Patient-Centered Care Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Patient-Centered Care is a foundational course that focuses on the principles and practices of placing the patient at the core of healthcare delivery. Students will explore strategies to engage patients in their own care, emphasizing communication, empathy, cultural sensitivity, and shared decision-making. The course examines how to foster therapeutic relationships, respect patient values and preferences, and coordinate care in interprofessional teams. Learners will analyze real-world scenarios to understand the impact of patient-centered approaches on health outcomes, satisfaction, and quality of care, preparing them to advocate for and implement patient-focused interventions in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Critical Thinking for Person Centred Care 3rd Edition by Priscilla Lemone
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52 Chapters
1083 Verified Questions
1083 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Medical-Surgical Nursing in the Twenty-First Century
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A graduate nurse is attending a seminar regarding the role of the nurse as a person advocate. After the session, the students engage in a discussion. Which of the following statements by the graduate nurse indicates a need for further education?
A)'Being a person advocate entails making efforts to improve the person's outcomes.'
B)'Providing education to the person and family is a key way to be a positive person advocate.'
C)'Person advocates have the authority to make decisions for the person.'
D)'Communicating person needs to other members of the healthcare team is a role of the person advocate.'
Answer: C
Q2) While providing care to a person, the nurse stops to assess a new person-centred problem. Which type of assessment is this?
A)Objective.
B)Subjective.
C)Initial.
D)Focused.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Health and Illness in Adults
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is completing an assessment on a person who reports his age as 23 years. Which question posed by the nurse would best assess Erikson's psychosocial development task for this person?
A) 'How do you live out your spiritual beliefs?'
B) 'What activities do you do to meet community and social responsibilities?'
C) 'Have you begun a career that you feel committed to?'
D) 'Are you able to view situations from a variety of viewpoints?'
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is an Australian National Health Priority Area?
A)Back pain.
B)Visual impairment.
C)Mental health.
D)Malnutrition.
Answer: C
Q3) What is meant by the term 'iatrogenic disease'? A disease:
A)of unknown cause.
B)caused by aspects of healthcare management.
C)that developed in utero.
D)that results from lifestyle choices.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Nursing Care of People Having Surgery
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following should be included in the preoperative teaching provided by the nurse?
A)Planned postoperative routine.
B)Information about the type of anaesthesia.
C)Information concerning the surgical procedure which will be provided by the surgeon.
D)Cost of the procedure.
Answer: A
Q2) A postoperative person tells the nurse, 'I read that I should not eat after surgery for at least a week.' Which of the following would be a correct therapeutic response to this statement?
A)'Eating is not a major concern at that time as regular food does not support healing.'
B)'You don't need to worry about that; you'll be receiving intravenous feedings anyway.'
C)'That is a misunderstanding, you would be very hungry after a week.'
D)'When you can eat depends on bowel activity; once it returns, you can generally restart your regular diet.'
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Nursing Care of People Experiencing Loss, Grief, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The family of a dying person states, 'She must be in pain because all she does is moan.' The statement reflects the family is doing which of the following?
A)Considering this to be a sign the person is recovering.
B)Asking for more pain medication for the person.
C)Not understanding that moaning can be a sign of agitation.
D)Expressing their anger.
Q2) The spouse of a deceased woman tells the nurse that he has joined a support group to help cope with the loss of his wife. This person is in which phase of Engel's grief process?
A)Long term.
B)Acute.
C)Restitution.
D)Acceptance.
Q3) A dying person tells the nurse, 'Don't let my family leave me.' What does this statement indicate?
A)Fear of dying alone.
B)An anticipation of improvement in health.
C)Denial about their eventual death.
D)The desire to prolong life.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Nursing Care of People With Problems of Substance Misuse
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 76-year-old man who used to run a bar and restaurant comes into the clinic with progressive numbness and tingling of all four extremities. For which health problem should this person be evaluated?
A)Psychological dependence.
B)Co-occurring disorders.
C)Tolerance.
D)Korsakoff's psychosis.
Q2) A person sitting in an air-conditioned waiting room is experiencing excessive lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, yawning and diaphoresis. The nurse should suspect this person is experiencing withdrawal from which substance?
A)Ketamine.
B)Diazepam.
C)Marijuana.
D)Heroin.
Q3) Which assessment finding is associated with a ketamine overdose?
A)Seizures.
B)Dilated pupils.
C)Raised blood pressure.
D)Numbness.
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Chapter 6: Nursing Care of People Experiencing Disasters
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency room nurses are noting an unusually high number of people coming into the department with complaints of nausea, vomiting and severe headache. What should be done with this information?
A)Contact the Infection Control Department and Microbiology Department.
B)Call for more staff to handle all of the people.
C)Close the emergency room.
D)Reassess the situation at the end of shift.
Q2) The community is holding a memorial service to honour those members whose lives were lost in the flood one year ago. In which stage of the disaster recovery process is this community?
A)Restoration
B)Disaster reflection
C)Reconstitution
D)Mitigation
Q3) Which of the following is a conventional weapon?
A)Radiological bomb
B)Anthrax attack
C)Car bomb
D)Sarin attack
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Genetic Implications of Adult Health Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old pregnant woman asks the nurse if her baby will be born with Down syndrome. The nurse realises that a baby with this chromosomal abnormality would have which of the following?
A)An extra chromosome.
B)23 pairs of chromosomes.
C)A missing chromosome.
D)A sex chromosome abnormality.
Q2) A pregnant woman who has a family history of cystic fibrosis asks about the risks of transmission to her child. Which concept should be included in the discussion?
A)The condition does not skip generations.
B)There is less risk of transmission to female children.
C)Male and female children are equally affected.
D)The parents must both have cystic fibrosis for transmission to occur.
Q3) The doctor has ordered chromosomal analysis for a newborn baby. Which of the following tests has been ordered?
A)Genotype.
B)Newborn screen.
C)Karyotype.
D)Phenotype.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Nursing Care of People in Pain
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing medication to a person with acute pain. Which of the following are types of acute pain? (Select all that apply.)
A)Neuralgia.
B)Referred.
C)Somatic.
D)Incident.
Q2) A person with chronic pain is desperately searching for something to relieve the pain. Which of the following would be helpful to consider for this person?
A)Perform a thorough assessment of the pain to determine if it is truly pain.
B)Minimise the use of narcotic analgesics.
C)Recommend evaluation by a psychiatrist to determine if the person is experiencing depression.
D)Develop a pain medication schedule to help avoid the onset of pain.
Q3) Which of the following is a general adverse effect of opioids?
A)Exacerbation of coughing.
B)Diarrhoea.
C)Vasoconstriction.
D)Loss of appetite.
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Chapter 9: Nursing Care of People With Altered Fluid, Electrolyte,
Acid-Based Balance
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25 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with fluid retention related to renal problems is admitted to the hospital. The nurse realises that this person could possibly have which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
A)Hypercapnia
B)Hypocalcaemia
C)Hypernatraemia
D)Hypophosphataemia
Q2) An older adult with peripheral neuropathy has been self-medicating with magnesium supplements. The nurse realises that which of the following symptoms can indicate hypermagnesaemia?
A)Increased deep tendon reflexes
B)Tachycardia
C)Paraesthesias
D)Hypotension, warmth and sweating
Q3) A person is prescribed 40 mEq of potassium as a replacement. How should this be administered?
A)Rapidly to minimise blood vessel irritation
B)As a bolus dose directly into the venous access line
C)Mixed in the prescribed intravenous fluid
D)Via intramuscular injection
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nursing Care of People Experiencing Trauma and Shock
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person in shock is prescribed a vasopressor medication. Which of the following would the nurse most likely administer to this person?
A)Nitroglycerin.
B)Dopamine.
C)Nitroprusside (Nipride).
D)Isoprenaline (Isuprel).
Q2) Which of the following are manifestations of moderate (Class III)haemorrhagic shock involving the loss of 1,800 ml of blood in an adult?
A)Pulse pressure decreased and heart rate less than 100 bpm.
B)Pulse pressure decreased and capillary refill mildly increased.
C)Blood pressure decreased and pulse pressure normal.
D)Heart rate greater than 120 bpm and capillary refill delayed.
Q3) The nurse recognises that which of the following is a clue to a possible violence-related injury?
A)Pattern burns.
B)Fractures with a history of trauma.
C)Confusion.
D)Head injuries.
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Chapter 11: Nursing Care of People With Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person asks the nurse, 'What's going to happen to me now that my spleen is gone?' What is an appropriate nursing response?
A)'Your liver and bone marrow will assume its functions'.
B)'You will have to avoid getting colds and flu'.
C)'Your spleen doesn't do much, so you will not miss it'.
D)'Your stomach will assume its functioning'.
Q2) A person is having skin testing done to assess for allergies. What would be evidence of exposure to an antigen?
A)A response that only appears 5 days later
B)Itching at the site of the skin test
C)An area of approximately 1 mm of induration and erythema
D)An area of greater than 10 mm of induration and erythema
Q3) A person with a compromised immune system is admitted to the hospital with an infection. Which of the following will most likely be done to help this person?
A)Discharge the person early to recover at home.
B)Place the person in a semi-private room.
C)Place the person in respiratory isolation.
D)Utilise isolation techniques to protect the person from further infection.
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13
Chapter 12: Nursing Care of People With Altered Immunity
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is found to be allergic to several foods from the food allergy testing. Which of the following should be done next to help this person?
A)Undergo patch testing.
B)Perform skin prick testing.
C)Undergo intradermal testing of the allergens with a negative response to prick testing.
D)Eliminate allergic foods from diet.
Q2) Before a bone marrow transplant, a person is prescribed ganciclovir. Which of the following should be included in the instructions to the person about this medication? It will:
A)reduce the likelihood of bacterial infections.
B)prevent the development of herpes pneumonia.
C)prevent the development of cytomegalovirus (CMV)pneumonia.
D)reduce the risk of an opportunistic systemic fungal.
Q3) Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disorder?
A)Osteoarthritis
B)Phenylketonuria
C)Non-insulin dependent (type 2)diabetes mellitus
D)Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
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Chapter 13: Nursing Care of People With Cancer
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person asks the nurse, 'What does it matter what grade the tumour I had in my stomach was?' What is the best response by the nurse?
A)'It is a method of explaining the size of the tumour'.
B)'It helps us name the tumour'.
C)'It explains if the tumour has spread'.
D)'It indicates how aggressive the tumour is'.
Q2) A person who was treated for bladder cancer 15 years ago tells the nurse, 'I live each day like it is my last yet plan for the future.' The nurse realises that this person is demonstrating which phase of cancer survival?
A)Rehabilitation
B)Permanent survival
C)Watchful waiting
D)Extended survival
Q3) A person thinks she has cancer because her last Pap smear identified cervical dysplasia. What is the nurse's best response?
A)'Your cervical cells are non-functional'.
B)'This confirms that the cells are cancerous'.
C)'This means the cells are abnormal because of continued irritation'.
D)'This means the cells are normal'.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Integumentary
System
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the assessment of a person's integumentary status, the nurse notes: 'vitiligo present bilateral hands.'' This documentation means that the person has:
A)dark, asymmetrical coloured patches.
B)yellowing of the skin.
C)patches of white spots.
D)grey cast to the skin.
Q2) The nurse is assessing a person for peripheral oedema. The nurse's findings are that pitting is obvious, with a 4 mm depression and the extremities are swollen. How would the nurse record this finding of oedema?
A)1+
B)2+
C)3+
D)4+
Q3) An adolescent male has extensive acne over his face and upper neck. What is acne caused by?
A)Blocked sudoriferous glands
B)Inflamed ceruminous glands
C)Blocked apocrine glands
D)Inflamed sebaceous glands
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Nursing Care of People With Integumentary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person confined to bed has slid to the bottom of the bed. What should the nurse do to adjust this person's body position?
A)Slide the person up the bed.
B)Do nothing.
C)Pull the person up the bed.
D)Lift the person up the bed.
Q2) A person with a history of pruritus reports an improvement after taking the allergy medication as prescribed. To what should the nurse attribute the improvement of this person's condition?
A) The allergy medicine is causing a placebo effect.
B)The allergies are causing a Distraction from the itching.
C)The medication is reducing histamine release.
D)Another medication is affecting the pruritus.
Q3) A person is scheduled for an ultraviolet light therapy treatment for psoriasis. What should be included in this person's teaching?
A)The skin will appear reddened in approximately 8 hours after the treatment.
B)This is the treatment of choice for persons with psoriasis on the upper body.
C)The treatment involves gradually decreasing exposure times.
D)There is no anticipated damage to the eyes or immune system.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Nursing Care of People With Burns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following surgical debridement, a person with full-thickness burns does not bleed. What should this finding indicate to the nurse?
A)Hypovolemia is present.
B)The procedure needs to be repeated.
C)Peripheral vascular shutdown is occurring.
D)The procedure is no longer indicated.
Q2) The family of a person with full-thickness burns asks why the 'scabs are being cut off' the person's leg. How should the nurse respond to the family?
A)'The scabs are removed to check for blood flow to the burned area.'
B)'The scabs are old burned tissue that needs to be removed to promote healing.'
C)'I'll ask the doctor to come and talk with you about the treatment plan.'
D)'The person asked for the scabs to be removed.'
Q3) What percentage of a child's total body surface area needs to be burned for the nurse to consider inserting an indwelling catheter to measure urinary output?
A)5.
B)10.
C)20.
D)25.
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Chapter 17: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Endocrine System
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person's water deprivation test showed no changes in urine osmolality. This finding is consistent with which condition?
A)Cushing's syndrome.
B)Diabetes insipidus.
C)Addison's disease.
D)None. No pathology is present.
Q2) A person has an abnormal serum calcium level. Which endocrine gland could be causing this low blood level?
A)Parathyroid.
B)Gonads.
C)Thymus.
D)Thyroid.
Q3) A person being tested for hyperglycaemia is pleased to learn that an oral glucose tolerance test is not needed. ''What might cancellation of the test indicate?
A)Consistently high fasting blood glucose levels.
B)Variable blood glucose levels.
C)Normal liver functioning.
D)Normal pituitary functioning.
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Chapter 18: Nursing Care of People With Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which manifestation is consistent with this diagnosis?
A)Muscle weakness.
B)Blurred vision.
C)Bradycardia.
D)Lethargy.
Q2) A family member is concerned about keeping an older person's broken skin areas clean. What should the nurse teach this family member?
A)'Use warm water.'
B)'Use firm, consistent strokes when bathing.'
C)'Make sure she has a daily bath.'
D)'Follow the bath with an alcohol body massage.'
Q3) A person taking steroid medication is concerned about 'losing weight' in the legs. '''What should the nurse suspect this person is experiencing?
A)Increased risk of compression fractures.
B)Muscle wasting.
C)Peripheral oedema.
D)Increased risk of infections.
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Chapter 19: Nursing Care of People With Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with diabetes seeks help for a back problem because the feet are becoming numb. What should the nurse suspect this person is experiencing?
A)Tetany.
B)Carpopedal spasm.
C)Gastroparesis.
D)Polyneuropathy.
Q2) During a visit, the nurse finds a safety hazard in the home of a person with diabetes. What did the nurse observe in this person's home?
A)Hand grips next to the toilet.
B)Throw rugs in the kitchen and bathroom.
C)Night lights.
D)Bed at the lowest level.
Q3) A person with type 2 diabetes asks what can be done to prevent heart problems. ''What should the nurse instruct the person to do to avoid this long-term complication?
A)Avoid high-sugar-content fruits.
B)Perform vigorous aerobic exercise at least two times per week.
C)Restrict oral fluids.
D)Cease smoking.
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21
Chapter 20: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Gastrointestinal
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is diagnosed with a vitamin B<sub>12</sub> (cyanocobalamin)deficiency. Which stomach cells are impaired for this person?
A)Zymogenic cells
B)Mucous cells
C)Enteroendocrine cells
D)Parietal cells
Q2) The nurse advises a person to be careful about taking vitamin supplements containing fat-soluble vitamins because an excess may cause toxicity. Which vitamin is fat soluble?
A)Vitamin A
B)Ascorbic acid
C)Niacin
D)Folic acid
Q3) The nurse is preparing to assess a person's abdomen. Which assessment technique should this nurse use last?
A)Palpation
B)Percussion
C)Auscultation
D)Inspection
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Chapter 21: Nursing Care of People With Nutritional Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An overweight person tells the nurse, 'Every Monday at work we have croissants. I can't stop myself! Sometimes I eat two!' What is this person describing?
A)Satiety
B)Carbohydrate addiction
C)Appetite stimulation by external cues
D)Metabolic syndrome
Q2) A 19-year-old female is being assessed for bulimia. The mother asks what diagnostic tests can be done to determine the presence of bulimia. What is the nurse's best response?
A)'She will need a psychiatric evaluation to determine the diagnosis.'
B)'There is no specific test that can determine bulimia.'
C)'We will need a blood sample to look at serum electrolyte levels.'
D)'She needs a gag reflex test.'
Q3) The nurse is reviewing the serum lipids of a person with a BMI of 31. Which of the following would be expected in this person?
A)Low HDL
B)Low serum triglycerides
C)Elevated HDL
D)Low LDL
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nursing Care of People With Upper
Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with chronic gastritis says, 'I've stopped taking the prescribed medication because I feel so much better now that I drink ginger tea.' The nurse realises that this person:
A)has not given the prescribed medication enough time to work.
B)is using a complementary therapy for the symptoms.
C)needs to see the doctor immediately.
D)is in denial of the disease.
Q2) A person tells the nurse, 'I get these tremendous stomach pains in the middle of the night and they disappear after I eat something. No wonder I can't lose any weight!' The nurse suspects that this person is experiencing which of the following?
A)Peptic ulcer disease
B)Dumping syndrome
C)Cushing's ulcers
D)Haematemesis
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Chapter 23: Nursing Care of People With Bowel Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a person with diarrhoea. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to ask during the focused assessment?
A)'Are you still taking the medication for depression?'
B)'Tell me about your work responsibilities.'
C)'Are you still taking the prescribed sleeping medication?'
D)'Have you been feeling blue or sad recently?'
Q2) The nurse is instructing a person about how to increase intra-abdominal pressure in order to facilitate a bowel movement. In this example, what is the nurse instructing the person about?
A)Valsalva manoeuvre
B)Crede procedure
C)Splinting
D)Tetany
Q3) A person has been diagnosed with internal haemorrhoids. Where are the haemorrhoids most likely located? At the:
A)hepatic flexure.
B)splenic flexure.
C)descending colon.
D)anorectal junction.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Nursing Care of People With Gallbladder, Liver, and Pancreatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person presents to the emergency department with abrupt onset of severe left upper quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The person's serum amylase levels rise to two to three times normal over several hours. What condition does the nurse suspect the person has?
A)Fulminant hepatitis
B)Cholecystitis
C)Acute pancreatitis
D)Liver cirrhosis
Q2) A person with hepatitis is complaining of 'itchy skin' and 'odd-coloured bowel movements.' The nurse realises that this person is in which phase of acute hepatitis?
A)Prodromal
B)Preicteric
C)Icteric
D)Posticteric
Q3) Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of gallstones?
A)Tobacco smoking
B)Heavy alcohol consumption
C)Pregnancy
D)High-fibre diet
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Chapter 25: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Renal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) While auscultating a person's renal arteries, the nurse hears a 'whooshing' sound. What might this finding be indicative of?
A)Renal artery vasodilation
B)Acute renal failure
C)Renal artery stenosis
D)End-stage renal failure
Q2) A person is admitted with possible renal calculi. Which diagnostic test might this person undergo?
A)Laboratory urinalysis
B)24-hour urine collection
C)Renal biopsy
D)Intravenous pyelogram
Q3) A person is admitted with an infection of the ureters. The nurse realises that this infection could not include which of the following structures of the kidney?
A)Nephrons
B)Medulla
C)Renal column
D)Pelvis
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Chapter 26: Nursing Care of People With Urinary Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly person with diabetes is diagnosed with a flaccid bladder. Which of the following should be included in the care of this person?
A)Instruction about the Crede method for bladder emptying.
B)Instruction about ways to maintain acidic urine.
C)Instruction about the use of anticholinergic medications.
D)Reminder to increase fluid intake.
Q2) A person with an indwelling urinary catheter is demonstrating signs of asymptomatic bacteriuria. Which is the priority action for the nurse to take for this person?
A)Remove the catheter and begin antibiotic therapy.
B)Commence intravenous antibiotic therapy.
C)Remove the catheter and monitor for several days for continued signs of bacteriuria.
D)Begin oral antibiotic therapy.
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Chapter 27: Nursing Care of People With Kidney Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who received a kidney transplant seven years ago is seen for increasing blood pressure and proteinuria. The nurse realises that this person is demonstrating signs of which condition?
A)Nephrotic syndrome.
B) Acute kidney rejection.
C)Glomerulonephritis.
D) Chronic kidney rejection.
Q2) A person with acute kidney injury (AKI)is prescribed frusemide. This medication will help the individual because it
A)is a thiazide diuretic.
B) will maintain serum sodium levels.
C)will reduce oedema.
D) will preserve plasma proteins.
Q3) A person is diagnosed with 45% of normal glomerular filtration. The nurse realises that this person is experiencing which of the following?
A)Renal insufficiency.
B) Acute kidney injury.
C)Chronic kidney disease.
D) Nephrotic syndrome.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Cardiovascular and Lymphatic
Systems
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a person admitted with an atrial gallop. The nurse realises that which of the following cardiac conditions could result in this assessment finding? (Select all that apply.)
A)Cardiomyopathy.
B)Mitral valve prolapse.
C)Aortic stenosis.
D)Tricuspid regurgitation.
Q2) The S1 heart sound corresponds to which of the following physiological events?
A)The onset of cardiac diastole.
B)Ejection of blood from the atria.
C)Closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
D)Closure of the AV valves.
Q3) At which location will S2 be heard the loudest?
A)Right sternal border at the second intercostal space.
B)Left sternal border at the fifth intercostal space.
C)Left midclavicular line at the fifth intercostal space.
D)Right midclavicular line at the third intercostal space.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Nursing Care of People With Coronary Heart Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many beats per minute does the nurse expect to hear listening to adult heart sounds when a normal sinus rhythm is present?
A)30-60.
B)60-100.
C)100-130.
D)130-160.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a person admitted with an atrial gallop. The nurse realises that which of the following cardiac conditions could result in this assessment finding?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Cardiomyopathy.
B)Mitral valve prolapse.
C)Aortic stenosis.
D)Tricuspid regurgitation.
Q3) Bradycardia occurs when the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of how many beats per minute in an adult?
A)Less than 60.
B)60-90.
C)90.
D)Greater than 100.
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Chapter 30: Nursing Care of People With Cardiac Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When teaching about metabolic syndrome, what is the most accurate information for the nurse to explain?
A)'This syndrome is not a concern for females unless they smoke.'
B)'This syndrome can be avoided by taking daily vitamins and drinking two litres of water a day.'
C)'This syndrome affects only older adults.'
D)'This syndrome is caused by overweight, physical inactivity and genetic factors.'
Q2) When a person's ECG shows frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVCs), the nurse expects that the doctor will create an order for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A)Oxygen.
B)Anginine.
C)Beta-blockers.
D)Antiarrhythmic agents.
Q3) What should a person who is taking a statin medication be monitored for?
A)Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine levels.
B)Constipation and sudden back pain.
C)Blood glucose and uric acid levels.
D)Serum cholesterol and liver enzymes.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Nursing Care of People With Vascular and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would be the first intervention performed on a patient arriving to the hospital with pulmonary edema?
A)Seek an order to medicate for discomfort.
B)Insert an indwelling catheter.
C)Administer oxygen and attach a pulse oximeter.
D)Monitor the blood glucose level.
Q2) Small, purplish-red haemorrhagic spots on the trunk that manifest due to microemboli or circulating immune complexes are called:
A)Splinter haemorrhages
B)Janeway lesions
C)Petechiae
D)Roth's spots
Q3) Which of the following are clinical signs and symptoms of pericarditis? (Select all that apply.)
A)Pericardial friction rub.
B)Chest pain.
C)Bradycardia
D)Pulse deficit.
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Chapter 32: Nursing Care of People With Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura continues to experience symptoms of the disease after completing several courses of corticosteroid therapy. The nurse anticipates that which of the following will most likely be indicated for this person?
A)Oral anticoagulant therapy
B)Splenectomy
C)Weekly platelet transfusions
D)Lifelong steroid therapy
Q2) Which of the following causes relative polycythaemia?
A)Increased RBC production
B)Erythropoietin levels are elevated
C)Fluid deficit
D)Decreased RBC production
Q3) Which of the following should be included in the nursing instructions for a patient prone to sickle cell crises?
A)Seek out air conditioning or other ways to keep cool during hot, humid days.
B)Maintain a regular exercise program.
C)Take appropriate actions to keep warm.
D)Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
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Chapter 33: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Respiratory
System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is demonstrating poor exhalation. The nurse realises that this person is at risk of developing which of the following?
A)Increased carbon dioxide levels
B)Increased oxygen levels
C)Reduced oxygen capacity of red blood cells
D)Reduced respiratory reserve volume
Q2) The nurse is preparing to auscultate a person's lungs. Which breath sounds should be considered abnormal? Select all that apply.
A)Bronchial
B)Crackles
C)Friction rub
D)Bronchovesicular
Q3) Which of the following would the nasopharynx serve as a passage way for as it works in the respiratory system?
A)Air and food
B)Air only
C)Food only
D)Debris
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Chapter 34: Nursing Care of People With Upper Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person tells the nurse he has a 'cold' every spring that lasts for several weeks. What does the nurse suspect that the person is experiencing?
A)Vasomotor rhinitis
B)Allergic rhinitis
C)Acute viral rhinitis
D)Atrophic rhinitis
Q2) A person who was diagnosed with the flu is demonstrating rapid, shallow respirations. Which of the following is this person most at risk of developing?
A)Pneumothorax
B)Pleurisy
C)Atelectasis
D)Dehydration
Q3) The nurse observes a person's respirations during sleep and notes the absence of respirations that last from 15 to 45 seconds. What is this finding consistent with?
A)Respiratory muscle fatigue
B)Sleep apnoea
C)Respiratory acidosis
D)Laryngeal oedema
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Chapter 35: Nursing Care of People With Ventilation Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes air bubbles in a person's chest tube water seal chamber. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
A)An emergency as air is entering the tubing
B)Normal
C)An indication that the pneumothorax is worsening
D)An indication to replace the chest tube
Q2) A person with lung cancer is demonstrating signs of complete tumour response after two courses of chemotherapy. What should the nurse conclude about this response? It is:
A)an indication that radiation therapy can now be commenced.
B)good for long-term survival from the disease.
C)a contraindication for further chemotherapy.
D)an indication that surgery can now be safely performed.
Q3) Which of the following should be included in the discharge instructions of a patient diagnosed with a lung abscess?
A)Complete the entire course of antibiotics.
B)Expect symptoms to initially worsen.
C)Recommence routine activities of daily living.
D)Lung abscesses rarely cause other problems once treatment is started.
Page 37
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Chapter 36: Nursing Care of People With Gas Exchange Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old male who continues to smoke tells the nurse that he is fine because he only has chronic bronchitis. The nurse determines that this person is most likely experiencing what condition?
A)Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B)Atelectasis
C)Cor pulmonale
D)Emphysema
Q2) Which of the following would be considered the type of trigger for an asthmatic patient that experiences an exacerbation when in contact with house pets?
A)Psychosocial
B)Emotional stress
C)Physical factors
D)Environmental allergens
Q3) An intubated person is not exhibiting signs of improved oxygenation. What should the nurse do? Select all that apply.
A)Insert an oral airway.
B)Prepare for an emergency tracheotomy.
C)Check the endotracheal tube placement.
D)Assess for the need to suction to clear the airway.
Page 38
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Chapter 37: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching about an endoscopic examination of the interior surfaces of a joint during which both diagnosis and surgery can be accomplished. What is a correct name for this technique?
A)Arthrocentesis.
B)Arthroscopy.
C)Menisectomy.
D)Arthrogenesis.
Q2) When would a bone scan most likely be ordered for a person? When:
A)osteosarcoma is suspected.
B)a person complains of a new onset of pain in the area of the bone.
C)a muscle mass near the bone is suspected.
D)lab tests indicate a normal serum calcium level.
Q3) A person is ordered to be on bed rest for two months. What will happen to the person's bones? They will:
A)be affected positively by the rest and be stronger as a result.
B)increase their osteoblastic activity to promote bone deposition.
C)not be affected significantly by the bed rest.
D)undergo increased osteoclast activity and bone breakdown.
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Chapter 38: Nursing Care of People With Musculoskeletal
Trauma
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing a presentation about adult bone health at the local health fair. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
A)Calcium supplements are usually necessary for good adult bone health.
B)Avoiding obesity will guarantee healthy bones for adults.
C)In order to maintain bone health, daily multivitamins containing vitamin D are necessary.
D)Strong bones depend on adequate calcium intake and weight-bearing exercise.
Q2) Following hip replacement surgery, the person returns with an abductor pillow splint in place. What does this mean? The splint:
A)is only needed when the person rolls onto their side.
B)is used for the first day after surgery.
C)will stay on except when bathing.
D)is taken off while the person sleeps.
Q3) What are the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased peripheral pulse.
B)Decrease in pain.
C)Increased draining.
D)Tingling in an extremity.
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Nursing Care of People With Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is providing nutrition education at a senior citizens centre. The presentation addresses the implication of vitamin D deficiency and low serum levels of phosphorus. What are the potential complications of these deficiencies?
A)Osteoarthritis; due to low intake of nutrients needed for bone formation.
B)Osteomalacia; due to low intake of calcium and vitamin D in the diet.
C)Osteomyelitis; due to lack of nutrients for muscle cells, which then become inflamed.
D)Osteosarcoma; due to nutrient deficiencies that allow mutation of cells.
Q2) A 52-year-old person is prescribed raloxifene (Evista)for the treatment of osteoporosis. How does this medication work on postmenopausal women? By:
A)stimulating osteoblast activity and increasing bone formation.
B)inhibiting bone breakdown.
C)inhibiting osteoclast activity.
D)preventing bone loss by mimicking what oestrogen does for bone density.
Q3) What should care of the older person with osteoporosis focus on?
A)Slowing or stopping the process and preventing complications.
B)Diagnosis and medical management.
C)Treating the development of complications and the person's complaints.
D)Teaching compensatory actions to counter the condition.
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Chapter 40: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse observes a person who has a lack of coordination, clumsy movements, and an unbalanced gait. What is this called?
A)Dysarthria.
B)Kinaesthesia.
C)Ataxia.
D)Flaccidity.
Q2) The nurse understands that age-related changes in the neurological system include a slower response to change in balance, decreased cerebral blood flow, and decreased metabolism. What is an example of how this would affect home care for an older adult?
A)The older adult will be less able to complete self-care activities.
B)The older adult may need additional time to process information.
C)The older adult will not be open to new learning.
D)The older adult will be easily distracted.
Q3) What does the nurse need to do when assessing a person's muscle strength and movement?
A)Observe to see whether strength and movement are bilaterally equal and strong.
B)Determine evoked potentials.
C)Grade the degree of muscle flaccidity.
D)Ask the person to walk normally in a heel-to-toe sequence.
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Nursing Care of People With Intracranial Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is observing a person who is having a seizure that involves a blank stare, unresponsiveness to questions, and eyelid fluttering. The seizure lasts less than a minute. How does the nurse categorise the seizure?
A)Tonic-clonic.
B)Complex partial seizure.
C)Absence.
D)Simple partial seizure.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a person on a medical unit who begins a tonic-clonic seizure. The seizure stops after a few minutes, but begins again after another minute. This pattern continues, in which the person is having repeated tonic-clonic seizures, and has lasted for more than 10 minutes. Place the following nursing actions into order from highest priority to lowest:
A) Hang an IV of normal saline to keep a vein open.
B) Call a respiratory physiotherapist stat.
C) Call the doctor stat.
D) Initiate oxygen via the nasal cannula at the bedside.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Nursing Care of People With Cerebrovascular and Spinal Cord Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The person is exhibiting left-sided hemianopia (loss of visual field)following a stroke (CVA). What is the priority of nursing care? To:
A)train the person to scan the right side of the body.
B)explain that the person must pay more attention to objects in front of them.
C)teach the person to scan his or her surroundings.
D)train the person to scan the left side of his or her body.
Q2) A person is admitted with signs of a stroke (CVA). On admission, vital signs were blood a pressure of 128/70, pulse 68, and respirations 20. Two hours later, the person is not awake, has a blood pressure of 170/70, pulse 52, and the left pupil is now slower than the right pupil in reacting to light. What do these findings suggest?
A)Embolic stroke.
B)Developing hemiplegia.
C)Decreasing intracranial pressure.
D)Increased intracranial pressure.
Q3) The most common type of brain attack (CVA)is related to which of the following?
A)Migraines.
B)Ischaemia.
C)Haemorrhage.
D)Seizures.
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Chapter 43: Nursing Care of People With Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the medication used to treat the person with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease (AD)manifestations?
A)Propranolol (Inderal).
B)Sodium valproate (Epilim).
C)Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).
D)Rivastigmine tartrate (Exelon).
Q2) An adult has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The person asks if the facial paralysis and distortion will go away. What should the nurse answer?
A)'About 80% of people recover completely within a few weeks to a few months, but there can be lasting effects.'
B)'Virtually everyone recovers from Bell's palsy in three to five weeks.'
C)'Most people have intermittent facial paralysis on both sides of the face.'
D)'Most people have permanent facial paralysis on one side of the face.'
Q3) Once motor neurone disease is diagnosed, what is the priority nursing activity?
A)Support the person and family to meet physical and psychosocial needs.
B)Assist the person to avoid cardiac complications.
C)Assist the person to adapt to the disease.
D)Monitor for early signs of infection.
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Chapter 44: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person is scheduled for diagnostic tests to determine the cause of a hearing and balance disorder. Which diagnostic tests could be used to help this person? Select all that apply.
A)Tonometry
B)Computed tomography (CT)scan
C)Convergence test
D)Caloric test
Q2) A person is found to have small, raised lesions on the rim of the ear. What does this finding indicate?
A)Renal impairment
B)Hypertension
C)Cardiac disease
D)Gout
Q3) A person who is recovering from a stroke is demonstrating vision changes. Why is this occurring?
A)The stroke occurred in the optic region of the person's brain.
B)The stroke has damaged the person's retina.
C)The person is unable to talk because of the stroke.
D)The person is experiencing another stroke.
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Chapter 45: Nursing Care of People With Eye and Ear Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with COPD is being treated for glaucoma. What medication will most likely be prescribed for this person?
A)Thiazide diuretic
B)Antibiotic
C)Beta-blocker
D)Adrenergic agonist
Q2) A person reports increased ear pain when the auricle is pulled up and back. What should the nurse consider this person is experiencing?
A)Mastoiditis
B)Otitis media
C)Otosclerosis
D)Otitis externa
Q3) A person who is an avid reader is diagnosed with exudative macular degeneration. What should the nurse suggest to this person?
A)Listen to music instead of reading.
B)Watch more television.
C)Obtain audio books.
D)Find another activity that does not require reading.
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Chapter 46: A Person-Centred Approach to Assessing the
Male and Female Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man has an infection of his epididymis. Because of this infection the person will have a reduction in what?
A)Mature sperm
B)Testosterone production
C)Sperm production
D)The ability to ejaculate
Q2) A man's prostate specific antigen (PSA)level is elevated. The nurse realises that this man most likely will need which of the following diagnostic tests to accurately diagnose the presence or absence of cancer?
A)Prostate ultrasound
B)Semen analysis
C)Biopsy
D)CT scan
Q3) A man was born with only one testis. What is the significance of this? The person most likely:
A)does not produce sperm.
B)will have a normal level of sperm production.
C)will need oestrogen supplementation therapy.
D)may need testosterone supplementation therapy.
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Chapter 47: Nursing Care of Men With Reproductive System and
Breast Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man who is being treated for epididymitis stops taking his antibiotics. What is this man at risk of developing?
A)Testicular torsion
B)Orchitis
C)Priapism
D)Varicocele
Q2) A man with type I diabetes mellitus and coronary artery disease is able to achieve an erection but cannot maintain it. What could be done to assist this man?
A)Provide information about the use of vardenafil hydrochloride (Levitra).
B)Consider the possibility of testosterone injections.
C)Suggest the use of an O-ring.
D)Discuss penile implant surgery.
Q3) A man with a swollen scrotum is diagnosed with fluid within the scrotal sac. For which health problem should the nurse prepare teaching for this person?
A)Hydrocele
B)Epididymitis
C)Phimosis
D)Spermatocele
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Chapter 48: Nursing Care of Women With Reproductive
System and Breast Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman complains about increasing premenstrual symptoms over the past few years and thinks, 'something must be wrong.' What is this woman experiencing?
A)Dysmenorrhoea
B)Menorrhagia
C)Normal pattern of premenstrual syndrome
D)Early menopausal symptoms
Q2) A woman who was just diagnosed with cervical cancer does not want to have surgery. What is an alternative treatment for this woman?
A)Chemotherapy
B)Vitamin therapy
C)Testosterone therapy
D)External radiotherapy
Q3) A woman is diagnosed with chocolate cysts. What should the nurse explain as being the cause of these cysts?
A)Old blood
B)Changes in melanocyte functioning
C)Hormone imbalance
D)Accumulation of pus
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Chapter 49: Nursing Care of People With Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is concerned about a 'cauliflower-shaped lesion' that appeared around his anal region. The nurse suspects this man is experiencing which type of genital wart?
A)Condyloma acuminata.
B)Papular wart.
C)Keratotic wart.
D)Flat wart.
Q2) A woman is seen for a recurrence of a vaginal infection. What should the nurse instruct the woman about?
A)Saving some of the prescribed medication to use again if needed.
B)Personal hygiene.
C)The need to wear nylon underwear.
D)Avoiding sexual contact until the infection heals.
Q3) A person who was just diagnosed with syphilis is allergic to penicillin. Which other medications can be used to treat the syphilis for this person? Select all that apply.
A)Doxycycline.
B)Erythromycin.
C)Minocycline .
D)Tetracycline.
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Chapter 50: Mental Healthcare in the Australian Context
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Q1) What is/are the most prevalent mental health disorders experienced by Australians?
A)Psychosis
B)Depression and anxiety
C)Bipolar affective disorder
D)Hallucinations
Q2) Who is most likely to be violent in Australian society? People:
A)who abuse alcohol or prescription drugs.
B)with a mental illness.
C)diagnosed with schizophrenia.
D)experiencing hallucinations.
Q3) When do the majority of mental illnesses begin?
A)During early childhood
B)In old age
C)Between the ages of 15 to 25 years
D)From about 40 years of age
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Chapter 51: Community Care
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Q1) What is the focus of community nursing care for the person in acute and post-acute care?
A)Quality of life
B)Restoration of health and functional wellbeing
C)Education for a healthy lifestyle, and illness and injury prevention
D)Management of acute symptoms
Q2) Which group in Australia has the highest rates of overweight and obesity?
A)Middle-class Australian males
B)Rural Australians
C)Lower socioeconomic groups ?D)Upper socioeconomic groups
Q3) Prevalence of which condition continues to increase in the Australian community?
A)Hypotension
B)Stomach cancer
C)Diabetes
D)Hypothyroidism
Q4) Tobacco smoking would be considered which type of social determinant?
A)Distal determinant
B)Intermediate determinant
C)Proximal determinant
D)Not considered a determinant
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Nursing Care of Clients in Regional, Rural and Remote Areas of Australia
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true? Compared to the urban population, people who live in rural and remote Australia have:
A)worse morbidity and worse mortality.
B)better morbidity and better mortality.
C)worse morbidity and better mortality.
D)better morbidity and worse mortality.
Q2) What is the risk level for alcohol consumption for people living in rural and remote areas?
A)Very low risk
B)Low risk
C)Moderate risk
D)High risk
Q3) What is correct about the remote and rural healthcare workforce?
A)Rural nurses have to often adopt a greater role in local health services.
B)The number of general practitioners has increased in recent years.
C)Increasing numbers of young nurses are working in rural areas.
D)The medical workforce has decreased in numbers in metropolitan areas.
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Page 54