Patient Care Procedures
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Patient Care Procedures is a foundational course that introduces students to the essential skills and techniques required to provide safe, effective, and compassionate care to patients in healthcare settings. The course covers topics such as infection control, vital signs measurement, basic hygiene and grooming, patient mobility and positioning, nutrition and feeding assistance, and effective communication with patients and healthcare team members. Emphasis is placed on adhering to legal and ethical standards, maintaining patient dignity and privacy, and responding appropriately to patient needs and emergencies. Through a combination of classroom instruction, demonstration, and hands-on practice, students develop the practical competencies necessary to support patient well-being and assist healthcare professionals in a variety of clinical environments.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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47 Chapters
1893 Verified Questions
1893 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following courses is NOT included in an accredited medical assistant program?
A)Administrative courses
B)Clinical courses
C)General courses
D)Accounting courses
Answer: D
Q2) Why do you need a credential?
A)A credential allows you to work in your state.
B)A credential is required for graduation.
C)A credential signifies recognition of competency.
D)A credential guarantees a job.
Answer: C
Q3) Registration
A) voluntary
B) mandatory
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Sample Questions
Q1) evaluates and treats medical conditions resulting from trauma or sudden illness
A)emergency medicine
B)internal medicine
C)urology
D)otolaryngology
E)pediatrics
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements best describes a health maintenance organization (HMO)?
A)Providers are employees of the organization.
B)The provider holds exclusive rights to all aspect of the medical practice.
C)Patients can drop in for treatment whenever they need care.
D)One provider sees and treats all of the patients.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is an eye specialist?
A)Ophthalmologist
B)Orthopedist
C)Otolaryngologist
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the fight or flight stage of the GAS theory?
A)The body becomes exhausted by its reaction to stress.
B)The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body.
C)The parasympathetic nervous system is activated.
D)The body begins to perceive and be aware of stress.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics associated with burnout?
A)Role conflict
B)Role ambiguity
C)Role frustration
D)Role overload
Answer: C
Q3) Which of these traits are least likely to make a person vulnerable to burnout?
A)Poor social support networks
B)Perfectionist
C)Planner
D)Poorly nourishment
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the patient is age 6 to 11, what is one of the better ways to overcome communication issues?
A)Use play therapy
B)Provide health care options
C)Make health care a teaching opportunity
D)Permit ambulating
Q2) Mr.Love calls his best friend to tell him about his son's surgery.When the friend calls to find out how the son is, Mr.Love does not remember calling him.
A) denial
B) displacement
C) repression
D) projection
E) rationalization
Q3) Which of the following best describes the interview technique used when asking the patient, "Are you still taking your medication? "
A)Close-ended question
B)Open-ended question
C)Direct statement
D)Indirect statement
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) mandated by the Patient Self-Determination Act to be made available to patients
A) living will or health care directive
B) durable power of attorney for health care
C) both
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an expected patient response to the news of a life-threatening illness?
A)Acts as if the information has never been shared with them
B)Drastically changes priorities
C)Becomes happy and tells family and friends
D)Quietly continue their lives, changing little outwardly
Q3) In the acronym TEAR, the "T" stands for which of the following?
A)To experience the pain of the loss
B)To adjust to what was lost
C)To accept the reality of the loss
D)To reinvest in a new reality
Q4) used in making end-of-life decisions to prolong life
A) living will or health care directive
B) durable power of attorney for health care
C) both
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The provider is legally bound to treat a patient until:
A)the patient discharges from the provider
B)the provider formally withdraws from patient care
C)the patient no longer needs treatment
D)all of the above are correct
Q2) Mrs.Love is being prepared for surgery to remove a brain tumor.The neurosurgeon has described the location of the tumor and how he plans to remove it.He discusses the duration of the surgery and the type of anesthesia.He has explained there is no other alternative method to this treatment and also explained that chemotherapy and radiation usually follow surgery.He explained if no surgery is done, the tumor will spread and be fatal.What part of informed consent was omitted from this explanation?
A)Nature of procedure and how it will be performed
B)Possible risks and the expected outcomes
C)Any other methods of treatment and those risks
D)Risks if no treatment is given
Q3) The medical assistant gave the wrong medication, causing harm to the patient.
A) subject to criminal law
B) subject to civil law
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8
Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In allocation of scarce health resources, ethical considerations include which of the following?
A)Who should receive health benefits and treatments?
B)How much money should be spent and distributed?
C)Who will make decisions for allocation of resources and services?
D)All of the above
Q2) pornography or prostitution, use of child's image in media
A) neglect
B) physical
C) emotional/psychological
D) sexual
E) financial
F) sexual exploitation
G) incest
Q3) Confidential information concerning a patient is provided to an insurance company without first obtaining the patient's authorization.
A) ethical
B) unethical
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Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most appropriate when dealing with poisonings?
A)Tell the patient to take ipecac.
B)Give them something to eat or drink.
C)Identify the name and amount of poison taken.
D)Ask whether the patient is conscious.
Q2) In the medical office a cardiac patient, accompanied by his wife, complains to you of chest pain.In assessing the patient, what would you do first?
A)Tell the patient to stay calm.
B)Obtain information about the symptoms being experienced.
C)Immediately take the patient to the provider.
D)Bring the patient and his wife back to the provider.
Q3) occurs with a severe twisting action, causes break to wind around bone
A) greenstick
B) simple
C) compound
D) comminuted
E) Colles
F) depressed
G) spiral
H) impacted
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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following, regarding the medical facility, most often contributes as much to a patient's well-being as does the medical attention given by the providers?
A)Location
B)Size
C)Accessibility
D)Environment
Q2) Which of the following is not an appropriate step in closing a facility for the day?
A)Shut down all equipment.
B)Secure doors and windows.
C)Lock up petty cash and drugs.
D)Lock up all medical supplies.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the services of the office, the function of medical staff members, measures to take in case of an emergency, and other issues that patients may need to consider?
A)Textbook
B)Sign
C)News item
D)Brochure
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11
Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bluetooth®
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
Q2) Which of the following best describes the most widely used type of computer in today's health care facility?
A)Supercomputer
B)Mainframe
C)Microcomputer
D)Minicomputer
Q3) scanner
A) data input device
B) data output device
C) data storage device
Q4) When computerizing the medical office, it is important NOT to do which of the following?
A)Involve all staff members
B)Install while personnel are in the office
C)Allow adequate start-up time
D)Work with a knowledgeable vendor
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms best describes using a voice that varies in pitch and intensity?
A)Pronunciation
B)Articulation
C)Enunciation
D)Locution
E)Modulation
Q2) prescription refill request
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q3) Which of the following is the act of evaluating the urgency of a medical situation and prioritizing treatment?
A)Listening
B)Screening
C)Empathy
D)Fluency
Q4) billing question
A) medical assistant
B) provider
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following scheduling systems schedules 2 or 3 patients at the beginning of each hour followed by single appointments every 10-20 minutes
A)Double booking
B)Modified wave
C)Open hours
D)Stream
E)Clustering
Q2) When screening phone calls, what question would NOT be considered appropriate to determine the urgency of the situation?
A)Is the patient in immediate need of medical assistance?
B)How far are you from the facility?
C)Is there any bleeding?
D)Are there chest pains?
Q3) Which of the following scheduling records should be kept for legal purposes?
A)Appointment books
B)Hard copy day sheets
C)Computerized schedules
D)All of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the tab-alpha system?
A)Lateral moveable files
B)Combination of 13 colors
C)Full-cut folders and a color-coded label
D)Ten colors and 1/3-cut folders
Q2) The middle pair of digits in the middle-digit filing system are considered which of the following?
A)Primary
B)Secondary
C)Third
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of electronic medical records?
A)Multiple users are possible.
B)Office storage is not required.
C)On-site assistance may be required.
D)Patterns and data are more easily accessed.
Q4) equally distributed files
A) alphabetic filing
B) numeric filing
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Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following copy notations should the writer include at the bottom of a letter to send a copy of the letter to another individual with the recipient's knowledge?
A)sig
B)Enc
C)c:
D)P.S.
Q2) hemorrhage
A) spelled correctly
B) spelled incorrectly
Q3) What information is missing from this letter?
A)Date line
B)Subject line
C)Body of letter
D)Typist's initials
Q4) Which of the following letter styles omits the salutation and closing?
A)Full block
B)Modified block
C)Indented block
D)Simplified
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Sample Questions
Q1) chronological description of patient's illness
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
Q2) surgical procedure and sponge count
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms means an insurance policy pays a percentage of the balance after application of the deductible?
A)Coordination of benefits
B)Co-insurance
C)Co-pay
D)Deductible
E)Birthday rule
Q2) capitation payment
A) managed care
B) traditional
Q3) Which of the following is the purpose of screening new patients for insurance coverage?
A)To verify the patient has coverage and to obtain vital billing information.
B)To determine whether the physician is a provider for patient's plan.
C)To determine whether a referral is obtained for services.
D)To ensure the disease is covered by the patient's plan.
E)To ensure the patient understands all provisions of coverage.
Q4) usually can go outside provider network
A) managed care
B) traditional
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is completed using data from the patient's electronic health record in most offices today?
A)CMS 1490
B)UB92
C)CMS 1500
D)HCFA form
Q2) Which of the following are codes applied to an injury or poisoning?
A)Modifiers
B)V codes
C)S00-T88
D)P00-P96
Q3) Which of the following is a record of claims sent to the insurance carrier?
A)Point-of-service device
B)Claims register
C)Universal claim form
D)Explanation of benefits
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Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) At times, patients may not be able to pay their medical bills for various reasons.What can medical assistants do to assist them with this?
A)Nothing.Laws require patients to pay their bills in full.
B)Make financial arrangements with patients, allowing full payment for services provided.
C)Allow patients to pay a reduced amount.
D)Tell patients their future visits will not be allowed until bills are paid in full.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a major advantage of the pegboard system?
A)Forms work together to simplify the task
B)Complete up-to-date balance of accounts payable
C)Relatively inexpensive
D)Write-it-once system
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely cause of the deposits not agreeing with the credits on the day sheet or the patient ledgers?
A)There are duplicate cards.
B)Deposits were miscounted.
C)Cash is missing.
D)Payment is misplaced.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which collection technique is used as a last resort in the collection of unpaid balances?
A)Payment at the time of service
B)Stickers on billing statements
C)Telephone call reminders
D)Sending to collection agency
Q2) Which of the following best describes accounts that occasionally go to an outside collection agency?
A)Accounts with a high accounts receivable ratio
B)Patients who do not pay in 30 days
C)Highly delinquent accounts
D)Accounts that have sent bad checks
Q3) Match the appropriate description with the federal regulation. Federal Wage Garnishment Law
A) legal guidelines governing telephone collections
B) shows installment payments and interest agreements
C) bankruptcy laws
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21
Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the common name for an employee withholding allowance certificate?
A)W-2
B)W-4
C)Pay stub
D)W-A
Q2) Which of the following terms applies to the accounting system in which outstanding accounts such as office expenses and services are paid for?
A)Collections
B)Cost
C)Accounts receivable
D)Accounts payable
Q3) Which of the following best describes the accounting system that provides information primarily for entities external to the organization?
A)Cost
B)Financial
C)Managerial
D)Disbursement
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) virus
A) causes athlete's foot and ringworm
B) examples are protozoa and metazoa
C) identified by characteristic shapes
D) intracellular parasites larger than viruses
E) requires a living cell for reproduction
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered standard personal protective equipment?
A)Gloves
B)Mask
C)Face shield
D)Gown
E)Shoe cover
Q3) When hand washing with antimicrobial soap and water is not available, which method can be used?
A)Antimicrobial wipes
B)Alcohol-based hand rub
C)Lotion
D)Do nothing
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Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) x-ray
A) po
B) WNL
C) XR
D)
Q2) Which part of the medical history includes notes about location, quality, and timing?
A)Social history
B)History present illness
C)Past medical history
D)Family history
E)Review of symptoms
Q3) Which of the following best describes the physician's overall assessment of major body functions?
A)Review of systems
B)Disease examination
C)Past medical history
D)Family history
E)Social history
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Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the effect on a blood pressure if a cuff that is too large is used?
A)Has no effect on pressure reading
B)Gives an artificially high reading
C)Gives an artificially low reading
D)Makes reading quieter
Q2) Which of the following is the most important action when taking a rectal temperature?
A)Position the patient in a prone position.
B)Do not use a sheath.
C)Apply lubricant for easy insertion.
D)Insert the thermometer 1/2 to 1 inch for an adult.
Q3) Which of the following is the most important action when obtaining an aural temperature using a tympanic thermometer?
A)Do not cover the thermometer.
B)Pull the earlobe outward and down.
C)Place the probe in the canal to seal the area.
D)Do not pull the earlobe back at all, leave it as it is.
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25
Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) used primarily for proctologic and sigmoid examinations and procedures
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
Q2) The provider completes the head and neck examination.He asks you to position the patient for a pelvic examination and Pap smear.Which of the following is the most appropriate position?
A)Sims'
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Supine
D)Lithotomy
E)Prone
Q3) feeling body parts or organs
A) inspection
B) palpation
C) percussion
D) auscultation
E) mensuration
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Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) alpha fetal fetoprotein
A) produces an image of the fetus
B) takes a sample of tissue
C) used to rule out neural tube defects
D) takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E) aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels
Q2) The Bethesda System is used to report what type of results?
A)HPV
B)Pathology
C)Pap smear
D)DNA
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a maternal sign and symptom of labor complications?
A)Heavy vaginal bleeding
B)Sudden drop in blood pressure
C)Headache
D)Vaginal discharge
E)Visual change
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Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) When administering an IM injection in the gluteal muscle, it should be administered lateral and superior to a line between the posterior superior iliac spine and what other area?
A)Greater trochanter
B)Femur
C)Tailbone
D)Lumbar spine
Q2) Which of the following is your best initial approach to Clyde?
A)Say, " Hi Clyde, I am May, and I take care of little children all day.It is nice to meet you."
B)Approach him at his level of understanding.
C)Ask Mrs.Lee to sit Clyde on the examining table and hold him there.
D)Ask Mrs.Lee to undress Clyde down to his underwear.
Q3) Which of the following is generally treated by getting plenty of rest, increasing fluids, and eating a well-balanced diet?
A)Otitis media
B)Tonsillitis
C)Chickenpox
D)Asthma
E)Common colds
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following can be a hallmark of sexual abuse in the pediatric setting?
A)epididymitis
B)BPH
C)cryptorchidism
D)hypospadias
Q2) Which of the following is the sexually transmitted disease that commonly coexists with gonorrhea?
A)Genital herpes
B)Chlamydia
C)Genital warts
D)Syphilis
Q3) Which of the following disorders would Mr.King's symptoms indicate?
A)Prostatitis
B)Urethritis
C)Benign prostatic hypertrophy
D)Ureteritis
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Sample Questions
Q1) longing for death
A) psychological
B) physical
Q2) new poverty
A) psychological
B) physical
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the expected changes with the aging patient?
A)Decreased vision
B)Hearing changes
C)Decreased muscle strength
D)Increased appetite
E)Fragile skin
Q4) Which of the following groups must report elder abuse?
A)Physicians
B)Homemakers
C)Police officers
D)All of the above
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is a common screening test to check for tonsillitis?
A)Arterial blood gas
B)Sputum analysis
C)Streptococcal antibody test
D)Mono screening test
Q2) tuning fork
A) urinary
B) respiratory
C) musculoskeletal
D) circulatory
E) sensory
F) blood and lymph
Q3) Which of the following is the layer of the skin on which the muscles lie?
A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Subcutaneous
D)Fascia
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) Which of the following instruments is inserted into narrowed or constricted ducts and tubes for the purpose of gradually enlarging the opening?
A)Forceps
B)Scalpel
C)Dilator
D)Clamp
Q2) Which of the following instruments is commonly used to clamp blood vessels?
A)Hemostat
B)Towel clamp
C)Splinter forceps
D)Obturator
Q3) Which of the following is the most important action of the medical assistant after the physician performs an incision and drainage of an infected surgical wound area, removes the sutures, and applies a dressing?
A)Explain wound care instructions again.
B)Provide written instructions.
C)Arrange for a follow-up appointment.
D)All the above.
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32
Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following refers to an x-ray directed from the front of the body to the back?
A)Lateral
B)Oblique
C)Posteroanterior
D)Anterioposterior
Q2) Patients cannot have a CT scan or MRI if they have which of the following?
A)Dental filings
B)Pacemakers
C)Braces
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following must be of the highest resolution more than any other x-ray?
A)Ultrasound
B)Mammogram
C)Flat plate
D)CT scan
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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) Which of the following best describes normal daily self-care such as brushing teeth, getting dressed, and eating?
A)Occupational therapies
B)Activities of daily living
C)Normal range of motion
D)Rehabilitation medicine
Q2) hydrocollator
A) heat
B) cold
Q3) moving the hand so the palm is down
A) circumduction
B) dorsiflexion
C) pronation
D) rotation
E) supination
Q4) A physiological benefit from massage therapy is what?
A)Increased metabolism
B)Promotion of healing
C)Improving circulation
D)All of the above
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Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes a stage of life in which individuals experience the greatest levels of growth and the need for total nutrients is greater at this stage?
A)Pregnancy
B)Infancy
C)Adolescence
D)Elderly
Q2) Chinese
A) Rice is the primary energy food; vegetables are lightly cooked.
B) Spices, especially curry, are popular.
C) Dark breads and fewer green vegetable salads are consumed.
D) Combinations of Spanish and Native American foods are popular.
E) Fish, vegetables, and rice often served fried.
Q3) Which of the following is the approximate percentage of the population you tell her has some form of diabetes mellitus?
A)2
B)9
C)7
D)12
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Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is used to block acetylcholine?
A)Antianxiety
B)Antihistamine
C)Diuretic
D)Anticholinergic
Q2) The physician wants to prescribe an agent that causes sleep.Which of the following best describes the class of this type of drug and an example?
A)Sedative, phenobarbital
B)Tranquilizer, Haldol
C)Sedative, Haldol
D)Narcotic, codeine
E)Hypnotic, Seconal
Q3) Which is considered a disadvantage of natural herbals on the market?
A)Public comments
B)May not be standardized
C)DSHEA reviews
D)Peer review literature
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Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication
Administration
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Q1) Which of the following best describes how syringes and needles should be disposed?
A)Remove the needle and place it in a sharps container.
B)Discard the needle in a rigid, puncture-proof container.
C)Recap the needle and place both the cap and the needle in a sharps container.
D)Cut off the needle and place it in a sharps container.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines dosage of medications?
A)Age
B)Weight
C)Height
D)Gender
Q3) When is the medication label to be read?
A)When pouring, administering, and putting the drug back on the shelf
B)When taking from the shelf, after pouring, and after administering the drug
C)When checking the order, when pouring, and before putting the drug back on the shelf
D)When the medication is taken from the storage area, just before removing it from its container, and when returning the medication to the storage area
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the small devices sends a small dose of electricity to jar the heart back into a normal rhythm?
A)Pacemaker
B)ICD
C)CCT
D)CMR
E)ECG
Q2) Which of the following describes when the myocardial cells recovers electrically?
A)Repolarization
B)Negative deflection
C)Depolarization
D)Polarization
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true about Holter monitor electrodes?
A)They are disposable.
B)The electrodes contain an electrolyte gel.
C)There are only 6 to 7 electrodes used.
D)The electrodes are applied in different locations than in a resting ECG.
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of CLIA?
A)Ensures you have insurance to cover any errors
B)Ensures all equipment is put away safely
C)Safeguards the public by regulating all testing
D)Promotes a healthy and safe work environment
Q2) Which of the following best describes how a laboratory manager can keep a current and updated list on the waived tests?
A)Check the FDA website.
B)Check the OSHA website.
C)Read the Medicaid manuals.
D)Read the Federal Register only.
Q3) Which of the following is the major purpose of a material safety data sheet?
A)Provides information on expiration dates
B)Provides information to protect patients
C)Completes all OSHA regulations
D)Identifies hazardous ingredients, first aid procedures, and spill and leak procedures
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about an electron microscope?
A)Can be used for visualization of viruses
B)Most often found in small clinics
C)Requires no special training
D)None of the above
Q2) To further ensure that test results are accurate, what test must be done along with the patient sample?
A)Proficiency test
B)Daily check
C)Calibration
D)Control test
Q3) CBC with diff, hepatitis B surface antigen, rubella antibody, syphilis, antibody screen, RBC, and blood typing
A) arthritis
B) general health
C) lipid
D) obstetric
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the correct application of a tourniquet?
A)Apply 3 to 4 inches below the puncture site.
B)Leave on the arm no longer than 3 minutes.
C)Apply 3 to 4 inches above the puncture site.
D)Apply to the upper arm at the level of the deltoid.
Q2) Which of the following is the primary factory for the production of blood cells?
A)Lymph nodes
B)Thymus
C)Bone marrow
D)Spleen
Q3) Which of the following is in a mixture of blood obtained from capillary puncture specimens?
A)Blood from arterioles
B)Blood from venules
C)Interstitial fluid
D)All the above
Q4) Vacuum is created when plunger is pulled.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the reference range of a leukocyte count for adults?
A)4,500-11,000
B)5,000-12,000
C)6,000-14,000
D)10,000-30,000
Q2) Which of the following is the major component of the RBC that transports oxygen?
A)Serum
B)Hemoglobin
C)Plasma
D)Protein
Q3) Which of the following statements is false about disease states and cell changes?
A)Appendicitis causes increased neutrophils.
B)Viral infections are associated with increased red blood cells.
C)Iron deficiency anemia shows hypochromic red blood cells.
D)Infectious mononucleosis shows increased lymphocytes.
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Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT included in the physical examination of urine?
A)Observing and recording color
B)Noting unusual urine odor
C)Noting excess glucose
D)Measuring specific gravity
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the medical assistant when handling urine specimens?
A)Treat all specimens as if they were normal.
B)Avoid splashes that may enter the eyes.
C)Store urine specimens in a dark cabinet.
D)Process urine specimens within 24 hours.
Q3) When must quality control be performed when using a refractometer?
A)At the end of the day
B)By comparing values with tap water
C)Before testing each specimen
D)At the beginning of each day
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43
Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the type of stain that is often referred to as a specific stain and that allows for microscopic examination of acid-fast organisms?
A)Gram
B)Acid-fast
C)Simple
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is true when collecting stool for O & P identification?
A)Do not contaminate the stool specimen with urine.
B)Use special vials.
C)Collect the stool in wide-mouth containers.
D)All the above.
Q3) Giardiasis Lamblia is often contracted by which of the following?
A)Mountain hikers
B)Children
C)Sanitation workers
D)Athletes
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insulin is secreted by pancreatic cells in response to ____ glucose levels, and glucagon is secreted in response to ____ glucose levels.
A)Increased, decreased
B)Increased, increased
C)Decreased, increased
D)Decreased, decreased
Q2) A small sample of which of the following specimens is required for a CLIA-Waived IM test?
A)Serum
B)Capillary blood
C)Plasma
D)All of the above
Q3) blood typing
A) found on the surface of red blood cells
B) hemagglutination
C) protein molecules that are found in serum
Q4) antigen
A) found on the surface of red blood cells
B) hemagglutination
C) protein molecules that are found in serum
45
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would most likely NOT be included on an office brochure designed to welcome a new patient to the practice?
A)History of the practice
B)Financial policies
C)Acceptable insurance plans
D)Scheduling policies
E)Map and directions
Q2) When an involuntary dismissal is necessary, what is the maximum time the dismissal should take?
A)20 minutes
B)15 minutes
C)30 minutes
D)10 minutes
Q3) to follow a supervisor in order to learn facility protocol
A) benchmark
B) mentor
C) shadow
D) practicum/externship
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encourage participation by paying employees for time.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a task of the human resources manager?
A)Creating office policy manuals
B)Hiring and recruiting personnel
C)Interpreting legal regulations
D)Providing employee training
Q3) Predetermined employee performance reviews are important because:
A)They check employee compliance with job description
B)They motivate an employee to a higher level of performance
C)They suggest possible areas of development for an employee
D)All of the above are true
Q4) safety issues
A) policy manual
B) procedures manual
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Students graduating from an ABHES-accredited school can be certified through which of the following organizations?
A)AAMA
B)AMA
C)AMT
D)Both a and c
Q2) Annie is taking the CMA (AAMA) examination and is worried because she has no training in legal issues and needs a resource.Which of the following describes her best resource for this information pertinent to the medical office?
A)Another medical assistant practitioner
B)Her lawyer
C)State codes
D)Current medical assisting textbook
Q3) Continuing education for the RMA is available through which of the following publications?
A)Professional Medical Assistant
B)Journal of Continuing Education Topics & Issues
C)STEP Continuing Education
D)CMA Today
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a part of vital résumé information?
A)Name and address
B)Current telephone
C)Birth date
D)Education
Q2) In order to determine the best qualified candidate, employers use software that searches for specific keywords in a textrésumé.Which of the following wound NOT be considered a keyword:
A)Salary requirement
B)Job-specific skills
C)Technologic terms
D)Types of degrees
Q3) watched
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
Q4) Twitter is used by what percentage of recruiters?
A)30%
B)55%
C)75%
D)10%
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