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This course explores the fundamental principles and practices of patient education and preventive care within healthcare settings. Students will learn strategies for effectively communicating health information, promoting healthy behaviors, and empowering patients to take an active role in managing their health. Through an examination of educational theories, cultural considerations, and evidence-based approaches, the course emphasizes the development of tailored educational plans and preventive interventions that address diverse patient populations. The role of healthcare professionals in supporting disease prevention, risk reduction, and adherence to treatment plans is also highlighted, preparing students to enhance patient outcomes and contribute to the improvement of community health.
Recommended Textbook
Primary Preventive Dentistry 8th Edition by Norman O. Harris
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28 Chapters
276 Verified Questions
276 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of white spots on interproximal surfaces are usually first identified in radiographs because mesial and distal surfaces are NEVER visible to the naked eye.
A)Both statement and reason are true.
B)Both statement and reason are false.
C)Statement is true but reason is false.
D)Statement is false but reason is true.
Answer: C
Q2) Secondary prevention can also be termed:
A)Restorative care
B)Dental visits
C)Prophylaxis
D)Rehabilitation
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a method used to diagnose a condition?
A)Primary prevention
B)Therapeutic modality
C)Diagnostic modality
D)Tertiary prevention
Answer: C
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Q1) The ethnocentric values of individualism and freedom motivate the practice of the giving health information;directly to the patient and NOT the family or family head,and to expect patients to make their own health care decisions.This holds true with all cultures.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Answer: C
Q2) Which is the BEST way to pursue cultural competency for a lifetime?
A)Legal school
B)Continuing education
C)Understanding one's self
D)Competency education
Answer: B
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Q1) What phase of the dental hygiene process involves determining dental hygiene therapy and the establishment of realistic patient goals?
A)Implementation phase
B)Planning phase
C)Treatment phase
D)Assessment phase
Answer: B
Q2) Whose responsibility is it to educate patients about oral diseases and their prevention?
A)Dental hygienist
B)Dentist
C)Dental assistant
D)All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) What is the purpose of dental indices?
A)Diagnosing dental disease
B)Preventing dental disease
C)Quantifying dental diseases
D)Interpreting dental diseases
Answer: C
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Q1) In dental plaque metabolism,after the microorganism is exposed to sucrose,they produce:
A)Acid
B)Intracellular polysaccharides
C)Extracellular polysaccharides
D)All of the above
Q2) The primary colonizers in dental plaque biofilm tend to be cocci.They also tend to be aerobic.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) Pyrophosphates decrease the formation of which of the following?
A)Plaque
B)Calculus
C)Early carious lesions
D)Gingivitis
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Q1) When there is an immediate drop in pH after carbohydrate consumption,this is termed:
A)Stephan curve
B)Liken curve
C)Liken drop
D)Strait of Reitz
Q2) The acronym CAMBRA stands for: k.
A)Caries Management by Risk Assessment
B)Caries Management by Reducing Acid l.
C)Caries Management by Restorative Adjuncts
D)Caries Management by Restoration and Assessment
Q3) Though food types are important in producing a cariogenic (low pH)environment,frequent in-between-meal snacks and drinks can maintain a low pH environment throughout the day,which shifts the demineralization/remineralization continuum toward caries formation.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) All periodontitis is preceded by gingivitis.All gingivitis progresses to periodontitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) Gingival crevicular fluid is an exudate.It contains many cells and proteins.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) For each millimeter of apical migration of sulcular epithelial attachment,there is also one millimeter of periodontal fibers lost.This migration of junctional epithelium and clinical attachment loss is the hallmark sign for diagnosing periodontitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) Performing oral cancer screenings annually on all patients is the current standard of care in dentistry.A visual exam of all tissues is sufficient to meet this requirement.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) Only dental professionals should conduct oral cancer screenings because physicians are NOT qualified to detect oral conditions.
A)Both statement and reason are true.
B)Both statement and reason are false.
C)Statement is true but reason is false.
D)Statement is false but reason is true.
Q3) Which of the following factors affects a patient's prognosis?
A)Grading
B)Staging
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
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Q1) Avulsed primary teeth are ________ replanted because of concern that permanent teeth may be damaged.
A)Always
B)Never
C)Seldom
D)Partially
Q2) Soft tissue injuries are often associated with facial trauma.Wounds should be rinsed with saline and,if necessary,gently debrided with gauze wetted with mild soapy water to remove foreign material and dead or damaged tissue.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) Which segments of the population should be educated regarding the proper handling of an avulsed tooth?
A)Teachers
B)School nurses
C)Parents
D)All of the above
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Q1) Which is NOT a protective function of saliva?
A)Lubrication
B)Buffering demineralization
C)Flushing/rinsing
D)Remineralization of tooth structures
E)All of the above are functions of saliva
Q2) To control acid in plaque,protective ions are increased and damage is controlled through dilution and chemical buffering.Saliva acts as a strong buffer for the acidic plaque.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) Humoral immunity is carried out by T cells from the thymus.Cellular immunity is carried out by the B cells from the bone marrow.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) ________ is a term used to describe the heat treatment in which each filament end is sealed and rounded.
A)End rounding
B)Angled filaments
C)Texturing
D)Heating
Q2) Which statement is NOT true about disclosing agents,or disclosants?
A)They may be in either a liquid or a tablet form.
B)They allow the patient to see plaque in the mouth before or after brushing.
C)These agents can give patients a literal road map to remove the plaque.
D)The chewable tablet or the liquid disclosant chewed and swallowed.
Q3) The scrub toothbrushing technique uses which movements?
A)Horizontal strokes
B)Vertical strokes
C)Circular strokes
D)All of the above
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Q1) Abrasives usually do NOT damage enamel,but they may dull the tooth luster.To compensate for this,polishing agents are added to the dentifrice formulation.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q2) Humectants were added to maintain the moisture and prevent hardening.Commonly used humectants are sorbitol,mannitol,glycerol,and propylene glycol.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
Q3) Potassium nitrate is a commonly used,FDA-approved,OTC desensitization agent.It reduces the reaction of nerves in the teeth to stimuli such as heat and cold.
A)First statement is true,second statement is false.
B)First statement is false,second statement is true.
C)Both statements are true.
D)Both statements are false.
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Q1) What is defined as the formation of a V-shaped slit in the gingiva that extends apically from the gingival margin?
A)Recession
B)Clefting
C)Abfraction
D)Floss cut
Q2) What is defined as bacteria-induced inflammation or infection of the heart and its valves?
A)Bacterial endocarditis
B)Cardia allergic response
C)Bacteremia
D)Pulmonary embolism
Q3) Oral irrigation removes the biofilm on the tooth structure.Supragingival irrigation improves and prevents gingivitis.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) The endosseous dental implant includes which component?
A)Implant body
B)Abutment
C)Superstructure
D)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following is contraindicated for care of an implant?
A)Metal-core interproximal brush
B)Electric toothbrush
C)Sodium bicarbonate toothpaste
D)Antimicrobial rinse
E)Both A and C
F)Both B and D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using immersion cleansers to clean a denture?
A)Offers safe storage
B)The solution reaches all areas of the dentures
C)Easier for patients who have dexterity issues
D)Some microbial species are resistant to mechanical cleaning
E)All of the above
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Q1) What compound was the FIRST used in controlled water fluoridation programs and is still used in smaller communities?
A)Stannous fluoride
B)Neutral fluoride
C)Sodium silicofluroide
D)Sodium fluoride
Q2) How do water fluoridation systems prevent excess water fluoridation?
A)A limited amount of fluoride is maintained in day tanks.
B)Proper controls are used to feed fluoride from the hoppers to distilling tanks.
C)Metering pumps
D)All of the above
Q3) What is the MOST frequently used compound for water fluoridation in the United States today?
A)Hydrofluosilicic acid
B)Sodium silicofluoride
C)Sodium fluoride
D)Stannous fluoride
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Q1) Which type of APF fluoride is more tolerated by patients?
A)Gel
B)Foam
C)Paste
D)Powder
Q2) What are the three procedures used for administering fluoride treatments?
A)Toothpaste,trays,and mouthrinse
B)Toothpaste,varnish,and painting
C)Varnish,painting,and mouthrinse
D)Varnish,painting,and trays
Q3) What is the MOST common disadvantage of stannous fluorides?
A)Taste
B)Staining
C)Cost
D)Application process
Q4) In what age group are fluoride varnishes highly recommended?
A)Elderly
B)Adults
C)Infants
D)Young children

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Q1) What is the main advantage of a color sealant?
A)Higher fluoride content
B)Visualization
C)Easier manipulation of the material
D)Less technique sensitivity
Q2) Which is NOT a barrier to the placement of sealants?
A)Legal restrictions on dental providers
B)Patient's cost
C)Shortage of dentists accepting Medicaid
D)Lack of consumer knowledge
Q3) How long should etch remain on the tooth prior to rinsing?
A)5 seconds
B)10-15 seconds
C)20-30 seconds
D)40-50 seconds
Q4) When is the BEST time to place a sealant?
A)Once all the permanent molars have erupted
B)As the permanent dentition erupts
C)When the child begins consuming sugars
D)If the child begins to develop caries

18
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Q1) If a patient presents with unresolved gingivitis or periodontitis,before therapeutic treatment is started,what should be addressed with the patient?
A)Nutrition counseling
B)Caries control
C)Payment plan
D)Routing prophylaxis
Q2) What is essential for taste and odor sensitivity?
A)Vitamin A
B)Zinc
C)Proteins
D)Vitamin D
Q3) AIDS and cancer patients can experience which of the following oral condition?
A)Oral candidiasis
B)Herpes simplex
C)Anorexia
D)All of the above
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Q1) When someone has this particular condition they experience nausea and vomiting,and sweat excessively after consuming fructose.What is the condition known as?
A)Diabetes
B)Hypoglycemia
C)Hereditary fructose intolerance
D)Food allergies
Q2) Which polyol has received the greatest amount of attention by the dental community?
A)Sorbitol
B)Mannitol
C)Erythritol
D)Xylitol
Q3) Which type of sugar is commonly added to processed foods and drinks?
A)Molasses
B)High-fructose corn syrup
C)Aspartame
D)Cyclamate
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Q1) What occurs when individuals think their personal actions determine health status?
A)External locus of control
B)Multidimensional locus of control
C)Internal locus of control
D)Locus of control
Q2) What focuses on the patients' readiness to learn and change,and helps engage patients to motivate them to progress along the stages of the model?
A)Motivation
B)Motivational interviewing
C)Personal opinion
D)Values
Q3) Which is NOT a source of motivation?
A)Religious beliefs
B)External expectations
C)Social relationships
D)Social welfare
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Q1) What does smokeless tobacco diffuse through?
A)Saliva
B)Mucous membrane
C)Tongue
D)Salivary glands
Q2) Patients who smoke are more likely to present with what periodontal condition?
A)Healthy tissue
B)Gingivitis
C)Early periodontal disease
D)Moderate to advanced periodontal disease
Q3) Second-hand smoke exposes the non-smoker to more chemicals than the smoker.How much worse are these chemicals?
A)25 fold
B)50 fold
C)100 fold
D)125 fold
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Q1) Which professional sports league does NOT require the use of mouthguards?
A)NBA
B)MLB
C)NFL
D)NHL
Q2) Who were the FIRST athletes to use mouthguards?
A)Football players
B)Soccer players
C)Boxers
D)Hockey players
Q3) What is the purpose of the Academy of Sports Dentistry?
A)Esthetic dentistry
B)Prevention of sport injuries
C)Restorative dentistry
D)Preventive dentistry
Q4) What was the FIRST mouthguard constructed of?
A)Rubber
B)Acrylic
C)Plastic
D)Cotton
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many chromosomes does DNA have?
A)20
B)26
C)22
D)24
Q2) What is the MOST important part of the tooth?
A)Crown
B)Root
C)Cementum
D)Dentin
Q3) What has research indicated about periodontal disease and dental caries?
A)That periodontal disease and caries is contagious.
B)That periodontal disease and caries can be genetic.
C)That periodontal disease and caries is due to a chromosome deficiency.
D)That periodontal disease and caries can be reversed.
Q4) When was the Human Genome Project completed?
A)2003
B)2004
C)2005
D)2006
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Q1) What position should an examination for children under three years of age be done in?
A)Lying back
B)Knee-to-knee
C)The parents lap
D)Cradled in the dentists lap
Q2) When should the child's FIRST visit to the dentist occur?
A)0-6 months
B)6 months-1 year
C)1-2 years
D)2-3 years
Q3) How often do pediatricians recommend that infants have exams during the first year of life?
A)5
B)6
C)7
D)8
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Q1) During the adolescence stage,teens begin to think about things that cannot be seen,touched,or heard.Examples of this are: faith,trust,beliefs,values,and spirituality.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q2) What is described as critical thinking,conceptual thinking,and introspection through their increased speed,automaticity,and capacity of information processing?
A)Formal operational thinking
B)Classical operational thinking
C)Informal operational thinking
D)None of the above
Q3) What is described as a continuum of interaction with a child/parent directed toward communication and education?
A)Communication
B)Setting
C)Behavior management
D)Tell-show-do technique
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Q1) Which of the following impacts a patient's attitude towards oral health?
A)Culture
B)Education
C)Economic status
D)All of the above
Q2) In which stage of life does one appear clumsy?
A)Adolescence
B)Early adulthood
C)Mature adulthood
D)Elderly
Q3) Which type of fluoride is applied professionally and creates a film of calcium fluoride,which slowly releases over time.
A)Stannous fluoride
B)Acidulated phosphate fluoride
C)Fluoride varnish
D)Neutral sodium fluoride
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Q1) What is the MOST common cancer found in the oral cavity?
A)Lip cancer
B)Tongue cancer
C)Oropharyngeal cancer
D)Squamous cell carcinoma
Q2) Osteoporosis may contribute to the progression of periodontal disease.Significant decrease in bone mass of the mandible may lead to fragility and increased resorption,risk of fracture,and failure of osseointegration of dental implants.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
Q3) What is defined as the loss of established intellectual activity that interferes with occupational and social functional?
A)Alzheimer's disease
B)Dementia
C)Parkinson's disease
D)Cerebral palsy
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Q1) Rampant caries is commonly seen with which type of substance abuse?
A)Marijuana
B)Cocaine
C)Meth
D)Alcohol
Q2) What is the risk of an alcoholic developing oral squamous cell carcinoma over a non-alcoholic?
A)10-15 times more likely
B)20-30 times more likely
C)40-50 times more likely
D)60-70 times more likely
Q3) Periodontal involvement in the HIV-positive patient advances slowly compared to the general population.This slower advancement is thought to be associated with the immunocompromised state.
A)Both statements are true.
B)Both statements are false.
C)First statement is true,second statement is false.
D)First statement is false,second statement is true.
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Q1) Approximately how many births result in a child with autism?
A)1.2 out of every 1,000 births
B)2.6 out of every 1,000 births
C)3.4 out of every 1,000 births
D)4.5 out of every 1,000 births
Q2) What are common signs and cues indicating a person might have autism?
A)Distant or aloof appearance
B)Lack of response to verbal or social cues
C)Easily frustrated
D)All of the above
Q3) Approximately how many births result in a child born with cerebral palsy?
A)1.7 out of every 1,000
B)2.1 out of every 1,000
C)3.1 out of every 1,000
D)4.8 out of every 1,000
Q4) What percentage of the children with cerebral palsy have epilepsy?
A)5%
B)10%
C)20%
D)30%

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