Patient Care Procedures
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Patient Care Procedures equips students with the fundamental skills and knowledge required to assist in the effective care of patients across various healthcare settings. The course covers essential procedures such as vital sign measurement, basic hygiene and grooming, safe patient transfer and positioning, infection control practices, and documentation. Emphasis is placed on communication, compassion, cultural sensitivity, ethical considerations, and adherence to safety protocols. Through practical demonstrations and hands-on training, students learn to provide supportive care, promote patient comfort, and maintain a safe environment, preparing them for entry-level roles as healthcare assistants or for further study in nursing and allied health programs.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by
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Kathy Bonewit
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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56 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which law or government agency is primarily responsible for the regulation of laboratories and laboratory tests?
A) Americans with Disabilities Act
B) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA '88)
C) State Medical Practice Act
D) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following might be studied scientifically by the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine?
A) Acupuncture
B) Biofeedback
C) Massage therapy
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) When does a physician participate in a residency program?
A) After completing medical school
B) Immediately after completing 4 years of college (bachelor's degree)
C) Only after becoming board-certified
D) At any time when it is convenient during his or her training
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which areas of specialization offer certification in addition to a general certification in medical assisting?
A) Podiatric medical assistant
B) Medical administrative specialist
C) Certified coding specialist-physician-based
D) Ophthalmic medical assistant
E) All of the above
Answer: E
Q2) A medical assistant should always determine the legal status of the medical assisting profession in the state in which he or she intends to work, because state laws can vary widely.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In what type of settings are the majority of medical assistants employed?
A) Medical laboratories
B) Nursing care facilities
C) Physician offices
D) Government agencies
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) To whom would physicians report cases of specific infectious diseases?
A) Local police department
B) Local board of health
C) The hospital where they have privileges
D) The state medical examiner or coroner
Answer: B
Q2) The term that refers to "the level of appropriate care legally required of any other practitioner with the same education and training providing the same care in the same geographic region" is
A) Standard of care
B) Beneficent care
C) Professional care
D) Contingent care
Answer: A
Q3) What right is the basis for informed consent?
A) Right to life
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to autonomy
D) Right to the means to sustain life
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e., culture and environment, developmental life stage, language, and physical threats to communication
Q2) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q3) The primary reason that the medical assistant should regularly solicit feedback when communicating with patients is to determine whether they
A) Are hearing-impaired
B) Are cooperative
C) Understand what has been said
D) Are mentally disabled
Q4) How could the medical assistant show empathy for a patient?
A) Express sympathy for the patient's problems.
B) Tell the patient about his or her own problems.
C) Acknowledge the patient's feelings.
D) Make no comment in order to avoid embarrassing the patient.
Q5) The best response when a patient expresses anxiety about an illness is to reassure them that everything will be fine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of muscle tissue is found in the stomach and intestines, and is under involuntary control?
A) Smooth muscle
B) Striated muscle
C) Cardiac muscle
D) Skeletal muscle
Q2) Which of the following conditions is NOT present with homeostasis?
A) The body is in a normal stable condition.
B) The internal environment of the body remains the same.
C) Illness is present.
D) Laboratory test values fall within normal range.
Q3) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a function of bone?
A) Forms the framework of the body
B) Protects underlying tissues
C) Production of antibodies
D) Serves as an attachment for muscles
Q5) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are specialized epithelial cells that produce a dark pigment?
A) Fibroblasts
B) Mast cells
C) Melanocytes
D) Phagocytes
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) What is needed for the absorption of calcium in the body?
A) Vitamin A
B) Iron
C) Vitamin D
D) Phosphorus
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) What happens when the arrector pili muscles contract?
A) Shivering
B) Sneezing
C) Peristalsis
D) Goose bumps
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q2) Which of the following is NOT part of the skeletal system?
A) Bones
B) Cartilage
C) Nails
D) Ligaments
Q3) The shaft of a long bone is known as the
A) Diaphysis
B) Epiphysis
C) Periosteum
D) Dialysis
Q4) How many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?
A) 6
B) 13
C) 26
D) 33
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy source for muscle contractions is
A) Creatine
B) ATP
C) Calcium
D) Glycogen
Q2) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q3) The cytoplasm of a muscle fiber (cell) is known as the
A) T tubule
B) Sarcolemma
C) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) Sarcoplasm
Q4) Which of the following is an example of an indirect attachment of skeletal muscle to bone?
A) Joint
B) Ligament
C) Cartilage
D) Tendon
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q7) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify body systems
Q2) Which of the following functions in body coordination, posture, and balance?
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Pons
D) Middle ear
Q3) List major organs in each body system
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neuroglia?
A) They support and protect neurons.
B) They nourish neurons.
C) They conduct nerve impulses.
D) They are capable of mitosis.
Q6) What is a group of nerve cell bodies located outside the brain?
A) Horn
B) Plexus
C) Ganglia
D) Terminal
Q7) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of receptors do extreme temperatures stimulate?
A) Heat receptors
B) Pain receptors
C) Cold receptors
D) Pressure receptors
Q2) What are the mechanoreceptors involved with proprioception?
A) Taste buds
B) Golgi tendon organs
C) Free nerve endings
D) Organ of Corti
Q3) What stimulates the receptors that determine taste?
A) Pressure of food on the tongue
B) Swallowing
C) Chewing
D) Chemicals in food
Q4) What nerve transmits auditory impulses to the brain for interpretation?
A) Cranial nerve II
B) Cranial nerve V
C) Cranial nerve VIII
D) Cranial nerve X
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) On the posterior surface of the thyroid glands
B) Above the kidneys
C) At the base of the brain
D) Just below the pancreas
Q2) What condition results when there is not enough antidiuretic hormone secreted by the body?
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Osteoporosis
D) Diabetes mellitus
Q3) exo-
A)to secrete
B)in, within C)nerve
D)to grow
E)hormone
F)gland
G)beneath, below H)out, away from
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of erythrocytes?
A) Biconcave disk shape
B) Produced in red bone marrow
C) Engulfs bacteria by phagocytosis
D) Lack a nucleus
Q2) Anatomy and Physiology
Q3) Which of the following heart chambers receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
A) Right atrium
B) Left atrium
C) Right ventricle
D) Left ventricle
Q4) Engulfs bacteria by phagocytosis
A)Neutrophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Lymphocytes
E)Monocytes
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nostrils
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
Q2) Nasal conchae
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
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Chapter 14: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the large intestine?
A) Production of digestive enzymes
B) Elimination of waste products
C) Absorption of nutrients
D) Breakdown of food molecules
Q2) What causes contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Gastrin
C) Presence of fat in the stomach
D) Secretin
Q3) What is the name of the valve located between the small intestine and large intestine?
A) Ileocecal valve
B) Cardiac valve
C) Pyloric valve
D) Mitral valve
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Chapter 15: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following layers of the ureter exhibits peristalsis?
A) Mucosa
B) Muscular layer
C) Fibrous coat
D) None of the above
Q2) Blood enters the glomerulus through the
A) Afferent arteriole
B) Renal artery
C) Efferent arteriole
D) Cystic duct
Q3) Which of the following does the urinary system NOT comprise?
A) Prostate gland
B) Kidneys
C) Ureters
D) Urinary bladder
Q4) What is the function of rugae located in the wall of the urinary bladder?
A) Expels urine from the bladder
B) Causes contraction of the urinary bladder
C) Allows the bladder to expand
D) Secretes mucus
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following produce male sex hormones?
A) Tunica albuginea
B) Septa
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Interstitial cells
Q2) Which of the following secretes a fluid containing fructose to provide an energy source for sperm?
A) Bulbourethral glands
B) Epididymis
C) Seminal vesicles
D) Prostate gland
Q3) When an infant girl is born, which of the following cells are present in the ovaries?
A) Primitive germ cells
B) Oogonia
C) Primary oocytes
D) Secondary oocytes
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Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common side effect of the hepatitis B vaccine is
A) Nausea
B) Hives
C) Irritability
D) Soreness at the injection site
Q2) What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
A) Sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
B) Coughs and sneezes from an infected person
C) Sexual intercourse
D) Mosquitoes
Q3) Which of the following is a violation of the OSHA standard?
A) Eating in the office laboratory
B) Storing the Exposure Control Plan on the computer
C) Recapping a needle after withdrawing medication from a vial
D) Refusing to get the hepatitis B vaccination
E) All of the above
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proper time for sterilizing an article in the autoclave depends on
A) The type of autoclave being used
B) What is being sterilized
C) The type of sterilization indicator being used
D) The intended use of the article
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
A) They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule.
B) They represent a resting and protective stage.
C) They are more resistant to heat.
D) They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants.
E) All of the above
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
A) Sterilization pouch
B) Muslin
C) Aluminum foil
D) Sterilization paper
Q5) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
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Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?
A) Hypoxia
B) Hypopnea
C) Apnea
D) Anoxia
Q2) Which of the following probes should be selected to measure rectal body temperature with an electronic thermometer?
A) Blue-collared probe
B) Red-collared probe
C) Pink-collared probe
D) Green-collared probe
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a fever?
A) Hypothermia
B) Febrile
C) Dehydration
D) Afebrile
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q7) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) An adult patient's weight should be measured to the nearest
A) Quarter-pound
B) Half-pound
C) Pound
D) Ounce
Q2) The lithotomy position is used to examine the
A) Vagina
B) Abdomen
C) Sigmoid colon
D) Breasts
Q3) The purpose of draping a patient is to
A) Make it easier for the physician to examine the patient
B) Assist the physician in making a diagnosis
C) Protect the patient from pathogens
D) Provide patient with warmth and modesty
E) All of the above
Q4) Identify resources and adaptations that are required based on individual needs-i.e., culture and environment, developmental life stage, language, and physical threats to communication
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can result in sensorineural hearing loss?
A) Impacted cerumen
B) Intense noise
C) Otitis media
D) Otosclerosis
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following does an optometrist NOT perform?
A) Diagnoses and treats eye disorders
B) Prescribes corrective lenses
C) Measures visual acuity
D) Performs eye surgery
Q3) How much time should the patient be given to identify the number on each Ishihara color plate?
A) 3 seconds
B) 10 seconds
C) 1 minute
D) As long as is needed
Q4) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q5) Identify both abbreviations and symbols used in calculating medication dosages
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ice bag should be filled with small pieces of ice to
A) Prevent the application from becoming too cold
B) Allow the bag to mold better to a body area
C) Prevent adverse secondary effects
D) Avoid irritation to the patient's skin
Q2) Which of the following does NOT help prevent low back pain?
A) Sleeping on a firm mattress
B) Good posture
C) Maintaining a healthy body weight
D) Bending from the waist when lifting an object
Q3) Forearm crutches are often used by patients with A) Cerebral palsy
B) A fracture of a lower extremity
C) An amputated leg
D) Paralysis on one side of the body
Q4) Canes are used most frequently for individuals with
A) An amputated lower extremity
B) Weakness on one side of the body
C) Poor muscular coordination
D) Paralysis of the lower extremities
24
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within
A)colp/o
B)dys-
C)ecto-
D)endo-
E)-scopy
F)gynec/o
G)men/o
H)nat/o
I)-ology
J)-orrhea
k)cyt/o
Q2) What is the term for a woman who has been pregnant more than once?
A) Primigravida
B) Gestation
C) Multigravida
D) Multipara
Q3) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Describe structural organization of the human body
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Q2) Which of the following items of information is NOT included in a VIS?
A) Benefits and risks of the immunization
B) Publication date of the VIS
C) Reporting an adverse reaction
D) Lot number of the vaccine
Q3) Which of the following is required by the NCVIA before an immunization is administered?
A) The parent must be provided with information on the benefits and risks of the immunization.
B) The parent must sign a consent form.
C) The child must be promised a sticker after the injection.
D) The expiration date of the vaccine must be checked three times.
Q4) What is the needle length range for a pediatric IM injection?
A) (<sup>3</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch to <sup>5</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch)
B) (<sup>5</sup>/<sub>8</sub> inch to 1 inch)
C) ½ inch to 1½ inches
D) 1 inch to 2 inches
Q5) Anatomy and Physiology
Q6) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) A biopsy is usually performed to
A) Determine if an infection is present
B) Cauterize tissue
C) Determine whether a tumor is benign or malignant
D) Remove a benign tumor
Q2) Psychology of Human Relations
Q3) Something that is sterile is considered contaminated if it
A) Comes in contact with a pathogen
B) Comes in contact with a nonpathogen
C) Becomes wet
D) Touches something clean
E) All of the above
Q4) For which of the following wounds, would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus booster?
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of administering medication?
A) The physician writes a prescription for a medication.
B) A medical assistant gives an IM injection to a patient.
C) A physician gives a patient drug samples to take at home.
D) A medical assistant performs a venipuncture.
Q2) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q3) Medical Law and Ethics
Q4) Identify both abbreviations and symbols used in calculating medication dosages
Q5) Which of the following must be included in a prescription for a controlled drug?
A) Schedule category of the drug
B) Lot number of the drug
C) Physician's DEA number
D) Patient's Social Security number
Q6) Which of the following represents an equivalent value for a cubic centimeter?
A) 1 cc 1 drop
B) 1 cc 1 mg
C) 1 cc 1 unit
D) 1 cc 1 ml
Q7) Medical Terminology
Q8) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts Page 28
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify body systems
Q2) Which of the following artifacts appears as small, straight, spiked lines that are consistent in nature?
A) Muscle
B) Wandering baseline
C) Alternating current
D) Interrupted baseline
Q3) How many leads are there on a standard electrocardiogram?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 12
D) 15
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of quick-relief asthma medication?
A) It quickly opens up the airways.
B) It is usually taken every day.
C) It is used to prevent asthma symptoms.
D) It helps to relieve bronchial inflammation.
E) All of the above.
Q5) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q6) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Q2) Mammography is used to detect
A) Fibrocystic breast disease
B) Breast cancer
C) Benign breast masses
D) Breast calcifications
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nuclear medicine diagnostic imaging procedures?
A) Radioactive substances are introduced into the body.
B) It shows the actual function of organs.
C) A gamma camera detects the radiation given off by the body.
D) The examination takes only a short time.
Q4) Which of the following is a characteristic of magnetic resonance imaging?
A) It is safe and painless.
B) The patient must remove all metal before the procedure.
C) The patient must remain still during the procedure.
Page 31
D) The patient hears a metallic clacking sound during the procedure.
E) All of the above
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a profile?
A) A substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test
B) A quantitative laboratory test
C) An array of laboratory tests for identifying a disease
D) A laboratory test that is required by state law
Q2) The purpose of the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) is to
A) Improve the quality of laboratory testing in the United States
B) Prevent the exposure of employees to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace
C) Ensure safety in the laboratory
D) Prevent errors in technique during laboratory testing
Q3) What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report?
A) To provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
B) To provide information required for third-party billing
C) To identify the source of the specimen
D) To assist the physician in making a diagnosis
E) All of the above
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH of most urine specimens is
A) Acidic
B) Alkaline
C) Neutral
D) Negative
Q2) Blood may normally be present in the urine because of
A) Pregnancy
B) Cystitis
C) Menstruation
D) Vigorous physical exercise
Q3) The type of specimen that should be used to test for the presence of nitrite in the urine is
A) Specimen that has been left standing at room temperature for one-half hour
B) 24-hour urine specimen
C) Freshly voided random specimen
D) First-voided morning specimen
Q4) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q5) List major organs in each body system
Q6) Describe structural organization of the human body
Q7) Medical Laboratory Procedures
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents an error in technique when working with evacuated tubes?
A) Using a computer bar code label to identify the tube
B) Filling tubes to the exhaustion of the vacuum
C) Shaking a tube containing an anticoagulant after drawing it
D) Removing the last tube from the plastic holder before removing the needle
Q2) Phlebotomy includes which of the following?
A) Skin punctures
B) Arterial punctures
C) Venipunctures
D) All of the above
Q3) If you think a vein selected for venipuncture may collapse, you should
A) Use an 18-gauge needle to collect the specimen
B) Use the butterfly method to perform the venipuncture
C) Fill the tube only one-half full with blood
D) Insert the needle slowly into the vein
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following results in leukopenia?
A) Appendicitis
B) Chickenpox
C) Chemotherapy
D) Rheumatic fever
Q2) Abnormal reduction in number
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q3) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q4) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q5) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for glucose that is stored in muscle and liver tissue for later use?
A) Glucagon
B) Carbohydrate
C) Glycogen
D) Lipoprotein
Q2) According to the American Diabetes Association, what is the normal range for a fasting blood glucose level (in mg/dL)?
A) 20-80
B) 70-99
C) 100-125
D) 140-160
Q3) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q4) What type of specimen is required for most blood chemistry tests?
A) Plasma
B) Serum
C) Whole blood
D) Clotted blood
Q5) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q6) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Escherichia coli normally reside in the
A) Vagina
B) Urinary tract
C) Large intestine
D) Stomach
Q2) Which of the following is NOT used to identify a pathogen?
A) Sensitivity testing
B) Microbial culture
C) Biochemical tests
D) Microcopy
Q3) The purpose of sensitivity testing is to
A) Identify the type of microorganism present
B) Produce a pure culture
C) Determine the best antibiotic to use to treat the condition
D) Determine the effectiveness of drug therapy
E) All of the above
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q5) Medical Laboratory Procedures
Q6) Discuss quality control issues related to handling microbiological specimens
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what type of fracture is the bone splintered or shattered into three or more fragments?
A) Spiral
B) Comminuted
C) Open
D) Oblique
Q2) Anatomy and Physiology
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hyperventilation?
A) Rapid and deep respirations
B) Palpitations
C) Abdominal pain
D) Tachycardia
E) Light-headedness
Q4) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q5) Which of the following is an example of a closed wound?
A) Laceration
B) Puncture
C) Contusion
D) Abrasion
E) All of the above
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a correct example for recording the chief complaint?
A) "Complains of pain in the left shoulder."
B) "The patient does not feel well today."
C) "Burning in the chest and coughing for the past 2 days."
D) "Otitis media that began following a cold."
Q2) What is a symptom?
A) Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data
B) Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease
C) The probable outcome of a disease
D) The scientific method of identifying a patient's condition
Q3) Identify systems for organizing medical records
Q4) What term is used to describe the process of making written entries about a patient in the medical record?
A) Charting
B) Registration
C) Scribbling
D) Documentation
Q5) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
Q6) Organize technical information and summaries
Q7) Identify both equipment and supplies needed for filing medical records
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a sliding window between the waiting room and reception desk?
A) To prevent staff from being distracted by noise in the waiting room
B) To prevent patients in the waiting room from hearing confidential patient information
C) To facilitate temperature control of the waiting room
D) To make staff aware of patients entering the waiting room
Q2) What should the medical assistant check when an established patient returns to the office after a brief absence?
A) The patient's marital status
B) The patient's clinic number
C) The patient's address and telephone number
D) The patient's Social Security number
Q3) At the end of the day, all the money in the cash drawer should be added to the daily bank deposit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify techniques for overcoming communication barriers
Q5) Identify time management principles
Q6) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Printers, keyboards and flash drives may be connected to the computer through a USB port.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the importance of routine maintenance of office equipment
Q3) The electronic medical record (EMR) usually interfaces with practice management software in the office computer system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the term for the physical devices making up a computer system?
A) Hardware
B) Software
C) Application program
D) Peripherals
Q5) Which of the following are examples of tasks performed by special keys?
A) Saving text
B) Capitalizing text
C) Deleting text
D) Moving the cursor
E) All of the above
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient calls to request a medication refill, which information should be included in the message?
A) The address to which the prescription should be mailed
B) If the pharmacy used by the patient accepts e-prescriptions
C) The prescription number of the patient's current supply of the medication
D) If the patient wants the prescription filled at a pharmacy or by mail order
Q2) Which type of electronic device may add computer capabilities to a telephone with software such as a drug reference?
A) Pager
B) Smartphone
C) Radio phone
D) Ordinary cell phone
Q3) To whom can medical assistants usually give test results over the telephone?
A) Family members of the patient who call inquiring about the patient's status
B) The parents of a patient who is a child
C) A patient of the medical office
D) None of the above
Q4) Identify styles and types of verbal communication
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Identify time management principles
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Sample Questions
Q1) Within what time period must the physician visit a patient he or she has admitted to the hospital?
A) Within 1 hour
B) Within 12 hours
C) Within 24 hours
D) Within 48 hours
Q2) Double-booking
A) Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B) An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time
C) Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day
D) An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients
E) A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive
F) Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours
Q3) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
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Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the challenges of an electronic medical record system is preventing unauthorized alterations and authenticating digital signatures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the second indexing unit in alphabetic filing?
A) First name
B) Last name
C) Middle initial
D) Second letter of the last name
Q3) What is an advantage of an electronic medical record system?
A) Inactive records are automatically removed from the system.
B) It is easier to preserve patient confidentiality.
C) It is less expensive to initiate than a paper record system.
D) Less space is required for record storage.
Q4) Discuss pros and cons of various filing methods
Q5) Identify types of records common to the healthcare setting
Q6) Discuss filing procedures
Q7) Basic Keyboarding/Computer Concepts
Q8) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q9) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR) Page 45
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the advantage of using or creating a template for letters from a medical office?
A) It is easier to add a second page to the letter.
B) It is easier to find the inside address for a new letter.
C) It is easier to maintain the same format for all letters.
D) It makes each letter sound more personal and individualized.
Q2) What punctuation mark follows the complimentary closing of a business letter?
A) Colon
B) Comma
C) Semicolon
D) None
Q3) Which part(s) of a standard letter is/are not used in the simplified letter style?
A) Salutation only
B) Printed signature line only
C) Salutation and complimentary closing
D) Printed signature line and end notations
Q4) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q5) Medical Law and Ethics
Q6) Recognize fundamental writing skills
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following items should always be weighed to determine the correct amount of postage?
A) A patient bill containing one sheet of paper
B) An order for supplies containing one order form
C) A one-page letter with three pages of attachments
D) A consultation letter containing two sheets of paper
E) All of the above
Q2) When is a postage meter more efficient than an online postage service?
A) If the office uses special services frequently
B) If the office often mails packages using parcel post
C) If the office mails a large volume of patient bills weekly
D) An online postage service is always more efficient than a postage meter
Q3) Return Receipt is preferred to Signature Confirmation as evidence of delivery of mail, because the return post card will be sent automatically
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
Q5) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify procedures for preparing patient accounts
Q2) How do money market accounts compare with checking accounts?
A) They usually pay a lower rate of interest
B) Checks must usually be written for a higher minimum amount
C) Money market accounts usually do not require a minimum balance
D) Neither type of account limits the number of checks that can be written each month
Q3) What is the function of a daily journal (day sheet) in a bookkeeping system?
A) To record financial activity for the month
B) To keep a chronological record of transactions
C) To keep a record of cumulative financial activity
D) To keep a record of transactions related to a single patient
Q4) Discuss types of adjustments that may be made to a patient's account
Q5) Which account keeps a record of cash disbursements?
A) Accounts payable
B) Accounts receivable
C) Money market account
D) The cash bookkeeping system
Q6) Describe banking procedures
Q7) Explain basic bookkeeping computations
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the format of the first three characters of an ICD-10 code?
A) Five digits
B) Three digits
C) One letter followed by two digits
D) One letter followed by four digits
Q2) Which of the following is an addition in the ICD-10 compared to the ICD-9?
A) Greater number of codes
B) Expansion of injury codes
C) Additional digits and letters
D) More information related to ambulatory care
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a possible subclassification requiring additional characters in ICD-10 codes?
A) Body parts
B) Right or left side
C) Different diseases
D) Initial encounter or subsequent encounter
Q4) HCPCS Level I codes include the current CPT codes.
A)True
B)False
Page 50
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where should the name and address of the insurance company appear on the insurance form submitted by the medical office?
A) It is not necessary to include this information.
B) The information should be placed in the top section of the form.
C) The information should be placed in Box 7, in the patient and insured information section.
D) The information should be placed in Box 33, in the physician information section.
Q2) What is the term for the amount of money that must be paid each year for services before the insurance company begins to pick up the payments?
A) Benefit
B) Premium
C) Deductible
D) Assignment
Q3) Which federal insurance plan provides for services for the elderly and disabled?
A) Medicare
B) Medicaid
C) TRICARE
D) CHAMPVA
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Claim messages attached to patient bills often become more forceful each month that the account remains unpaid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When is a patient account usually considered overdue?
A) 30 days after being billed
B) 60 days after being billed
C) 90 days after being billed
D) 120 days after being billed
Q3) In which situation should the medical office stop payment on a check?
A) The recipient of a check (payee) reports that it has been lost
B) A check has been returned to the office lacking a signature
C) The medical assistant makes an error writing a check and needs to write a new one
D) The medical assistant is afraid that there isn't enough money in the office account to cover an outstanding check
Q4) The medical office can file a lawsuit in small claims court for an unpaid patient bill.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regular safety inspections should include a review of storage for compressed gases, medications, and chemicals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is not necessary for a medical office to have written policies about sexual harassment, confidentiality, or patient rights, so long as every employee knows the expectations of the organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where should cleaning supplies and chemical solutions to clean the examination rooms be kept?
A) In the examination room, under the counter
B) In a central area used to store all cleaning materials
C) In the medical assistant's work area
D) In the office manager's desk
Q4) Professional liability insurance for a medical office will cover costs of repairing damage caused by a tornado.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of a natural disaster?
A) Flood
B) Earthquake
C) Bomb threat
D) Tornado
Q2) What is stress?
A) An event that occurs without advance warning
B) Loss of self-worth and interest in day-to-day activities
C) The body's response to threat or change
D) An event that poses a serious threat to personal safety
Q3) Which of the following tasks might be performed by a medical assistant in an emergency?
A) Providing emergency first aid
B) Patient interviews
C) Helping calm victims
D) Documenting services provided
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A targeted résumé usually begins with a specific employment objective that describes the type of position the applicant is seeking.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a very specific objective that might be included on the résumé of a recent medical assisting graduate?
A) To obtain an entry-level position as a medical assistant
B) To obtain a challenging position as a medical assistant
C) To obtain a position as a clinical medical assistant in the office of a dermatologist
D) To obtain a medical assisting position that provides opportunity for growth and professional development
Q3) What is one of the first things a medical assistant graduate should do when starting a job search?
A) Construct a résumé.
B) Call a recruiting company and have it perform the search.
C) Set a goal and identify the ideal job for his or her current circumstances.
D) Have friends ask their bosses if they are planning on hiring anyone else.
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