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Patient Care Management is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for effective coordination and delivery of healthcare services. Emphasizing patient-centered care, the course covers topics such as care planning, interdisciplinary collaboration, healthcare technology utilization, quality improvement, patient safety, and ethical considerations. Students will learn strategies for managing patient needs across various healthcare settings, fostering communication between patients, families, and healthcare teams, and integrating evidence-based practices to enhance clinical outcomes. The course prepares future healthcare professionals to lead and advocate for high-quality, efficient patient care in a rapidly evolving healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Concepts Practice 2nd Edition by Susan C. deWit
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49 Chapters
1547 Verified Questions
1547 Flashcards
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27 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who has been on antidepressants for 3 days tearfully says,"I still feel rotten.I don't think anything can help how I feel." Which is the best response by the nurse?
A)"I will tell the charge nurse how you are feeling."
B)"You will need to be patient and give your medicine some time to work."
C)"Look how much you have improved since you were admitted to the facility."
D)"It must be frustrating to be going through this difficult time."
Answer: D
Q2) The new nurse demonstrates an understanding of the primary purpose of the state nurse practice act (NPA)by explaining that it acts to:
A)test and license LPN/LVNs.
B)define the scope of LPN/LVN practice.
C)improve the quality of care provided by the LPN/LVN.
D)limit the LPN/LVN employment placement.
Answer: B
Q3) The nurse explains that the term _____________ refers to the severity of illness. Answer: acuity
Acuity is the term referring to the severity of illness or condition of a patient.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse writes an intervention for the goal: Patient will sleep for 5 hours uninterrupted each night.The best nursing intervention is:
A)medicate with sedative each night.
B)offer warm fluids frequently.
C)arrange for a large meal at supper.
D)discourage daytime napping.
Answer: D
Q2) The RN has chosen the nursing diagnosis of Risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility.The correct goal/outcome statement for the diagnosis would be:
A)patient will sit in chair at bedside for 15 minutes after each meal.
B)nurse will assist patient to chair every shift.
C)nurse will assess skin and record condition every shift.
D)patient will change position frequently.
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step: 2
A)loss of calcium ions.
B)vitamin D not activated.
C)bone loss.
D)retention of phosphates.
E)loss of absorption of calcium from the GI tract.
Answer: A
Q2) While the nurse is washing the face of a patient in renal failure,the patient demonstrates a spasm of the lips and face.The nurse examines the recent electrolyte levels to assess the level of:
A)potassium.
B)calcium.
C)sodium.
D)magnesium.
Answer: B
Q3) The nurse explains to the 85-year-old patient with a temperature that,with each degree of fever,the body loses _____% of water.
Answer: 10
With each degree of fever,the body has an insensible loss of 10% of its water.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has just been given medication to reverse neuromuscular blocking agents.The nurse is aware that the patient is in the general anesthetic stage of: A)induction.
B)introduction.
C)emergence.
D)maintenance.
Q2) The patient questions the nurse about robotics surgery.The nurse correctly responds,"Robotics: (Select all that apply.)
A)gives the surgeon greater magnification than the human eye."
B)allows the surgeon to be more precise than normal."
C)allows for a smaller incision."
D)increases healing time."
E)procedures generally cause less postoperative pain."
Q3) The nurse is aware that the 82-year-old patient returning from surgery will need special attention relative to:
A)combating thirst.
B)maintaining respiratory status.
C)stabilizing blood pressure.
D)maintaining core body temperature.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who has had spinal anesthesia.The nurse correctly questions which of the following orders?
A)Patient to lie flat for 6 to 8 hours.
B)Resume diet as tolerated.
C)Use incentive spirometer every hour while awake.
D)Notify physician immediately if headache occurs.
Q2) The nurse reminds the postsurgical patient that smoking will complicate postsurgical recovery by:
A)increasing probability of hemorrhage.
B)increasing blood pressure.
C)delaying healing.
D)increasing the need for pain medication.
Q3) The nurse is caring for a 90-year-old postoperative patient.The nurse notes that the oxygen saturation is frequently dropping below 90%.This is most likely related to:
A)prolonged use of a walker.
B)poor fluid intake.
C)weakened respiratory muscles.
D)increased elasticity of costal cartilages.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The home health nurse advises the patient to treat a fever of 100° F with:
A)aspirin.
B)Tylenol.
C)cool baths.
D)nothing at all.
Q2) The nurse discusses and demonstrates proper hand hygiene to an immunocompromised patient and his wife.The nurse determines additional teaching is necessary when the patient states:
A)"It is okay for my wife to wear artificial nails as long as she performs good handwashing."
B)"I should wash my hands before I eat."
C)"Hand gels work as well as handwashing under most circumstances."
D)"I should use friction and wash my hands for about 20 seconds if I am using soap and water."
Q3) The nurse explains that a vaccination provides defense against infection via:
A)innate immunity.
B)the inflammatory response.
C)antibody-mediated immunity.
D)cell-mediated immunity.
Q4) The bacteria that are rod-shaped are classified as _________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who had abdominal surgery this morning refuses the opioid pain medication for fear of addiction.The most informative response by the nurse is:
A)"Opioids are addictive, whereas nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are not."
B)"Addiction is mainly a matter of attitude."
C)"Fewer than 3% of people become addicted to drugs used for pain relief."
D)"Although addiction does occur, it is quickly reversed."
Q2) The nurse explains to the patient with neuropathic pain that the most effective pain control will be achieved through the use of: (Select all that apply.)
A)analgesics.
B)opioids.
C)antidepressants.
D)anti-inflammatory agents.
E)anticonvulsants.
Q3) Step: 2
A)Transmission
B)Modulation
C)Transduction
D)Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 40-year-old female who was diagnosed with a benign growth in her colon is concerned about the growth spreading.The nurse can allay her anxiety by explaining that benign neoplasms:
A)arrest their growth on their own.
B)never interfere with normal structures or functions.
C)are easily controlled with radiation.
D)are surrounded by fibrous tissue that prevents spread.
Q2) The nurse evaluated that the 50-year-old male recently diagnosed with early stage cancer of the prostate has begun to accept his diagnosis when he:
A)jokes, "Well, I guess this just about cancels any plans for a second honeymoon."
B)calls his lawyer to update his will.
C)requests current information on prostate cancer.
D)asks his wife to call their children home from college to visit.
Q3) The nurse cautions that stress over a long period of time can contribute to the risk for cancer as prolonged stress suppresses the ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rehabilitation nurse describes a patient who is blind,works full time as a Spanish interpreter,and lives with his wife in a downtown apartment.The nurse classifies this person as:
A)impaired.
B)disabled.
C)handicapped.
D)dependent.
Q2) When the nurse is assessing a bed-bound resident,a reddened area over the coccyx that does not blanch is discovered.The best intervention to prevent further skin damage is to:
A)cover with a transparent film dressing.
B)apply warm compress.
C)turn the patient every 2 hours.
D)continue to monitor the area.
Q3) The chief goal of a long-term care facility is to:
A)offer restorative services.
B)promote individual independence.
C)facilitate achievement of complete autonomy.
D)manage medication protocols.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The industrial nurse reminds all the middle-aged employees that they should get a tetanus booster every _____ years.
A)2
B)4
C)7
D)10
Q2) The outpatient clinic nurse is collecting a health history on a 78 year-old patient who has a history of emphysema.It is most important for the nurse to advise this patient to receive which annual immunization?
A)Tetanus
B)Influenza
C)Pneumonia
D)Hepatitis B
Q3) Of the assessments made by the nurse,the one indicating the immune system is functioning to combat an abscessed tooth is:
A)anorexia.
B)purulent expectorate.
C)foul breath.
D)enlarged cervical lymph node.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An HIV patient has lost more than 10% of her weight along with having diarrhea for the last 30 days.The nurse knows that these are indications of:
A)AIDS.
B)wasting syndrome.
C)an opportunistic infection.
D)anorexia.
Q2) The nurse is aware that more instruction is needed for the HIV-positive patient when she says:
A)"Latex condoms are the best."
B)"I could give my partner HIV without practicing safe sex."
C)"I should avoid pregnancy."
D)"Oral sex is safer and doesn't require a barrier."
Q3) Step: 3
A)HIV attaches to CD4 receptor sites on helper T cells.
B)Opportunistic infection occurs.
C)Infected cell replicates itself millions of times.
D)T helper cells fail to activate phagocytes.
E)Immune system is unable to respond effectively.
Q4) The nurse stresses that the primary emphasis on controlling HIV is __________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is preparing to write a care plan for the patient with fibromyalgia.Which nursing diagnosis best addresses this disorder?
A)Fatigue
B)Pain, chronic
C)Impaired physical mobility
D)Activity intolerance
Q2) The patient diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL)asks the nurse about treatment options.The nurse is aware that various treatment options exist,including: (Select all that apply.)
A)bone marrow transplantation.
B)peripheral stem cell transplantation.
C)injection of monoclonal antibodies.
D)radiation therapy.
E)high-dose continuous antibiotic therapy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse performing tracheal suctioning of the patient with a respiratory disorder should suction no longer than _____ seconds.
A)2 to 5
B)5 to 10
C)10 to 15
D)15 to 20
Q2) Step: 2
A)Place diaphragm of stethoscope above clavicles.
B)Listen in midaxillary line to level of diaphragm.
C)Move stethoscope from side to side down midline of the chest.
D)Place diaphragm of stethoscope above scapulae.
E)Move stethoscope side to side on either side of the spine.
Q3) The nurse assesses a patient's respirations who was recently admitted with a traumatic head injury.The nurse expects to find which type of breathing during the assessment?
A)Apneustic respiration
B)Cheyne-Stokes
C)Kussmaul's
D)Biot's
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing epistaxis.What should the nurses's initial intervention be to stop the epistaxis?
A)Have the patient lie back and hold ice to the nose.
B)Firmly pack the nostrils with gauze.
C)Press firmly on the area beneath the nose and lips.
D)Have the patient sit forward and pinch the soft part of the nose.
Q2) Step: 5
A)Wrap hand around fist.
B)Squeeze and thrust 5 times.
C)Make a fist.
D)Check status of breathing.
E)Position fist, thumb foremost, over umbilicus.
Q3) To help reduce the anxiety of a new tracheostomy patient,the nurse should:
A)be efficient in giving care quickly.
B)give care with minimal conversation.
C)delay teaching until tracheostomy is healed.
D)offer reassurance of awareness of apprehension.
Q4) The nurse encourages a patient with cancer of the larynx that the "near-total laryngectomy" is a new procedure that preserves the ability to __________ and to
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse reading a tuberculin skin test (TST)on a new employee who lives in the Midwest,is 20 years old,and has no known history of contact with any persons with tuberculosis (TB)will record it as positive if the area around the injection site has an area of swelling of _____ mm _____ hours after the injection.
A)15; 48
B)10; 72
C)5; 48
D)0 to 5; 72
Q2) The signs the nurse would expect to see in a patient with advanced emphysema are: (Select all that apply.)
A)productive cough.
B)dyspnea.
C)barrel chest.
D)wheezing.
E)cyanotic skin tone.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step: 1
A)Becomes a phagocyte
B)Becomes a macrophage
C)Engulfs bacteria
D)Migrates into tissues
E)Becomes a monocyte
F)Becomes a leukocyte
Q2) When the patient with pernicious anemia says,"I don't know why I am so tired," the nurse can clarify by saying that the fatigue is related to:
A)lack of oxygen being carried to cells of the body.
B)enlarged spleen, which makes breathing difficult.
C)proliferation of white cells.
D)excessive red cells that have decreased the blood pressure.
Q3) When reviewing the hematologic system,the student nurse is correct when making which statement?
A)"African Americans have the highest incidence of sickle cell disease."
B)"Iatrogenic blood disorders are congenital in origin."
C)"Folic acid is directly related to synthesis of hemoglobin."
D)"Bruising in the elderly patient is of great concern."
Q4) The normal range of hemoglobin is from _____ g/dL to _____ g/dL.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains that induction therapy for acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)is a(n):
A)intensive protocol of chemotherapy in high doses to achieve remission.
B)long-term protocol with smaller doses of chemotherapy to achieve a cure.
C)2- to 5-year low-dose chemotherapy regimen to reduce painful symptoms.
D)combination of chemotherapy and radiation to achieve remission.
Q2) The nurse is aware that bone marrow transplantation (BMT)is a treatment alternative for aplastic anemia for people under the age of ____________________.
Q3) The nurse stresses to the patient with sickle cell anemia that one of the most elementary home interventions to help prevent sickle cell crisis is to:
A)take iron supplements daily.
B)maintain adequate fluid intake.
C)engage in daily exercise.
D)eat leafy green vegetables.
Q4) The nurse instructs the 20-year-old female patient with sickle cell trait that:
A)the condition will evolve into sickle cell anemia as she ages.
B)all of her children will have sickle cell anemia.
C)the trait will be transmitted to male children only.
D)the trait can be passed on to all children.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse suspects arterial insufficiency in the 50-year-old patient when the feet and legs exhibit:
A)equal warmth.
B)shiny, hairless skin.
C)thin, brittle nails.
D)pedal edema.
Q2) The nurse is explaining to the patient how telemetry will be used during his time in the hospital to help in diagnosing his heart disorder.Which patient statement indicates understanding of teaching?
A)"I will need to stay in bed when the monitor is reading my heart waves."
B)"This test will help determine if I have a blockage in my arteries."
C)"If there is a problem with my heart valves it will show up with telemetry."
D)"The nurses will be able to monitor my heart rate and rhythm."
Q3) To hear a murmur best,the nurse should ask the patient to:
A)take a deep breath.
B)lean forward.
C)cough.
D)bear down.
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Q1) Because of reduced sensitivity of the baroreceptors in the older adult who is also on a diuretic,the nurse instructs the patient to:
A)walk for 20 minutes a day.
B)reduce sodium in the diet.
C)sit on the side of the bed before standing.
D)use a walker for all ambulation.
Q2) The home health nurse is alarmed that the hypertensive patient's blood pressure has risen to 200/160,but he denies any discomfort.The nurse interprets these assessments as being indicative of:
A)malignant hypertension.
B)hypertensive crisis.
C)essential hypertension.
D)secondary hypertension.
Q3) Hypertension is diagnosed by the finding of a blood pressure reading greater than:
A)120/80 twice, 2 weeks apart.
B)140/90 twice, 2 weeks apart.
C)120/80 on 3 consecutive days.
D)140/90 every day for a week.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient suffering from ventricular tachydysrhythmia may benefit from _________________ when medications are not effectively treating the disorder.
Q2) The nurse would anticipate that the patient with right-sided heart failure would exhibit:
A)wheezing.
B)orthopnea.
C)edema. D)pallor.
Q3) The nurse is caring for several patients on a cardiac care unit.The nurse is aware that the patient who is most likely to have the disorder of aortic stenosis is which patient?
A)35 year old with a history of mitral valve prolapsed
B)63 year old with uncontrolled diabetes
C)73 year old with a history of hypertension
D)86 year old with a history of atherosclerosis
Q4) The nurse expresses concern to the 80-year-old resident in a long-term care facility who is attempting to jog on a treadmill.The nurse is aware that the exceptional oxygen and metabolic demands brought on by the exercise might cause ____________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Step: 6
A)Platelets adhere to plaque.
B)Deposits of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) accumulate.
C)Fibrous plaque is laid down in vessel.
D)Streaks of fatty material are laid down in arteries.
E)Platelets clump.
F)Platelets calcify.
Q2) The nurse encourages the patient who has had a myocardial infarction (MI)to enroll in the outpatient cardiac rehabilitation service,which offers: (Select all that apply.)
A)diet counseling.
B)supervised progressive exercise.
C)stress reduction techniques.
D)sexual counseling.
E)administration of cardiotonic drugs.
Q3) The nurse explains that the pain of coronary artery disease (CAD)is related to:
A)congestion.
B)ischemia.
C)edema.
D)inflammation.

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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse requesting the patient to stick out the tongue and move it rapidly from side to side is assessing the __________ nerve.
A)hypoglossal
B)glossopharyngeal
C)vagal
D)abducens
Q2) The nurse differentiates the sympathetic from the parasympathetic nervous systems in that the sympathetic system:
A)provides energy for "fight or flight" in stressful situations.
B)slows the heart rate after a stressful situation.
C)supports deep sleep after large expenditures of energy.
D)relaxes blood vessels to counteract hypertension.
Q3) A patient is admitted to the hospital to rule out the possibility of bacterial meningitis.Which test will be most helpful in diagnosing this condition?
A)Magnetoencephalography (MEG)
B)Myelography
C)Cerebral angiography
D)Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis and culture
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Q1) The anxious mother of an adolescent who sustained a spinal injury yesterday and has paralysis of the lower limbs asks if the paralysis is permanent.Which response by the nurse is most helpful?
A)"Motor function sometimes returns after the edema of the spinal cord has subsided."
B)"Motor function may improve, but there will always be a deficit."
C)"In all likelihood the paralysis will be permanent."
D)"The physician is the best source for that information."
Q2) After an older adult falls,the nurse suspects the development of a subdural hematoma based on which assessment findings? (Select all that apply.)
A)Increasing irritability
B)Complaint of a dull headache
C)Frequent "nodding off" in chair during the day
D)Focal seizures
E)Staggering gait
Q3) The nurse is aware that increasing intracranial pressure can cause _____________ of the brain,which results in the brain impinging on the brainstem.
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Q1) The nurse is writing the care plan for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)patient who has partial left-sided paralysis and is experiencing ataxia.Which intervention will be beneficial for this patient?
A)Encourage the patient to ambulate as much as possible when she feels the energy to do so.
B)Ensure the patient receives pureed foods and thickened liquids.
C)Place the patient's call light on the right side of the patient and remind her to call for assistance before getting up.
D)Encourage the patient to use a communication board.
Q2) The patient with brain tumor-related hydrocephalus is to have a ventriculoperitoneal (V-P)shunt.The nurse explains that this surgical intervention will:
A)redirect the cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles to the peritoneum.
B)stimulate ventricles to reabsorb excess cerebrospinal fluid.
C)channel excess cerebrospinal fluid to the left atrium.
D)provide a port from which excess cerebrospinal fluid can be aspirated.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome.What will be the focus of nursing care? (Select all that apply.)
A)Assessment of advancing paralysis
B)Provision for ventilation support
C)Maintenance of adequate nutrition
D)Prevention of complications of immobility
E)Assessment of hypertension
Q2) The nurse outlines nutritional needs for the patient with multiple sclerosis (MS).What interventions should be emphasized for inclusion in the dietary intake? (Select all that apply.)
A)Intake of at least 1500 mL of fluid daily
B)Inclusion of high-fiber foods
C)A high carbohydrate level in the diet
D)Adding calcium and vitamin D
E)Ensuring a high fat content
Q3) The nurse is aware that the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS)is based on:
A)blood tests revealing identifiable MS markers.
B)lumbar puncture results revealing inflammatory response.
C)muscle biopsies revealing characteristic lesions.
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D)signs and symptoms assessed and reported by the patient.
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Q1) The nurse is teaching a group of schoolchildren about the relationship between diet and vision.The nurse encourages the ingestion of foods high in vitamin A.Which food is considered a good source of this vitamin?
A)Kale
B)Cauliflower
C)Strawberries
D)Apples
Q2) The nurse interviewing a patient with macular degeneration will inquire about the patient's habits,especially __________,which is a significant contributor to the disorder.
Q3) Step: 4
A)Expose the conjunctival sac.
B)Ask the patient to close the eyelids and move the eyes back and forth.
C)Ask the patient to look up.
D)Ask the patient to tilt the head toward the eye receiving the drops.
E)Drop medication in the conjunctival sac.
Q4) The receptors of light and color in the eyeball are the __________ and the __________.
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Q1) Step: 6
A)Ask patient to turn head to affected side.
B)Don gloves.
C)Direct continuous stream of fluid from inner to outer canthus.
D)Instruct patient to lie supine.
E)Hold lids apart with thumb and finger.
F)Have patient close eyes to move debris from upper eyelid to conjunctival sac.
Q2) Step: 3
A)Intraocular pressure exceeding 25 mm Hg
B)Optic nerve and retina damaged by ischemia
C)Permanent and irreversible vision impairment
D)Overproduction of aqueous humor
E)Continued high intraocular pressure restricting blood flow to optic nerve and retina
Q3) The nurse explains that the classic early warning symptom of a detached retina is:
A)tearing and swelling of the eye.
B)flashing colored lights in the eye.
C)bleeding into the anterior chamber.
D)intense brow pain.
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Q1) Rhythmic squeezing action of intestinal tract
A)Absorption
B)Peristalsis
C)Metabolism
D)Anabolism
E)Catabolism
Q2) Before a nurse can document the presence of diarrhea,the criteria for diarrhea should be met,which include: (Select all that apply.)
A)one loose stool in a 24-hour period.
B)multiple liquid or semiliquid stools in a 24-hour period.
C)hyperactive bowel sounds.
D)cramping.
E)fever.
Q3) To promote bowel health,the nurse recommends that the patient: (Select all that apply.)
A)exercise regularly.
B)include adequate bulk in the diet.
C)drink adequate water.
D)defecate at approximately the same time every day.
E)take a laxative to maintain a regular defecation pattern.
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Q1) The nurse caring for a 70-year-old patient with gastroenteritis following a camping trip to Mexico would anticipate which signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A)Positive stool culture for Giardia or Shigella
B)Abdominal cramping
C)Fat in the stool
D)Mucus in stool
E)Blood in stool
Q2) The nurse is presenting a program discussing bulimia nervosa to a group of student nurses.After the program,the participants correctly identify the methods of treatment including: (Select all that apply.)
A)antianxiety mediations.
B)antidepressant medications.
C)psychotherapy.
D)behavior modification.
E)increased exercise.
Q3) The nurse cautions that increased morbidity from hypertension and cardiac disease,even in children,is related to the modifiable risk factor of __________.
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Q1) Liquid and unformed stool
A)Ascending colostomy
B)Transverse colostomy
C)Descending colostomy
D)Ileostomy
E)Continent ileostomy
Q2) The nurse's instruction to the patient for peristomal skin care should include: (Select all that apply.)
A)gently removing the faceplate of the appliance to avoid skin irritation.
B)washing the peristomal area vigorously to rid the skin of fecal waste.
C)rinsing the area thoroughly.
D)applying a skin barrier to the peristomal area.
E)cutting the faceplate to allow a 1/2-inch opening around the stoma.
Q3) The nurse caring for a patient who has peritonitis and has developed a paralytic ileus assesses that the patient is passing gas.The assessment is an indication of:
A)gas forming in bowel contents.
B)the result of forceful vomiting.
C)returned peristalsis.
D)inadequate decompression.

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Q1) A patient with advanced cirrhosis develops esophageal varices as a direct result of portal hypertension.The nurse anticipates that this complication will be addressed by: (Select all that apply.)
A)insertion of a Blakemore-Sengstaken tube.
B)administration of IV vasopressin (Pitressin).
C)administration of vitamin B.
D)lactulose to empty swallowed blood in colon.
E)vasoconstrictors to reduced portal blood flow.
Q2) In a patient who had a cholecystectomy 3 days ago,the nurse assesses that the bile is no longer obstructed from entering the bowel by the appearance of:
A)excessive flatus.
B)dark brown stool.
C)dark urine.
D)increased appetite.
Q3) The nurse reinforces that the immunization for HBV is believed to provide _____ immunity.
Q4) The nurse explains that bile salts deposited in the skin cause jaundice and also cause _____.
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Q1) Step: 5
A)Transfer both crutches to the side of injury.
B)With weight on good leg, reach back and grasp chair arm.
C)Sit back in chair.
D)Turn slowly and touch backs of legs to seat of chair.
E)Using crutch and chair arm for support, slowly sit on chair.
Q2) The nurse is assessing the patient's crutches.The nurse recognizes that correctly sized crutches are:
A)the same height as the patient's shoulders.
B)approximately 12 inches shorter than the patient's shoulders.
C)approximately 16 inches shorter than the patient's height.
D)tall enough to allow the patient's arms to be fully extended when walking.
Q3) The nurse is discussing actions that can be taken to best prevent osteoporosis with a patient.The nurse's teaching should include:
A)taking an extra calcium supplement.
B)eating a balanced diet.
C)exercising throughout life.
D)eating daily amounts of milk products.
Q4) When a joint is obliterated by bony overgrowth,the joint is said to be _________.
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Q1) Step: 1
A)Medullary canal is reconstructed.
B)Mature bone cells form ossification.
C)Callus is formed.
D)Granulation tissue is formed.
E)Hematoma is formed between broken ends of bone.
Q2) Step: 4
A)Medullary canal is reconstructed.
B)Mature bone cells form ossification.
C)Callus is formed.
D)Granulation tissue is formed.
E)Hematoma is formed between broken ends of bone.
Q3) A patient in Russell's traction with a Pearson attachment for a fracture of the tibia complains of intense pain at the fracture site.The nurse assesses a temperature of 102° F and increased swelling at the fracture site.These assessment findings suggest:
A)osteomyelitis.
B)fat embolism.
C)traction misalignment.
D)nonunion of the fracture.

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Q1) The nurse explains that the urge to void occurs when the bladder contain as little as ______ mL of urine.
Q2) The student nurse is attempting to irrigate an indwelling catheter.Which action by the student nurse best indicates an understanding of the correct procedure to employ?
A)The student nurse uses steady gentle pressure.
B)The student nurse forces solution into the catheter to remove the obstruction.
C)The student nurse pulls back on the plunger if fluid will not enter the catheter.
D)The student nurse counts the amount of irrigation fluid as output.
Q3) Diminished urine
A)Anuria
B)Oliguria
C)Polyuria
D)Nocturia
E)Hematuria
Q4) The basic functional unit of the kidney is the ________.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for a child suspected of having acute glomerulonephritis.When reviewing the data collected,the nurse is most likely to note what in the health history?
A)Recent upper respiratory infection
B)Recent outpatient surgery
C)History of asthma
D)Recent history of gastroenteritis
Q2) A 25-year-old man comes to the college clinic with fever of 101° F and pain in the flank radiating into the thigh and genitals.He complains of nausea.The nurse recognizes these complaints as being indicative of:
A)urethritis.
B)pyelonephritis.
C)glomerulonephritis.
D)cystitis.
Q3) Vascular changes related to diabetes mellitus
A)Prerenal ARF
B)Intrarenal ARF
C)Postrenal ARF
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Q1) The corticoid that counteracts the inflammatory response is:
A)thyroxine.
B)cortisol.
C)insulin.
D)norepinephrine.
Q2) The nurse uses a visual aid to show the hormones the anterior pituitary secretes,including: (Select all that apply.)
A)growth hormone (GH).
B)thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C)antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
D)follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
E)luteinizing hormone (LH).
Q3) The nurse explains that the hormone that acts on bone to release calcium into the blood is:
A)thyroxine (T4).
B)thyrocalcitonin.
C)triiodothyronine (T3).
D)parathormone.
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing the health history of a patient.Which finding is most linked to the probability of developing Graves' disease?
A)Smoking
B)Long-term use of birth control pills
C)Habitual excessive alcohol consumption
D)Use of herbal remedies, such as St. John's wort
Q2) The nurse is preparing a patient to undergo a dexamethasone suppression test.Which action is most appropriate?
A)Instruct the patient to be NPO 6 hours before the test.
B)Instruct the patient that urine levels will be assessed after a 24-hour collection period.
C)Administer a steroid the morning of the test.
D)Instruct the patient that a blood specimen will be collected in the morning.
Q3) The nurse's major contribution to the care of a patient with Cushing's syndrome is that of __________ and __________.
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Q1) The diet of the diabetic is geared toward adequate nutrition and:
A)control of weight.
B)exclusion of all sweets.
C)increase in fats for energy.
D)avoidance of all fast foods.
Q2) At 2:00 AM,the CNA reports that a patient with type 1 diabetes is extremely wet with perspiration,is cool to the touch,and is complaining of hunger.The nurse should:
A)give insulin by sliding scale based on glucometer reading.
B)notify the night supervisor of the patient's deteriorating condition.
C)give 6 ounces of orange juice.
D)ambulate the patient in the hall to use up excess glucose with exercise.
Q3) Adult onset
A)Type 1
B)Type 2
C)Gestational
D)Prediabetes
Q4) The nurse explains that the three cardinal signs of type 1 diabetes mellitus are __________,__________,and __________.
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Q1) The nurse explains that the difference between primary infertility and secondary infertility is that primary infertility describes the inability to:
A)maintain a pregnancy past the first trimester.
B)conceive after 1 year of active unprotected sex.
C)deliver a viable infant after two pregnancies.
D)conceive after using a follicle stimulator for 1 year.
Q2) A 25-year-old woman who is not sexually active questions the nurse about the recommended frequency of Pap smears.What information should be provided?
A)Annual screening is recommended.
B)Screening is not needed for women who are not sexually active.
C)Screening in the woman who is not sexually active may be spaced every 5 to 7 years.
D)In the woman with negative screenings, the Pap test may be repeated every 2 years.
Q3) The nurse explains that BRCA1 and BRCA2 are:
A)genes involved with the inherited form of breast cancer.
B)enzymes that are markers for breast cancer.
C)particular proteins attached to the RBCs indicating presence of breast cancer.
D)laboratory tests performed on a breast biopsy to detect breast cancer.
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Q1) The wife of a patient who has just returned to the unit after a TURP is alarmed about the blood clots and pieces of tissue returning in the indwelling catheter bag.The nurse's best response is:
A)"Don't worry. All these patients bleed. It's no big deal."
B)"Blood clots and tissue are expected for the first few days."
C)"I'll notify the surgeon immediately. He will be able to stop this hemorrhage."
D)"Bleeding will completely clear up in about 8 hours."
Q2) Painful left-sided scrotal edema from clumping and dilation of vessels of the spermatic vein
A)Hydrocele
B)Varicocele
C)Priapism
D)Peyronie's disease
E)Torsion
Q3) The nurse reminds a 68-year-old man that a man of any age can reproduce if he:
A)can maintain an erection.
B)can ejaculate.
C)has a high sperm count.
D)can participate in intercourse.
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Q1) The nurse cautions that infections can enter the upper genital tract as the mucous plug becomes more permeable:
A)during intercourse.
B)during premenstrual period.
C)during postmenstrual period.
D)while on oral birth control pills.
Q2) A female patient comes to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain,a temperature of 101° F,and a foul-smelling,purulent vaginal discharge.These assessments lead the nurse to suspect:
A)pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).
B)gonorrhea.
C)syphilis.
D)vaginosis.
Q3) A gram-positive gonococcus is an organism that after being stained with crystal violet will:
A)fluoresce after counterstain is applied.
B)accept the counterstain.
C)retain the original stain after the counterstain is applied.
D)turn dark after the counterstain is applied.
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Q1) Chronic bacterial infection in skinfolds,especially axilla and between toes
A)Erythrasma
B)Wheal
C)Fungal infection
D)Keratosis
E)Keloid
Q2) To decrease the threat of a pressure ulcer,the nurse instructs a person who is in a wheelchair for long periods to:
A)reposition self every 2 hours.
B)lift weight on the arms of the chair every 15 minutes.
C)massage bony prominences of the buttocks and hips.
D)use a donut device to keep weight off of the buttocks.
Q3) The nurse lists the age-related changes to the integumentary system,which include: (Select all that apply.)
A)elastic fibers and adipose tissue diminish.
B)skin thins and becomes transparent.
C)hair thins as follicles decrease.
D)skin becomes dry.
E)thinned skin leads to intolerance of cold.
F)None of the above.
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Q1) Inflammatory response causing fluid shift
A)Edema
B)Hyperkalemia
C)Hypovolemia
D)Tissue hypoxia
E)Hypermetabolism
Q2) Appearance of vesicular lesions following inflammatory response
A)Contact dermatitis
B)Atopic dermatitis
C)Stasis dermatitis
D)Seborrheic dermatitis
Q3) The nurse admitting a patient with significant burns to the emergency department notes the presence of symptoms consistent with an inhalation burn.Which finding is the nurse most likely noting?
A)Full-thickness burns to chest
B)Hypotension
C)Agitation
D)Persistent coughing
Q4) Using the Parkland formula,the fluid needed for a person weighing 140 pounds with a 25% burn would be _____ mL.
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Q1) The nurse explains that health workers who are caring for people exposed to radiation after the explosion of a nuclear bomb are monitored daily for exposure by way of:
A)urinalysis.
B)radiation badges.
C)Geiger counters.
D)sputum analysis.
Q2) The nurse is aware that the plague,caused by Yersinia pestis,will most probably be introduced as an aerosolized weapon in a terrorist attack.Although exposed individuals can die in 24 hours,the organism is very vulnerable and can be destroyed by:
A)cold temperatures of 40° F.
B)exposure to sunlight.
C)strong chlorine solution.
D)dry environment.
Q3) Sucking chest wound,fully conscious
A)Red tag: emergent
B)Yellow tag: urgent
C)Green tag: nonurgent
D)Black tag: terminal
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Q1) The nurse assesses the frostbite on the victim's hands and feet to be second-degree frostbite because the skin is:
A)reddened and has hard white plaques.
B)waxy and has sensory deficits.
C)reddened and has blisters filled with milky fluid.
D)waxy and has blisters filled with blood.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient suspected of having heatstroke.Which findings are consistent with this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A)Bradycardia
B)Tachycardia
C)Irregular pulse patterns
D)Visual disturbances
E)Decreased urinary output
Q3) A restaurant patron sitting at the next table begins to choke.The patron yells,"I'm choking! I can't breathe!" The first responder should:
A)initiate the Heimlich maneuver immediately.
B)strike the victim sharply between the scapulae.
C)encourage him to keep coughing and deep breathe.
D)offer him a small sip of fluid.
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Q1) The nurse is reviewing the medical history of a patient who is being evaluated for anorexia nervosa.Which characteristic(s)would be consistent with the condition? (Select all that apply.)
A)Loss of 2 to 3 pounds in the past month
B)Binge eating
C)Frequent mood changes
D)Absence of three consecutive menstrual periods
E)Body weight less than 85% of what is expected for height and weight
Q2) A patient is considering having electroconvulsive therapy to treat his severe depression.Which statements indicate the patient has an understanding of the procedure? (Select all that apply.)
A)"My treatment plan will include treatments once every other month."
B)"The shock will cause me to have a short seizure."
C)"This treatment is often more successful than medications."
D)"I will have to be hospitalized the day before and after the treatments for observation."
E)"The treatments will be performed in the early morning hours."
Q3) The nurse takes into consideration that it is estimated that _____% of the population will have some form of anxiety disorder.
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Q1) The nurse is caring for an undernourished alcoholic patient.The nurse is helping the patient to select items from the menu.The patient's diet should ideally:
A)consist of at least 30% protein.
B)limit fat and cholesterol.
C)be limited to 2 g of sodium.
D)contain at least 50% carbohydrates.
Q2) The nurse is aware that before nurses can be effective in dealing with substance abusers,nurses must:
A)be familiar with self-help programs.
B)examine their own bias relative to substance abuse.
C)be knowledgeable about theories of addiction.
D)be consistent.
Q3) The nurse encourages the recovering alcoholic to participate in group therapy because of the major and long-lasting benefit of:
A)development of improved social skills.
B)progression toward sobriety.
C)provision of a sense of belonging.
D)increasing self-discipline.
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Q1) The patient with Alzheimer's wakes up at 2:00 AM moaning and frightened and begs that her husband's coffin be removed from her room.The nurse should:
A)turn light on and say, "There is no coffin here, Mrs. Smith. This is the dresser."
B)leave the light off and shine a flashlight on the dresser and say, "See! No coffin!"
C)turn the light on, assist patient to the bathroom, and say, "This is your dresser."
D)leave the light off and say, "You are in your room, Mrs. Smith."
Q2) Criteria established for the diagnosis of dementia include: (Select all that apply.)
A)evidence of cognitive deficits.
B)evidence of aphasia, apraxia, or agnosia.
C)impairment in social function.
D)impairments of occupational function.
E)neurologic signs and symptoms, such as ataxic gait.
F)None of the above.
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Q1) The nurse documents episodes of echolalia when,after the nurse has asked a catatonic patient,"Where is your hat?" the patient:
A)excitedly says, "Hat, cat, rat, fat, scat, splat!"
B)begins to cry and says, "I had a hat when my mother drove her yellow car."
C)repeatedly says, "Your hat, your hat, your hat."
D)places his hands on his head, saying, "Where is your hat?"
Q2) The nurse is aware that schizophrenia is a thought disorder that is characterized by psychotic features,which include: (Select all that apply.)
A)hallucinations.
B)sexual dysfunction.
C)delusions.
D)disorganized speech.
E)disorganized behavior.
Q3) The delusional patient rushes up to the nurse and begins to brush her uniform with his hands,saying,"I must get the weegos off of you!" The nurse recognizes that the word "weegos" is a(n)________.
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