Patient Care Techniques
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Patient Care Techniques is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational skills and knowledge necessary for supporting patients in a variety of healthcare settings. The curriculum covers essential topics such as basic patient assessment, hygiene and grooming assistance, vital signs monitoring, mobility and transfer techniques, infection control, and effective communication with patients and healthcare teams. Practical training is emphasized through hands-on activities and simulations, preparing students to provide compassionate and competent care while adhering to ethical and safety standards. This course is ideal for those aspiring to roles such as nursing assistants, medical aides, or other patient care positions within hospitals, long-term care facilities, and home health environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 7th Edition by Anne
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44 Chapters
1516 Verified Questions
1516 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1753
Page 2
Griffin Perry
Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Nursing Practice
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34912
Sample Questions
Q1) To use evidence-based practice appropriately,you need to collect the most relevant and best evidence and critically appraise the evidence you gather.This process also includes: (Select all that apply.)
A) Asking a clinical question
B) Applying the evidence
C) Evaluating the practice decision
D) Communicating your results
E) None of above
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q2) The nurse wants to determine the effects of cardiac rehabilitation program attendance on the level of postmyocardial depression for individuals who have had a myocardial infarction.The type of study that would best capture this information would be:
A) A randomized controlled trial
B) A qualitative study
C) A case control study
D) A descriptive study
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________________is a federal law intended to protect patients from being transferred against their wishes to another hospital.
Answer: Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA)
In the ED,when a patient is transferred from one institution to another,the nurse completes the transfer in compliance with the EMTALA (CMS,2003).EMTALA is a federal law intended to protect patients from being transferred against their wishes; it thus defines how an appropriate facility-to-facility transfer is accomplished.
Q2) Separation anxiety is most common in:
A) School-age children
B) Preschoolers
C) Middle infancy
D) Newborns
Answer: C
Q3) The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is _______________.
Answer: communication
The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is communication.The communication problem is minimized when an organization has a discharge coordinator or case manager responsible for discharge planning
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4
Chapter 3: Communication
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34914
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells the nurse,"I think that I must be really sick.All of these tests are being done." The nurse uses the specific communication technique of reflection by saying:
A) "I sense that you are worried."
B) "I think that we should talk about this more."
C) "You think that you must be very sick because of all the tests."
D) "I've noticed that this is an underlying issue whenever we talk."
Answer: C
Q2) The patient is an elderly male who had hip surgery 3 days earlier.He states that his hip hurts,but he does not like how the medicine makes him feel.He believes that he can tolerate the pain better than he can tolerate the medication.The best response from the nurse should be:
A) Explain the need for the pain medication using a slower rate of speech
B) Explain the need for the pain medication using a simpler vocabulary
C) Explain the need for the pain medication, but ask the patient if he would like the doctor called and the medication changed
D) Explain in a loud manner the need for the pain medication
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Reporting and Recording
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's private health information is legally protected by the ________________.
Q2) Current Joint Commission standards require that ______ patients who are admitted to a health care institution have an assessment of physical,psychosocial,environmental,self-care,patient education,and discharge planning needs.
Q3) The abbreviation for every day (___ )is no longer used.
Q4) The patient has been transferred to the nursing home from the acute care hospital.A report was called from the hospital and was received by the RN in charge of the nursing home unit.Upon arrival,the patient is assessed using:
A) The Long-Term Care Facility Resident Assessment Instrument
B) The case management model
C) Collaborative pathways
D) The charting by exception model
Q5) ___________________ begins at admission and becomes a more prominent part of care as the patient gets closer to discharge.
Q6) ________________ measurements for patients on a unit serve as a guide for determining staffing needs.
Q7) More than ________ % of sentinel events are caused by communication problems.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Vital Signs
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To conduct an assessment of a possible pulse deficit:
A) A nurse measures the pulse after the patient exercises
B) Two nurses check the same pulse on opposite sides of the body
C) Two nurses assess the apical and radial pulses and determine the difference
D) The current pulse is compared with previous pulse measurements for differences
Q2) When evaluating the radial pulse measurement technique of the nursing assistant,the nurse identifies appropriate technique when the assistant:
A) Has the patient's arm elevated
B) Positions the patient supine or sitting
C) Applies significant pressure to the pulse site
D) Counts the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplies by 4
Q3) The site used to auscultate blood pressure is the:
A) Radial
B) Ulnar
C) Brachial
D) Temporal
Q4) When heat loss mechanisms are unable to keep pace with heat production,____________ is the result.
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7
Chapter 6: Health Assessment
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is 3 days post abdominal surgery.The nurse utilizes her stethoscope to listen for bowel sounds.This assessment technique is known as
Q2) How should the nurse document an exaggeration of the posterior curvature of the thoracic spine found during the assessment of a 90-year-old patient?
A) Lordosis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Kyphosis
Q3) When performing an assessment of the cardiovascular system,the nurse evaluates the skin and nails of the patient.Inadequate tissue perfusion is known as
Q4) The nurse is preparing to examine a comatose patient on a ventilator.Before beginning the procedures,she: (Select all that apply.)
A) Speaks to the patient to minimize anxiety
B) Drapes the body parts not being examined
C) Encourages the patient to ask questions
D) Uses medical terms to let the patient know that she is professional
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Chapter 7: Medical Asepsis
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34918
Sample Questions
Q1) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the patient on isolation precautions is to:
A) Double-bag all disposable items and linens
B) Put another gown over the one worn if it has become wet
C) Place specimen containers in plastic bags for transport
D) Hand items to be reused directly to a nurse standing outside the room
Q2) If hands are not visibly soiled,the nurse may use an alcohol-based hand rub in which of the following situations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Before having direct contact with patients
B) After contact with a patient's intact skin
C) After contact with body fluids or excretions
D) After removing gloves
E) None of above
Q3) Which of the following measures is appropriate when a nurse is washing her/his hands?
A) Use very hot water.
B) Leave rings and watches in place.
C) Lather for at least 10 to 15 seconds.
D) Keep the fingers and hands up and the elbows down.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Sterile Technique
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34919
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient that the nurse believes may be at risk for a latex allergy is the individual with:
A) Food allergies
B) Diabetes
C) Arthritis
D) Hypertension
Q2) The patient has just had a tracheostomy tube placed and is expectorating copious amounts of sputum that he coughs forcefully from his tracheostomy tube.The patient also is suspected of having methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)in his sputum.The nurse is preparing to suction the patient to clear his airway.Which of the following will the nurse need to wear if following Standard Precautions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Mask
B) Goggles
C) Gown
D) Sterile gloves
E) None of above
Q3) _____________ is one practice designed to make and maintain objects and areas free from pathogenic microorganisms.
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Chapter 9: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To position a patient with hemiplegia in Fowler's position,the nurse should:
A) Elevate the head of the bed 15 to 30 degrees
B) Place patient in the prone position
C) Position a spastic hand with the fingers extended
D) Position the patient's head with slight hyperextension of the neck
Q2) The nurse realizes that her patient needs to improve his or her mobility as quickly as possible.This is because the nurse realizes that mobilization: (Select all that apply.)
A) Improves joint motion
B) Decreases circulation
C) Increases social activity
D) Enhances mental stimulation
Q3) The patient is immobile and has been repositioned in bed using a drawsheet.When finished,the patient is in a supported Fowler's position with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees.Also important for positioning this patient is to:
A) Support his calves with pillows
B) Place a large pillow behind his head to prevent extension
C) Place a pillow behind his upper back
D) Avoid using pillows if patient does not have use of hands and arms.
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11
Chapter 10: Exercise and Ambulation
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34921
Sample Questions
Q1) Antiembolic stockings (TEDs)are ordered for the patient on bed rest after surgery.The nurse explains to the patient that the primary purpose for the elastic stockings is to:
A) Keep the skin warm and dry
B) Prevent abnormal joint flexion
C) Apply external pressure
D) Prevent bleeding
Q2) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.
Q3) Static exercises that involve tightening or tensing of muscles without moving a body part are known as ______________.
Q4) While ambulating,the patient becomes light-headed and starts to fall.The nurse should first:
A) Call for help
B) Try to reach for a chair
C) Ease the patient down to the floor
D) Push the patient back toward the bed
Q5) The patient is performing ROM exercises independently.These are known as ________________ exercises.
Q6) ____________ refers to an ability to move about freely.
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Chapter 11: Orthopedic Measures
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34922
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is in traction and at risk for fat embolism syndrome.Signs and symptoms of fat embolism include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chest pain
B) Tachypnea
C) Tachycardia
D) Apprehension
E) None of above
Q2) For a client in traction who has skeletal pins,a nurse should:
A) Use povidone-iodine to cleanse the pin site
B) Apply antiseptic ointment and cover with a split dressing
C) Use hydrogen peroxide as a rinse before a dressing is applied
D) Do both pin sites at the same time, with the same swab and solution
Q3) A _______________ is an externally applied structure that holds musculoskeletal tissues in a specific position to permit healing of injuries or fractures or to align malpositioned tissues.
Q4) _________________ may occur when pressure within a casted extremity increases.
Q5) After application of the cast,the nurse ensures that plaster crumbs are removed and rough edges are _________ to prevent skin breakdown.
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Chapter 12: Support Surfaces and Special Beds
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34923
Sample Questions
Q1) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.
Q2) When teaching about the use of the Rotokinetic bed,the nurse informs the patient that:
A) The bed will be stopped in one position most of the time
B) The amount of rotation will be greater in the beginning
C) The patient may experience a sensation of falling or light-headedness
D) The bed is moved manually all of the time and will rotate head over feet
Q3) The _______________ bed rotates and improves skeletal alignment with a constant side-to-side rotation up to 90 degrees.
Q4) When working with a patient who is being placed on an air mattress overlay,a nurse should:
A) Apply the preinflated overlay over the standard mattress
B) Bring any plastic strips or flaps around the corners of the bed mattress
C) Administer an analgesic after the patient is moved onto the mattress
D) Keep clamps or pins attached to the sheets to keep them in place over the mattress
Q5) A full or double-wide_____________ can accommodate a patient up to 1000 lb.
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Chapter 13: Safety
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34924
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is well known to the hospital unit from previous admissions and is prone to wandering at night.To protect the patient when needed,the physician writes an order for "belt restraint PRN." The nurse should:
A) Put a belt restraint on the patient as needed
B) Have the patient sign an "informed consent" form
C) Inform the physician that "PRN" restraint orders are not acceptable
D) Obtain a signed informed consent from a family member
Q2) When working with a patient who has a new seizure disorder,the nurse is alerted to the need for further instruction when the patient tells the nurse: (Select all that apply.)
A) "I will avoid over-the-counter medications that contain alcohol."
B) "I have the medications that I take listed on this card that I carry with me."
C) "I will be keeping a regular supply of my medication at home and at work."
D) "I will visit the physician's right after I return home from my next trucking job."
Q3) It is important for nurses to understand what patients perceive as ___________ so that patients will become partners in programs to prevent them.
Q4) __________ are the most common type of inpatient accident.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Disaster Preparedness
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34925
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is brought into the emergency department as part of an MCI.The patient has white powder on his clothes,and it is suspected that the patient has been exposed to anthrax.The nurse should:
A) Cut off patient's clothing and place it in a plastic bag
B) Have patient remove his sweater by pulling it over his head
C) Avoid using oxygen that could decrease the patient's oxygen drive
D) Provide patient with an antitoxin
Q2) Hurricane Zee has caused severe flooding and loss of power throughout the state.The local community has a stockpile of supplies that will help it get through the next 72 hours.Beyond this,once local and Federal authorities confirm the need,a "push package" of supplies will be issued within 12 hours of the confirmation.These supplies will come from the _________________.
Q3) At which level of the color coding developed by the Department of Homeland Security are citizens encouraged to develop and share family emergency plans and create emergency supply kits?
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) Green
D) Orange
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Pain Assessment and Basic Comfort Measures
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34926
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is admitted with chronic pain.She states that nothing takes the pain away totally,but that "Dilaudid does the best." The fact that the patient calls the medication by name should alert the nurse to:
A) Suspect that the patient is drug seeking
B) Expect that the patient may need smaller doses than normal
C) Assess the patient's acceptable level of comfort
D) Accept the fact that nothing will help this patient's pain
Q2) The patient is in the hospital and has gone for major abdominal surgery.When the patient returns from the recovery room,the nurse expects that he most likely will be receiving pain medication:
A) By mouth
B) Intramuscularly
C) Via epidural route
D) Intravenously
Q3) Some patients exhibit drug-seeking behaviors when in fact they are seeking pain relief.This is termed _________________.
Q4) Massaging upward and outward from the vertebral column and back again is known as __________________.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Palliative Care
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34927
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been diagnosed with terminal cancer of the liver and is receiving chemotherapy on a medical unit.In an in-depth conversation with the nurse,the patient states,"I wonder why this happened to me." According to Kübler-Ross,the nurse identifies that this stage is associated with:
A) Anxiety
B) Denial
C) Confrontation
D) Depression
Q2) A person experiences an actual _________ when an object or a person can no longer be felt,heard,or experienced.
Q3) Hospice care can be provided in which of the following settings? (Select all that apply.)
A) At home
B) In freestanding hospice facilities
C) In extended care facilities
D) In acute care facilities
E) None of above
Q4) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.
Q5) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.
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Chapter 17: Personal Hygiene and Bedmaking
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34928
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is about to provide oral hygiene for an unconscious patient.To do so,she places the patient in which position?
A) Fowler's
B) Semi-Fowler's
C) Sims'
D) Supine
Q2) The development of diabetic foot ulcers is dependent on which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Ischemia
C) A pivotal event
D) Pain
Q3) A nurse recognizes that a shampoo may be contraindicated for a bed-bound patient with:
A) Heart disease
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) A neck injury
D) A bleeding disorder
Q4) ________________ is defined as excessive growth of body and facial hair.
Q5) The act of chewing is also known as ________________.
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Chapter 18: Pressure Ulcer Care
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34929
Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that contribute to the development of pressure ulcers include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Friction and shear
B) Immobility
C) Poor nutrition
D) Moisture and ammonia
E) None of above
Q2) Pressure ulcers can occur: (Select all that apply.)
A) From any position that causes soft tissue compression
B) Because of lack of blood flow (ischemia)
C) If pressure lasts longer than 90 minutes
D) In as little as 90 minutes
Q3) Pressure ulcers can occur in which area of the body? (Select all that apply.)
A) Coccyx
B) Nares
C) Ears
D) Genitalia
E) None of above
Q4) Any tension that stretches the skin during tuning or moving in bed is known as
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Chapter 19: Care of Eye and Ear Prostheses
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34930
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident.The patient is unresponsive.The nurse is concerned about whether or not the patient wears contact lenses because contact lenses that are not removed can cause
Q2) In providing eye care for the comatose patient,the nurse should:
A) Place the patient in a prone position for easier access
B) Use a different corner of the washcloth for each eye
C) Wipe each eye from outer to inner canthus
D) Use a sterile medicine cup to instill lubricant
Q3) A _________________ receives signals from a separate external processor and transmits theme electrically to the auditory nerve.
Q4) ____________ is the complete surgical removal of the eyeball.
Q5) When caring for the patient with an artificial eye,the nurse realizes that:
A) The prostheses must be cleansed daily
B) Implants are always visible
C) Modern implants move as the companion eye moves
D) The prosthesis always is made of glass
Q6) The substance found in the ear canal that has an antibacterial effect and maintains an acid pH is called ______________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34931
Sample Questions
Q1) The length of time during which the medication is present in a concentration great enough to produce a therapeutic effect is known as that drug's _______________.
Q2) A medication distribution system that utilizes individual patient drawers and whereby medication is packaged according to what the patient would receive at one time is known as the ____________ system.
Q3) A potentially fatal adverse drug event (ADE)is known as ___________________.
Q4) A spoken order for a medication or treatment delivered by a prescriber directly to a nurse on a face-to-face basis is known as a _____________.
Q5) The patient has a diagnosis of chronic back pain that he has been treating at home for the past 2 years with oral morphine sulfate (MS Contin).Upon admission to the hospital,the patient is medicated with morphine sulfate for his back pain,but the patient states that he has received no relief.The nurse notifies the physician,realizing that the reason for the lack of relief may be:
A) A side effect of the morphine
B) A result of drug dependence
C) An idiosyncratic response to the morphine
D) A result of medication tolerance
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Oral and Topical Medications
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34932
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is prescribed an ophthalmic medication to be administered via intraocular disk.The nurse knows that the disk resembles a contact lens and is:
A) Placed in the conjunctival sac
B) Placed on the cornea
C) Remains in place for 6 to 8 hours
D) Replaced daily
Q2) Medication that is placed under the tongue and is allowed to dissolve is known as ____________ medication.
Q3) The patient is to receive three different medications via nasogastric tube.What is the total amount of water the nurse should prepare to administer?
A) 5 mL of water
B) 15 mL of water
C) 30 mL of water
D) 80 mL of water
Q4) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.
Q5) The easiest and most desirable way to administer medications if via the _________ route.
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Chapter 22: Parenteral Medications
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which part of the syringe must be kept sterile at all times? (Select all that apply.)
A) The needle hub
B) The needle shaft
C) The syringe outer barrel
D) The needle bevel
Q2) An appropriate maximum amount of medication that could be given intramuscularly to a normal,well-developed adult is:
A) 2 mL
B) 3 mL
C) 5 mL
D) 8 mL
Q3) The patient is to receive low-molecular-weight heparin by injection.Where on the patient's anatomy should the nurse prepare to inject this medication?
A) Scapular region
B) Vastus lateralis
C) Posterior gluteal
D) Abdomen
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24
Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ is a deficiency of arterial blood oxygen.
Q2) _______________ helps the patient in deep breathing following abdominal or thoracic surgery to help reduce the incidence of postoperative pulmonary atelectasis.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator.She suddenly hears the low-pressure alarm sound.What should the nurse do?
A) Suction the patient
B) Sedate the patient to prevent coughing
C) Change the position of the patient
D) Check the ventilator circuit
Q4) The ________,also called a Briggs adaptor,connects an oxygen source to an artificial airway such as an endotracheal tube.
Q5) The patient is admitted with a diagnosis of COPD,and the physician orders the patient to be placed on continuous noninvasive ventilation (NIV).The nurse realizes that the patient should:
A) Keep the mask on his face as tightly as possible
B) Have arterial blood gas (ABGs) done at least every 6 hours
C) Have a mask without quick-release straps
D) Have increased blood pressure because of anxiety
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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The system that lines the internal lumen of the tracheobronchial tree and consists of a thin layer of mucus that constantly is propelled toward the larynx by cilia is called the
Q2) An Acapella CPT device has been shown to be of greatest benefit to patients experiencing:
A) Empyema
B) Bronchopleural fistula
C) Cystic fibrosis (CF)
D) Pleural effusion
Q3) What is the appropriate procedure when the nurse is performing percussion?
A) Perform percussion for 3 to 5 minutes for each position
B) Use the back and shoulders to create pressure for the cupping
C) Perform clapping primarily using motion from the shoulders
D) Hold the hand loosely over the chest wall, with the fingers and the thumb apart.
Q4) ________________ is positioning the patient so that the position of the lung segment to be drained allows gravity to have its greatest effect.
Q5) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.
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Chapter 25: Airway Management
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34936
Sample Questions
Q1) Suctioning is discontinued if the patient experiences: A) Coughing
B) A decrease in pulse from 84 beats per minute to 60 beats per minute
C) An increase in pulse from 84 beats per minute to 94 beats per minute
D) A reduction in oxygen saturation from 97% to 94%
Q2) When suctioning a ventilated patient with a closed (in-line)system for suctioning of an ET or tracheostomy tube,the nurse knows that:
A) No complications are associated with its use
B) This system has a greater risk for infection than do open systems
C) The artificial airway does not have to be disconnected
D) Suctioning with an in-line system interrupts oxygenation
Q3) The nurse is providing nasotracheal suction for a patient.Which of the following is proper technique?
A) Insert the catheter during exhalation
B) Insert the catheter while the patient is swallowing
C) Apply suction only when pulling the catheter out
D) Remove the catheter immediately and quickly if patient coughs
Q4) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic
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Chapter 26: Closed Chest Drainage
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34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34937
Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________ is a collapse of the lung caused by an accumulation of blood and fluid in the pleural cavity between the chest wall and the lung,usually as a result of trauma.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a chest tube.Attached to the top of the patient's bed are two shodded hemostats.In which situations would these be used? (Select all that apply.)
A) To assess an air leak
B) To quickly empty or change disposable systems
C) To quickly seal off the lungs if the system becomes disconnected
D) To assess whether the patient is ready to have the chest tube removed
Q3) The nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube connected to wall suction.To keep the tube patent,the nurse should implement which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Routinely "milk" the drainage tubing
B) Avoid dependent loops of the drainage tubing
C) Lift and clear the tube every 15 minutes
D) Coil the drainage tubing to prevent dependent loops
Q4) A chest tube placed just below the sternum to prevent the accumulation of blood or fluid around the heart is called a ________________ chest tube.
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Chapter 27: Emergency Measures for Life Support
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Q1) The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unresponsive patient is
Q2) A user-friendly device that provides an automated analysis of the heart's rhythm and recommendation for electrical shock is known as an _________________.
Q3) A semicircular,minimally flexible,curved piece of hard plastic that is inserted into the mouth so that it extends from just outside the lips to the pharynx is known as an
Q4) During a "code" situation,chest compressions should be interrupted for which of the following situations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ventilation
B) Pulse checks
C) Intubation
D) Defibrillation
E) None of above
Q5) _______________ is the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide into and out of cells and tissues.
Q6) Many cardiac arrests are caused by irregular heart rhythms known as ________________.
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Chapter 28: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy
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43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who will be on long-term antibiotic therapy.The patient has had numerous IVs in the past,but since the upcoming therapy will be long-term,the nurse suggests that a _________________ be inserted.
Q2) A nurse needs to specifically prevent air emboli that may result from IV therapy.What should the nurse make sure to do to prevent air emboli?
A) Use a needleless system
B) Prime the tubing completely
C) Check for medication compatibility
D) Select a larger-gauge needle or catheter
Q3) The patient is on daily weights and is receiving intravenous therapy.The nurse notices that the patient has gained 2 kg since the previous morning.What else would the nurse expect to observe? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dry skin and mucous membranes
B) Distended neck veins
C) Tenting of the skin
D) Crackles or rhonchi in the lungs
Q4) An IV catheter attached to an injection cap to maintain a closed system is known as an ________________.
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Blood Transfusions
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Symptoms that indicate an adverse reaction to blood products include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Fever
B) Skin rash
C) Hypotension
D) Cardiac arrest
E) None of above
Q2) The patient has been tested and found to have blood type O.This means that which antigen is present on the surface of the red blood cells?
A) The type A antigen is present
B) The type B antigen is present
C) Neither type A nor type B antigens are present
D) Both type A and type B antigens are present
Q3) A transfusion in which the donor is the patient is known as an ______________ transfusion or autotransfusion.
Q4) Under the ABO system,the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."
Q5) The average adult has about _______ liters of blood.
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Chapter 30: Oral Nutrition
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32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an appropriate technique for the nurse to use to prevent aspiration when assisting a patient with meals?
A) Keep the patient's head back and straight
B) Offer thin-consistency foods
C) Provide large amounts of fluids
D) Have the patient sit up for 30 minutes after eating
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is believed to be suffering from malnutrition.The nurse calculates that the patient's body mass index (BMI)is 16.4 kg/m².What does this indicate about the patient's weight?
A) The patient is underweight
B) The patient's weight is normal
C) The patient is overweight
D) The patient is obese (class 1)
Q3) The nurse is assessing the patient for nutritional status.Which laboratory value may indicate a compromised protein status?
A) Serum albumin level of 4.0 g/dL
B) Prealbumin level of 12 g/dL
C) Total lymphocyte count of 1600 cells/mm3
D) Prealbumin level of 35 g/dL
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Enteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the patients listed below,which would be a candidate for nasoenteric feeding tube placement?
A) A post-motor-vehicle-accident victim with a broken nose and jaw
B) A patient with a bleeding ulcer and possible esophageal varices
C) An elderly patient with a diagnosis of failure to thrive and an inability to chew
D) A patient with an esophageal tumor
Q2) Nasoenteric tubes,once placed into the small bowel,are thought to reduce the risk for ___________________.
Q3) The nurse is checking the residual volume on a patient who is getting intermittent tube feedings via his NG tube.Which of the following observations may indicate that the patient has started to bleed again?
A) Obtains brown aspirate
B) Notices that the abdomen is distended
C) Obtains red aspirate
D) Notices severe respiratory distress
Q4) A tube passed through the nose or mouth with the end terminating in the stomach or the small bowel,and used for feeding the patient for short periods of time is known as a _________________.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN).The nurse realizes that PN is associated with: (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased mortality
B) Bloodstream infection
C) Pneumothorax
D) Decreased length of stay
Q2) The nurse has been caring for a patient who has had a central venous catheter in place.The patient complains of sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing.The nurse notices the absence of breath sounds in the lower right base.The nurse notifies the physician immediately,suspecting which of the following conditions?
A) Exit site infection
B) Catheter-related sepsis
C) Pneumothorax
D) Hyperglycemia
Q3) The essential fatty acid that cannot be made from other fats in human metabolism and therefore must be supplied is known as ______________.
Q4) A patient with linoleic acid deficiency is _______________ and thus at risk for infection.
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Urinary Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ______________ has a separate lumen used to inflate a balloon so the catheter remains in the bladder for short- or long-term use.
Q2) During which time of the peritoneal dialysis cycle do excess fluid and waste products cross over the peritoneal membrane?
A) Inflow
B) Dwell
C) Drain
D) Hemodilution
Q3) Nonmedical use of indwelling catheters in the elderly may result in longer hospital stays and greater risk for death resulting from development of UTI and entrance of bacteria into the bloodstream known as ______________.
Q4) During an assessment,what should the nurse expect the average daily urinary output for the adult patient to be?
A) 500 to 1000 mL
B) 750 to 1500 mL
C) 1000 to 2400 mL
D) 2000 to 3000 mL
Q5) _________________ is the volume of urine in the bladder after a normal voiding.
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Chapter 34: Bowel Elimination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is being prepped for surgery and has an order for "enemas until clear." The nurse realizes that she will be giving a maximum of how many enemas?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q2) The patient has been found to have a severe fecal impaction.What must the nurse do to address this problem?
A) Administer laxatives
B) Provide a high-fiber diet
C) Perform a digital removal
D) Administer an enema
Q3) An ___________ is the instillation of a solution into the rectum and sigmoid colon to promote defecation by stimulating peristalsis.
Q4) Infrequent bowel movements (less than every three days),difficulty in evacuating feces,inability to defecate,and hard feces are signs of ________________.
Q5) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.
Q6) _____________ is the absolute inability to pass stool.
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Chapter 35: Ostomy Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has an ostomy that is putting out watery effluent.What is the most likely location for the ostomy?
A) The descending colon
B) The sigmoid colon
C) The ileal portion of the small intestine
D) The transverse colon
Q2) Immediately after a fecal surgical diversion,it is necessary to:
A) Place a pouch over the newly created stoma
B) Place a dressing over the stoma
C) Wait several days before placing a pouch
D) Prepare several pouches in advance
Q3) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.
Q4) What is an appropriate procedure for the nurse to implement when pouching a colostomy or ileostomy?
A) Leave an intact skin barrier in place for 3 to 7 days
B) Use soap and water to cleanse the peristomal skin
C) Empty the pouch when it is two-thirds full
D) Use tape to secure pouches that have minor leaks
Q5) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.
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Chapter 36: Preoperativepostoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse determines that a patient is prepared for surgery if that patient:
A) Ate a piece of toast an hour before surgery
B) Voided before receiving the preoperative medication
C) Was unable to demonstrate the postoperative exercises
D) Had pulse and blood pressure measurements that were slightly above the expected readings
Q2) It has been reported that _____% of routine surgical patients develop deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
A) 5 to 10
B) 15 to 40
C) 45 to 60
D) 75 to 80
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Informed consent is required by law to protect the surgeon in case of adverse outcome
B) Only the patient can sign a surgical consent
C) The nurse's legal responsibility is to ensure that the patient understands the information presented
D) The surgeon should give the patient information about the surgery
Q4) The first phase of postoperative care takes place during the ____________period.
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Chapter 37: Intraoperative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) If any question arises about the sterility of an item,the item is ___________.
Q2) The surgeon is about to finish surgery and requests a sponge count.Who would normally perform this task? (Select all that apply.)
A) Scrub nurse
B) Registered nurse first assistant
C) Circulating nurse
D) Certified registered nurse anesthetist
Q3) The _______________ has been the traditional method for surgical asepsis.
Q4) Which of the following are principles of sterile procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gowns are sterile from the chest and shoulder to table level
B) Sterile persons must keep hands in view and above the waist and below the neck
C) Sterile persons must fold arms across chest with hands tucked into axillary region
D) Unscrubbed persons must stay at least 6 inches away from the sterile field
Q5) The _____________________ is a "sterile" team member and provides the surgeon with instruments and supplies,disposes of soiled sponges,and accounts for sponges,sharps,and instruments on the surgical field.
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Chapter 38: Wound Care and Irrigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________________is a mechanical wound care treatment that uses controlled negative pressure to assist and accelerate wound healing.The most common commercial brand is called Wound (V.A.C.).
Q2) Wounds that have been approved for treatment using NPWT include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Pressure ulcers
B) Diabetic ulcers
C) Traumatic wounds
D) Venous stasis ulcers
E) None of above
Q3) In a full-thickness wound,the phases include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hemostasis
B) Inflammation
C) Proliferation
D) Maturation
E) None of above
Q4) The Jackson-Pratt (JP)drain relies on the presence of a vacuum to withdraw drainage and is considered a __________ drainage system.
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Chapter 39: Dressings,bandages,and Binders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to change the negative-pressure dressing.What is the recommended procedure for removing the old dressing?
A) Remove the dressing while it is dry to enhance debridement
B) Instill normal saline into the tubing to soak underneath the dressing
C) Instill alcohol into the tubing to soak underneath the dressing
D) Inject bupivacaine through the dressing into the sponge
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has a negative-pressure dressing.The nurse realizes that initially the dressing should be:
A) Changed every shift
B) Changed daily
C) Changed every 8 hours
D) Intact for 22 of 24 hours
Q3) What should the nurse do for a patient who is having a wet-to-dry dressing applied?
A) Moisten the old inner dressing to remove it
B) Pack the gauze in flat pieces into the wound
C) Wet the new inner dressing with a cytotoxic solution
D) Apply a secondary dressing over the inner wet packing
Q4) A _________ bandage is a temporary treatment to control excessive bleeding.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Warm and Cold Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient is to receive a cold application for a sprain,he or she should have:
A) A prolonged application time
B) The body part carefully aligned
C) A colder temperature applied
D) Extra packing under the cooling device
Q2) The use of cryotherapy has been found to be beneficial in which of the following conditions? (Select all that apply.)
A) During surgical procedures
B) Following cardiac arrest
C) Following colorectal surgery
D) Following head trauma
Q3) Which of the following conditions are best treated with cold therapy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Localized inflammatory responses
B) Hemorrhage
C) Muscle spasm
D) Pain
E) None of above
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42
Chapter 41: Home Care Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a cognitive deficit becomes agitated and upset about not being able to remember daily activities.How should the nurse respond to this agitation?
A) Tell the patient not to worry about it
B) Provide an easy-to-follow calendar and reinforce the information
C) Explain that becoming upset is not going to help the situation
D) Remind the patient that now is the time to rest and relax
Q2) When communicating with a patient with a cognitive deficit,what is the best way for the nurse to respond?
A) "You managed all of your medications very well today."
B) "Your family should really take over the cooking. It's too hard for you to do."
C) "I don't see how you will be able to shop for yourself anymore. Someone will have to do it for you."
D) "This schedule will be too difficult for you to remember. I better write it all down."
Q3) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning,with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.
Q4) ___________ is the concurrent prescribing of multiple medications.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Home Care Teaching
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an appropriate technique to use when teaching an older patient about self-medication in the home?
A) Speak very loudly
B) Teach the family separately
C) Provide frequent pauses
D) Provide fewer but longer teaching sessions
Q2) When teaching the patient and family about CIC,why is it important for the nurse to teach about the signs and symptoms of complications?
A) Although rare, complications are always severe
B) It is part of the process; complications almost never occur
C) Urinary complications are common with CIC
D) The only major complication is infection
Q3) Which of the following are signs of hyperthermia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dry, warm, flushed skin
B) Chills and piloerection
C) Uncontrolled shivering
D) Loss of memory
Q4) Temperatures in the older adult are different from those in the younger adult.The mean oral temperature for older adults often ranges from ____________.
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Chapter 43: Specimen Collection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse evaluates that an expected outcome for the analysis of gastric secretions is:
A) Inability of patient to discuss rationale for test
B) Negative occult blood
C) The presence of clumps or clots
D) The presence of brown, "coffee-ground" secretions
Q2) The patient has come to the emergency department complaining of coughing up bloody sputum.The patient has a 30-year history of smoking and has lost 15 pounds in the last month.What will the nurse expect the sputum specimen to be evaluated for?
A) Culture and sensitivity
B) AFB
C) Cytology
D) Chemical analysis
Q3) Which is an appropriate site for the nurse to select for a venipuncture?
A) Right arm of a patient near the IV site
B) Right arm of a patient with a left-sided cerebral vascular accident (CVA)
C) Left arm of a patient with a left arteriovenous (AV) shunt
D) Right arm of a patient with a right mastectomy
Q4) _______________ organisms grow in superficial wounds exposed to the air.
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Chapter 44: Diagnostic Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aspiration of peritoneal fluid from the abdomen is known as ____________.
Q2) Under which circumstances should a nurse contact the physician to postpone intravenous moderate sedation?
A) If the patient has been NPO for 1 hour.
B) If the patient has a history of substance abuse.
C) If the patient has no history of latex allergy.
D) If the patient has demonstrated an understanding of the procedure.
Q3) A _____________ involves the introduction of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal column.The purpose of the test is to measure pressure in the subarachnoid space; obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)for visualization and laboratory examination; and to inject anesthetic,diagnostic,or therapeutic agents.
Q4) A patient who is a candidate for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy has:
A) Been NPO for 8 hours.
B) Evident respiratory distress.
C) Active gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) Esophageal diverticulum.
Q5) ____________ occurs when the patient's level of consciousness will depresses past the point where a patent airway can be maintained.
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