Patient Care Techniques for Medical Assistants
Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides comprehensive instruction on essential patient care techniques required for medical assistants in various healthcare settings. Students will learn fundamental skills such as taking vital signs, assisting with patient hygiene and mobility, preparing patients for examination or procedures, administering basic first aid, and providing emotional support. Emphasis is placed on patient safety, effective communication, infection control, and cultural sensitivity. Through hands-on practice and simulation, learners will develop the confidence and competence needed to deliver high-quality care and support to patients under the supervision of healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following assist in the collection of data for a health history except
A)a quiet, comfortable room.
B)showing interest in the patient.
C)showing concern for the patient.
D)calling the patient "honey."
Answer: D
Q2) What information is contained in the medical record?
A)Health history
B)Results of the physical examination
C)Laboratory reports
D)Progress notes
E)All of the above
Answer: E
Q3) What is an objective symptom?
A)A symptom that can be observed by another person
B)A symptom that precedes a disease
C)A symptom that is felt by the patient and cannot be observed by another
D)The symptom causing the patient the most trouble
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following used items is not an example of regulated medical waste?
A)Suture needle
B)Microbiologic collection device
C)Gauze saturated with blood
D)Urine testing strip
Answer: D
Q2) How often does OSHA require employers to review and update their Exposure Control Plan?
A)Every 6 months
B)Once each year
C)Every 2 years
D)Only when a new procedure is instituted
Answer: B
Q3) What term is used to describe a microorganism that does not produce disease?
A)Sterile
B)Aseptic
C)Nonpathogen
D)Pathogen
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The wrapper used to autoclave articles should
A)prevent contaminants from getting in during handling and storage.
B)be made of a substance that does not tear or puncture easily.
C)be made of a substance not affected by the sterilization process.
D)allow steam to penetrate it.
E)do all of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding an MSDS?
A)It provides information regarding hazardous chemicals.
B)It must be kept on file for each hazardous chemical stored in the workplace.
C)It must be readily available to employees.
D)It is available from the manufacturer of the hazardous chemical.
E)All of the above are true.
Answer: E
Q3) Something that is sterile is free of A)pathogens.
B)all living microorganisms.
C)all living microorganisms and spores.
D)nonpathogens.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vague sense of body discomfort,weakness,and fatigue that often marks the onset of a disease is known as
A)the blahs.
B)malaise.
C)crisis.
D)adventitious.
Q2) Where is the popliteal pulse located?
A)In front of the ear and just above eye level
B)In the middle of the groin
C)On the anterior side of the neck
D)In the back of the knee
Q3) You are measuring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume.How should you record this?
A)Dysrhythmia and regular
B)Bounding and strong
C)Regular and strong
D)Thready and regular
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Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason for weighing a prenatal patient is to
A)detect the presence of twins.
B)determine if the fetus is growing.
C)determine the due date.
D)ensure the placenta is developing normally.
Q2) The lithotomy position is used to examine the A)vagina.
B)abdomen.
C)sigmoid colon.
D)breasts.
Q3) Eye
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a distance visual acuity of 20/40 in the left eye.At what distance would a person with normal acuity be able to read this line?
A)20 feet
B)30 feet
C)40 feet
D)60 feet
Q2) When not in use,Ishihara color plates must be protected from A)high humidity.
B)light.
C)cold temperatures.
D)loud music.
Q3) Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique?
A)Making sure the medication bears the word ophthalmic
B)Asking the patient to look up before instilling drops
C)Instilling drops onto the center of the cornea
D)Asking the patient to close and roll the eye after the instillation
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8
Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following indicates that a cast is too tight or that an infection is developing except
A)itching.
B)chills or fever.
C)foul odor or drainage.
D)numbness or tingling of the fingers or toes.
E)fiberglass casts should not be signed.
Q2) Walkers are used primarily by _____ patients.
A)pediatric
B)prenatal
C)geriatric
D)psychiatric
Q3) After immersing a patient's foot in a hot soak,the medical assistant should
A)ask the patient how the temperature feels.
B)increase the temperature of the water.
C)add crushed ice.
D)instruct the patient to wiggle his or her toes.
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Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?
A)Prone
B)Supine
C)Lithotomy
D)Dorsal recumbent
Q2) What is the EDD of a patient whose LMP was September 5,2014?
A)12/12/15
B)6/2/15
C)6/12/15
D)12/2/15
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?
A)The FHT can first be detected between 2 and 4 weeks of gestation.
B)The fetal heart rate is displayed digitally on a screen.
C)Sound waves are used to detect the fetal pulse.
D)A coupling gel must be used to increase conductivity.
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Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first pediatric well-child visit is usually scheduled at A)3 to 5 days.
B)1 month.
C)2 months.
D)4 months.
Q2) Which of the following indicates the proper cuff size has been selected for a pediatric patient?
A)The cuff fits snugly on the child's arm.
B)The cuff is positioned at least 1 inch above the bend in the elbow.
C)The bladder of the cuff encircles 80% to 100% of the child's arm.
D)The bladder is centered over the antecubital space.
Q3) Which of the following is required by the NCVIA before an immunization is administered?
A)The parent must be provided with information on the benefits and risks of the immunization.
B)The parent must sign a consent form.
C)The child must be promised a sticker after the injection.
D)The expiration date of the vaccine must be checked three times.
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Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following bandage turns is used to bandage a part that varies in width?
A)Spiral turn
B)Figure-eight turn
C)Recurrent turn
D)Spiral reverse turn
Q2) Which of the following types of exudates contains pus?
A)Serous
B)Sanguineous
C)Serosanguineous
D)Purulent
Q3) Which of the following types of exudates contains both serum and blood?
A)Serous
B)Sanguineous
C)Serosanguineous
D)Purulent
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12
Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following needle lengths is used to administer a subcutaneous injection?
A)3/8 inch
B)5/8 inch
C)1 inch
D)1 1/2 inches
Q2) The inscription of a prescription consists of
A)directions to the pharmacist.
B)the symbol Rx.
C)information to be included on the medication label.
D)the name of the drug and the dose.
Q3) Which of the following methods of examination must be used when reading a tuberculin skin test?
A)Auscultation and palpation
B)Inspection and percussion
C)Inspection and palpation
D)Inspection only
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following artifacts appears as small,straight,spiked lines that are consistent in nature?
A)Muscle
B)Wandering baseline
C)Alternating current
D)Interrupted baseline
Q2) Peak flow measurements can be used for all of the following except to
A)monitor how well the patient's asthma is being controlled.
B)determine if a patient's medication needs to be changed.
C)determine the severity of an asthma attack.
D)determine if lung damage has occurred.
Q3) All of the following patients are likely candidates for spirometry except a patient
A)complaining of dyspnea.
B)with emphysema.
C)who has worked in the coal mines for 20 years.
D)with an upper respiratory infection.
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14
Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When should a testicular self-examination be performed?
A)In the morning
B)After taking a warm shower
C)After sexual intercourse
D)After vigorous exercise
Q2) What type of bowel preparation may be required before a sigmoidoscopy?
A)Not consuming any solid food the day before the procedure
B)Drinking only clear liquids the day before the procedure
C)Taking a laxative the evening before the examination
D)Performing cleansing enemas the day of the procedure
E)All of the above
Q3) All of the following are symptoms of prostate cancer except
A)difficulty in urinating.
B)painful urination.
C)weak urinary flow.
D)thick, yellow discharge from the penis.
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Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the recorded image obtained with ultrasonography?
A)Radiograph
B)Sonogram
C)Cardiogram
D)Audiogram
Q2) The purpose of an obstetric ultrasound is to
A)determine gestational age.
B)detect congenital abnormalities.
C)detect multiple pregnancies.
D)determine the position of the fetus in the uterus.
E)accomplish all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following instructions should be relayed to the patient regarding an upper GI radiographic examination?
A)Perform a cleansing enema on the morning of the examination.
B)Take a laxative the evening before the examination.
C)Do not eat or drink after midnight on the day before the examination.
D)Take dye tablets with the evening meal.
E)All of the above are appropriate instructions.
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16
Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a POL is performing moderate-complexity tests,CLIA requires
A)proficiency testing three times per year.
B)calibration procedures at least every 6 months.
C)two levels of controls daily.
D)a system to identify patient specimens throughout the testing process.
E)all of the above.
Q2) What is a profile?
A)A substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test
B)A quantitative laboratory test
C)An array of laboratory tests for identifying a disease
D)A laboratory test that is required by state law
Q3) The study of antigen-antibody reactions to assess the presence of a substance or to determine the presence of disease is known as
A)hematology.
B)immunology and blood banking.
C)clinical chemistry.
D)cytology.
E)histology.
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Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What occurs if a urine specimen is allowed to stand for more than 1 hour at room temperature?
A)It becomes cloudy.
B)The pH becomes more acidic.
C)The specific gravity decreases.
D)Pathogens are destroyed.
Q2) Which of the following normally contain microorganisms?
A)Kidneys
B)Ureters
C)Urinary meatus
D)Urinary bladder
Q3) What is the term for the functional unit of the kidney?
A)Glomerulus
B)Ureter
C)Renal pelvis
D)Nephron
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Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a fibrin clot formed in the serum layer of a blood specimen,it would
A)interfere with adequate serum collection.
B)result in hemolysis of the blood cells.
C)cause evaporation of the serum.
D)lead to inaccurate test results.
Q2) After drawing a blood specimen for an electrolyte profile,the next step is to
A)centrifuge the specimen for 10 minutes.
B)allow the specimen to stand in an upright position for 30 to 45 minutes.
C)pipet the serum and place it in a transfer tube.
D)place the tube in the refrigerator.
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of the brachial artery (located in the antecubital space)?
A)Pulsates when palpated
B)Has a more elastic and thicker wall than a vein
C)If punctured, blood is bright red in color
D)If punctured, patient feels more than usual amount of pain
E)All of the above
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19
Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Peterson has a hemoglobin reading of 16.This is considered to be
A)within the reference range.
B)above the reference range.
C)below the reference range.
D)an invalid result.
Q2) The plasma functions in
A)transporting electrolytes needed by the cells.
B)transporting nutrients to the tissues.
C)picking up wastes from the tissues.
D)transporting antibodies, enzymes, and hormones.
E)all of the above ways.
Q3) An increase in neutrophils occurs during
A)an acute infection.
B)polycythemia.
C)bone marrow damage.
D)a chronic infection.
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Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a standard to detect errors caused by laboratory equipment that is not working properly is known as A)proficiency testing.
B)calibration.
C)standardization.
D)quality analysis.
Q2) Most of the cholesterol found in the blood comes from A)dietary cholesterol intake.
B)being manufactured by the liver.
C)saturated fat.
D)cellulite.
Q3) The BUN test is used to A)detect kidney disease.
B)assess liver functioning.
C)detect anemia.
D)assess thyroid functioning.
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21
Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mixed culture is a culture that
A)contains only one kind of microorganism.
B)contains two or more kinds of microorganisms.
C)contains nutrient agar.
D)has become contaminated with nonpathogens.
Q2) What is a smear?
A)Material spread on a slide for microscopic examination
B)A small sample taken to represent the nature of the whole
C)A mass of microorganisms growing in a laboratory culture medium
D)A small piece of cotton wrapped around the end of a wooden stick
Q3) Which of the following microorganisms is identified by observing its motility under the microscope?
A)Candida albicans
B)Trichomonas vaginalis
C)Treponema pallidum
D)Neisseria gonorrheae
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for a stroke?
A)Paraplegia
B)Transient ischemia
C)Coronary artery disease
D)Cerebrovascular accident
Q2) Which of the following is not a symptom of a fracture?
A)Cyanosis
B)Pain
C)Deformity and swelling
D)Loss of function
Q3) Which of the following spiders can cause a serious or life-threatening reaction?
A)Wolfe spider
B)Daddy long legs
C)Brown recluse spider
D)The itsy-bitsy spider that went up the water spout
Q4) Which of the following is not a symptom of a heart attack?
A)Sudden weakness on one side of the body
B)Chest pain
C)Shortness of breath
D)Nausea
Page 23
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