diagnose undetected autoimmune disease. Clients presenting with positive responses on this risk assessment tool should be referred for further medical evaluation.
A) Both statements are true.
B) Both statements are false.
C) The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
D) The first statement is false, and the second statement is true.
Q2) Daily fluoride therapy is often recommended for clients with autoimmune disease because, they are prone to xerostomi a.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
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Chapter 49: Renal Disease and Organ Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of pretransplant candidates are people living with _____ disease.
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) lung
Q2) Oral manifestations of anemia include all of the following except which one?
A) Pallor of the oral mucosa
B) Calcifications in veins and arteries
C) Glossitis
D) Angular stomatitis
Q3) Hemodialysis is a method of dialysis treatment in which the patient's blood is cleansed:
A) through the peritoneal lining of the stomach.
B) a few ounces at a time while pumped through a special filter.
C) using a chemical detoxifying agent.
D) using heat.
Q4) Renal dialysis is usually initiated as a maintenance treatment at stage 5 of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 50: Respiratory Diseases
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23068
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true concerning the epidemiologic data about tuberculosis (TB)?
A) TB is a relatively young disease, emerging in the United States in late 20th century.
B) Those with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) are at great risk for contracting TB.
C) Healthcare workers are rarely at risk even when caring for high-risk individuals.
D) Immigrants from high occurrence countries are not at risk for TB due to vaccinations.
Q2) Which of the following is not normally a symptom of an asthma attack?
A) Dyspnea
B) Perspiration
C) A need to lie down
D) Feeling of pressure or tightness in the chest
Q3) What is the major concern associated with treating a client with tuberculosis?
A) Disease transmission
B) Proper client positioning to avoid symptom exacerbation
C) Stress prevention
D) Use of local anesthesia with epinephrine
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Chapter 51: Cognitively and Developmentally Challenged
Persons
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____ is a mild form of autism characterized by impairment in social interactions without significant problems in language, cognitive ability, or age-appropriate developmental skills; persons are socially awkward, do not understand the use of gestures, lack empathy, avoid eye contact, and seem unengaged.
A) Autistic disorder (classic autism)
B) Childhood disintegrative disorder
C) Rett syndrome
D) Asperger's syndrome
Q2) All of the following are oral manifestations that can be observed in clients with Down syndrome except:
A) microdontia.
B) periodontal disease.
C) hypersalivation.
D) low caries risk.
Q3) Most children with ASD avoid communicating with:
A) facial expressions.
B) eye contact.
C) nonverbal communication.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 52: Alcohol and Substance Abuse Problems
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23070
Sample Questions
Q1) If a chemically dependent client is not ready to change unwanted behavior, the dental hygienist should:
A) alert the police.
B) dismiss client from the practice.
C) refer to primary care physician.
D) refer to intervention treatment facility.
E) state concerns and modify dental treatment.
Q2) Select all intraoral methamphetamine mouth signs.
A) Rampant decay
B) Xerostomia
C) Bruxism
D) Severe gingivitis
Q3) A dental hygienist who suspects the client is under the influence of cocaine or methamphetamine should:
A) refuse to treat client.
B) alert police.
C) call primary care physician for premedication.
D) delay professional oral care for 24 hours after last reported substance use.
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Chapter 53: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following physical findings are commonly found in individuals with bulimia except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Lanugo
B) Calluses on the knuckles
C) Commissure lesions
D) Palatal trauma
E) Parotid enlargement
Q2) After discussion with a client with an eating disorder, which of the following actions should be taken initially by the dental hygienist for legal purposes?
A) Consider referral of the client to an eating disorder clinic.
B) Direct the client to begin restorative dental care.
C) Document appointment discussion and decisions in the client's chart.
D) Share the findings with dental personnel in the dental hygiene practice setting.
E) Obtain informed consent form from the client to contact other healthcare providers.
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Chapter 54: Womens Health and the Health of Their
Children
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/23072
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common site for ARONJ, exposed necrotic bone, in patients who have taken antiresorptive therapy, appears most in the:
A) maxillary posterior buccal region close to the parotid gland.
B) maxillary anterior lingual region close to the incisive papilla.
C) mandibular posterior lingual region close to the mylohyoid ridge.
D) mandibular anterior lingual region close to the genial tubercles.
Q2) Burning mouth syndrome (BMS) includes:
A) (1) pain in the mouth that is present daily and persists for most of the day; (2) oral mucosa appears erythematic and fibrous; and (3) local and systemic diseases have been excluded.
B) (1) pain in the mouth that is present daily and persists for most of the day; (2) oral mucosa is of normal appearance; and (3) local and systemic diseases have been excluded.
C) (1) pain in the mouth that is present daily and persists for most of the day; (2) oral mucosa is of normal appearance; and (3) local and systemic diseases are involved as well.
D) (1) pain in the mouth is intermittent and often depends on ingestion of irritating foods; (2) oral mucosa is of normal appearance; and (3) local and systemic diseases have been excluded.
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Chapter 55: The Older Adult
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Sample Questions
Q1) During a cranial nerve evaluation with an older patient, the clinician notices that the patient has difficulty with motor movements during facial expression. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely affected?
A) CN 5
B) CN 7
C) CN 9
D) CN 12
Q2) Which of the following decreases when xerostomia is present in an older patient?
A) Risk for gingivitis
B) Abilities to chew and swallow food
C) Oral microbial levels
D) Risk for oral fungal infections
Q3) Many older clients may benefit from daily use of a nonalcoholic mouth rinse to:
A) reduce periodontal disease.
B) reduce oral malodor.
C) assist in the removal of plaque biofilm.
D) increase salivary flow.
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Chapter 56: Persons With Fixed and Removable Dental
Prostheses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fixed partial dental prosthesis:
A) replaces all the teeth in one arch.
B) can be removed by the client.
C) is commonly called a bridge.
D) has clasps that help to secure it to remaining teeth.
Q2) Older adults may consume fewer protein-rich or high-fiber foods because of:
A) dislike of their texture.
B) chewing difficulties.
C) lack of appetite.
D) desire to not gain weight.
Q3) The most effective and safe way to maintain denture hygiene for a physically capable person is:
A) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and mild liquid soap and water.
B) mechanically with a soft bristled brush and toothpaste.
C) overnight soaking in a weak sodium hypochlorite solution.
D) immersion in a chemical cleanser.
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Chapter 57: Orofacial Clefts and Fractured Jaw
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a symptom of a dislocated jaw?
A) Protrusion of the jaw
B) Malocclusion
C) Inability to close mouth
D) Hemorrhage from oral cavity
Q2) An individual suffers a blow to the head, specifically the mandible, during an altercation with another person, and is rendered unconscious. What should be the initial response?
A) Call 911 for emergency personnel.
B) Secure the airway, breathing, and circulation.
C) Transport the individual to a healthcare facility.
D) Contact their physician or dentist.
Q3) There is a female predominance for orofacial clefts that involve:
A) cleft lip only.
B) cleft palate only.
C) cleft lip and palate.
D) none of these; there is no female predominance.
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Chapter 58: Osseointegrated Dental Implants
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are good to use for the daily cleaning and home care of a dental implant except one. Which is the one exception?
A) Plastic nylon-coated interdental brush
B) Disclosing agents
C) Metal instruments
D) Power toothbrushes
Q2) Contemporary dental implants are made from which of the following materials?
A) titanium
B) gold
C) silver
D) procelain
Q3) In stage two (the second surgical procedure in the implant process), what devices are placed over the abutments to allow the tissue to heal, for oral hygiene access to the implant abutments, and for the prosthodontist or restorative dentist to secure the prosthetic appliance in place?
A) Bone caps
B) Implant caps
C) Surgical caps
D) Healing caps
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Chapter 59: Persons With Orthodontic Appliances
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Sample Questions
Q1) What needs to be completed before initiation of orthodontic treatment for a client with multiple dental needs?
A) Dental caries and any endodontic pathology must be treated, dental hygiene periodontal debridement must be completed, and any areas of inadequate attached gingiva must be surgically corrected. Completion of periodontal surgery and prosthodontic therapy, if indicated, should be delayed until orthodontic treatment is completed.
B) Dental treatment, including the restoration of caries and endodontic therapy, dental hygiene, periodontal debridement, and surgical periodontal therapy, must be completed. Only prosthodontic therapy should wait until orthodontic treatment is completed.
C) All dental treatment, including the restoration of caries, endodontic therapy, nonsurgical and surgical periodontal therapy, and prosthodontic therapy, must be completed before orthodontic treatment.
D) All dental treatment except emergency treatment should be delayed until orthodontic therapy is completed because the relationships of the teeth will change dramatically during treatment.
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Chapter 60: Abuse and Neglect
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has the highest prevalence among victims of child maltreatment?
A) Neglect
B) Physical abuse
C) Sexual abuse
D) Emotional or psychologic abuse
E) None of the above
Q2) Signs of dental neglect may manifest as:
A) poor oral hygiene.
B) untreated dental disease.
C) failure to follow through with recommended treatment.
D) failure to seek care to ensure oral health.
E) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding perpetrators of domestic violence?
A) They are often strangers to the victim.
B) They are often intimate partners of the victim.
C) They are often driven by the power and control they hold over the victim.
D) They are likely to repeat the abuse if the victim stays in the household.
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63
Chapter 61: Palliative Oral Care
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Q1) All of the following are symptoms associated with oral candidiasis except:
A) pain.
B) hypersalivation.
C) bleeding.
D) burning mouth.
E) inability to taste food.
Q2) Products containing lemon, glycerin, or alcohol are contraindicated for clients with xerostomia, because they are acidic and will dry out the tissue further.
A) Both the statement and the reason are correct, and they are related.
B) Both the statement and the reason are correct, but they are not related.
C) The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D) The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct.
E) Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
Q3) A mouth free of discomfort and bad odors helps with all of the following except: A) ensuring self-esteem.
B) aiding in social communication.
C) maintaining nutritional status.
D) preventing further decline in overall health.
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Chapter 62: Practice Management
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Q1) Client nonadherence leads to:
1) compromised care for oral providers.
2) unsatisfactory care outcomes.
3) possible litigation.
4) satisfied clients.
5) increased fees for services.
A) 1
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 4, 5
E) All of the above
Q2) The most effective marketing strategy for practice promotion is:
A) sales flyers.
B) free seminars.
C) client referral.
D) print advertising.
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Chapter 63: Career Planning and Job Searching
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the minimum amount of notice that should be given to the employer in the event of resignation?
A) 1 week
B) 7 work days
C) 2 weeks
D) 2 months
E) 6 months
Q2) One option for job employment involves two or more people sharing one full-time job position. What type of employment is this termed?
A) Full-time
B) Part-time
C) Job sharing
D) Probationary
E) Temporary
Q3) Which statement is not true regarding performance evaluation?
A) May be used as an evaluation tool
B) May assist the dental hygienist in improving his or her skills
C) May determine if a raise is awarded
D) Should be performed regularly
E) Should be performed by clients
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Chapter 64: Legal and Ethical Decision Making
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Q1) A child-behavior management technique used by the dental hygienist in a pediatric dental practice includes allowing the dental assistant to hold the child-client's hands and arms firmly during care. If permission from the parent is not appropriately obtained, the dental providers could be accused of which of the following?
A) Assault
B) Battery
C) Technical assault or technical battery
D) Misrepresentation
E) Negligence
Q2) The dental hygiene care plan is presented to the client by the dental hygienist. The specific procedures to be provided are described, including the rationale for care and the risks and benefits of the procedures. The client asks some specific questions, and the questions are clearly answered by the dental hygienist. The client then agrees to the care prescribed in the care plan. Which of the following ethical principles is the practitioner upholding?
A) Beneficence
B) Autonomy
C) Justice
D) Veracity
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