Patient Care in Surgery
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Patient Care in Surgery is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and skills required for effective preoperative, intraoperative, and postoperative management of surgical patients. Emphasizing a multidisciplinary approach, the course covers patient assessment, surgical safety protocols, wound care, pain management, infection prevention, and the recognition and management of common surgical complications. Students will also explore principles of communication with patients and families, ethical considerations in surgical care, and the importance of teamwork within the surgical environment. Through case studies and practical experiences, this course prepares future healthcare professionals to provide safe, compassionate, and competent care in surgical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Berry and Kohns Operating Room Technique 13th Edition by Nancymarie Phillips
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45 Chapters
1229 Verified Questions
1229 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Perioperative Education
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perioperative experience teaches that minor procedures may be fairly quick,but still have risks such as
A)cardiac arrest.
B)hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
C)severe bleeding.
D)All the above
Answer: D
Q2) The perioperative caregiver should display attributes and communication skills that inspire confidence and trust in patients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Skills are best learned through
A)listening to an expert tell how to do it.
B)watching a movie about a task.
C)actual hands-on experience.
D)reading about it.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Foundations of Perioperative Patient Care Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Accountability means being responsible for only one's self.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Failure of a caregiver to provide accountability is considered negligence.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All are included in the definition of professionalism except
A)self-centered for profit group.
B)requires special skills and knowledge.
C)has its own standards and code of ethics.
D)acts responsibly to gain public trust.
Answer: A
Q4) Identifying the surgical site is always done by placing an "X" over the site.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Legal, regulatory, and Ethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assault is an unlawful physical threat to harm another person.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A "Never Event" as defined by CMS includes:
A)bariatric surgical procedure.
B)myocardial infarction.
C)poor blood sugar control.
D)coronary artery disease.
Answer: C
Q3) Negligence is
A)professional misconduct.
B)unreasonable lack of skill.
C)the failure to use care or skills that any caregiver in a similar situation might use.
D)illegal or immoral conduct.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Perioperative Patient Care Team and Professional Credentialing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sterile team may include a perianesthesia nurse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the scrub person's responsibility?
A)Establish and maintain the sterile field
B)Assist anesthesia providers with patient positioning
C)Complete procedure documentation and specimen requisitions
D)Maintain communication with waiting patient family members
Q3) What are the surgeon's duties?
A)Selection and performance of the surgery
B)Pre-operative diagnosis
C)Ethical surgical practice
D)All of the above
Q4) Why does credentialing exist?
A)To create revenue for the nursing profession
B)To maintain quality of the personnel's education and performance
C)To encourage professionals to further their education
D)To remain competitive with the medical profession
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Chapter 5: The Surgical First Assistant
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemostasis is provided by ________,___________,or thermal means.
Q2) The surgical first assistant's knowledge and skill level involves an understanding of A)surgical anatomy and physiology.
B)biochemical engineering.
C)psychomotor kinesiology.
D)advanced airway placement.
Q3) It is in the scope of the surgical technologists practice to hold retractors if asked by the surgeon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is an example of a physical hazard in the OR?
A)Medication
B)Needlestick injury
C)Prep solution
D)Anesthesia gases
Q5) The control of _______________ and ______________ loss is referred to as hemostasis.
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Chapter 6: Administration of Perioperative Patient Care Services
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Sample Questions
Q1) All perioperative team members must be certified in CPR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Basic policies are updates and statements of task-oriented and skill-oriented actions to be taken in the implementation of policies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________________ thinking is a way to improve the quality of care and help set standards to meet the needs of the facility and patient population.
Q4) An infection control committee investigates hospital-acquired infections and seeks to prevent or control them.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which is one aspect of downward violence in the workplace?
A)Physical abuse towards one's peers
B)Verbal abuse directed towards a lower-ranked employee
C)Verbal abuse towards one's administrative staff
D)Emotional abuse aimed at patient's families
8
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Chapter 7: The Patient: the Reason for Your Existence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is Sister Callista Roy's conceptual model for nursing?
A)Caring
B)Self-care
C)Adaptation
D)Transition
Q2) In order for a victim of sexual trauma to regain a sense of control and security,the caregiver must
A)not wear gloves and use quick, brisk moves.
B)create loud noises and speak in loud tones in order to distract the patient.
C)approach the victim with patience and understanding.
D)constantly touch the patient to assure her or him that the hospital is a safe environment.
Q3) What is one step a circulator can take when treating a patient who does not speak the same language being used in the operating room?
A)Speak loud and slow to the patient
B)Write all instructions on paper for patient or family to read
C)Use an interpreter to share information
D)Insist that the patient understands basic instructions before entering the OR
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Chapter 8: Perioperative Pediatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resting metabolic rate of an infant is about the same as an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is one of the most common causes of cardiac death within the first week of life?
A)Pulmonary fibrosis
B)Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
C)Aortic valve insufficiency
D)Ventricular septal defect
Q3) Neonates,infants,and children have a wider average body temperature than adults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A newborn's heart rate ranges from
A)120 to 140 beats per minute (bpm).
B)80 to 120 bpm.
C)110 to 130 bpm.
D)100 to 170 bpm.
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Chapter 9: Perioperative Geriatrics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Self-care deficit is a common nursing diagnosis when assessing the preoperative geriatric surgical patient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Subcutaneous fat deposits increase with age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A comorbidity is the existence of two or more diseases in one individual.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is one of the three influences that affect the way an individual ages?
A)Type of medication being taken
B)Family status
C)Genetics
D)Retirement age
Q5) Which is a negative myth of aging?
A)Endocrine system declines in aging adults.
B)Older adults do not engage in sexual behavior.
C)All body systems change during the aging process.
D)Comorbidities are frequently found in the geriatric population.
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Chapter 10: Physical Facilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many clocks should be in each OR?
A)At least three
B)One
C)Two
D)None
Q2) Which is one of three areas into which the surgical suite is divided?
A)Sterile area
B)Negative pressure area
C)Unrestricted area
D)Waiting area
Q3) In what room might a laparoscopic cholecystectomy be performed?
A)Endoscopy room
B)Interventional radiography room
C)Minimally invasive surgery room
D)Cystoscopy room
Q4) It is acceptable to prop OR doors open during or in between surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The OR temperature should be maintained within a range of _________________ to___ ° F and _________________to_____% humidity.(Insert numbers only.)
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Chapter 11: Ambulatory Surgery Centers and Alternative
Surgical Locations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a consideration that determines whether a procedure is performed at an ASC?
A)Duration of procedure
B)Cost of procedure
C)Availability of anesthesia staff
D)Patient infection rate
Q2) What type of outpatient surgery department is a self-contained unit located within or attached to the hospital but physically separate from the inpatient OR suite?
A)Office-based center
B)Hospital-based integrated unit
C)Hospital-based dedicated unit
D)Hospital-affiliated satellite surgery center
Q3) When would a patient receive a follow-up phone call from a nurse at an ASC?
A)4 hours after the procedure
B)Within 48 hours of the procedure
C)The following week
D)At the patient's postoperative visit with the surgeon
Q4) Use ____________________ patient identifiers when administering drugs or blood,taking blood samples,or providing treatments.
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Chapter 12: Care of the Perioperative Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) If sterile supplies for a case were opened at 1:00 PM with the room under surveillance,and the case did not begin until 3:30 PM,the sterile items would be contaminated because of the 2-hour delay of the case.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When is "terminal cleaning" done during the course of a day in the OR?
A)At the beginning of the day
B)In between each case
C)At the end of daily use
D)Every 4 hours
Q3) Patients with known respiratory-borne diseases are treated the same as all other patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Knife blades should be removed using a heavy hemostat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Turnover time is the time it takes to complete the surgery schedule.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Potential Sources of Injury to the Caregiver and the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one way to reduce static electricity?
A)Cover patients with wool or warmer synthetic blankets.
B)Keep the drapes away from the anesthesia machine and reservoir bag.
C)Keep the relative humidity in the perioperative environment between 20% and 30%.
D)Turn power equipment on before plugging into an electrical outlet.
Q2) Which is an example of a biologic hazard in the OR?
A)Back injury
B)Cytotoxic drug
C)Electricity
D)Infectious waste
Q3) When using a fire extinguisher,what mnemonic device can be recalled to help one remember the correct usage steps?
A)RACE
B)PACE
C)PASS
D)PULL
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Surgical Microbiology and Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a recommendation for caring for a surgical patient with TB?
A)Use reusable anesthesia equipment as often as possible.
B)Operate on these patients as soon as possible to decrease the spread of the secretions.
C)Use respiratory isolation precautions for those patients with a positive TB sputum culture.
D)Keep these patients in an isolation room with positive pressure ventilation.
Q2) Why would a broad-spectrum antibiotic drug be given before a surgical procedure?
A)To allow development of a super-resistant bacteria
B)To cover any potential surgical contamination
C)For procedures associated with high risk of infection
D)To assess for any sensitivity or allergic reaction
Q3) Which is a transmission route of viruses?
A)Vector contact
B)Insect bites
C)Skin-to-skin contact
D)Intact skin
Q4) Bacteria are very dangerous to humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Principles of Aseptic and Sterile Techniques
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32 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What PPE would you use if following standard precautions when moving a patient from the OR table to a stretcher?
A)Sterile gloves and gown
B)Lead vest and apron
C)Gloves and mask
D)Thyroid shield
Q2) If the scrub person must re-glove during a procedure,it is acceptable to pull the cuff down over the hand while putting on new gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once the patient's skin has been prepped with iodine solution,it is sterile and considered free of all flora.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The management of puncture wounds needs to be taken care of immediately. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Appropriate Attire, Surgical Hand Hygiene, and Gowning and Gloving
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Sample Questions
Q1) The appropriate OR attire for a visitor whose presence in the OR will be brief is a one-piece coverall,head cover,mask,and shoe covers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) As a sterile person gowning another member of the sterile team,where do you hold the opened gown for the other person?
A)At the waist and shoulders
B)At the shoulders and neckline
C)At both sleeves
D)At the chest and waist
Q3) Which of the following may be worn into the OR?
A)Pierced ear studs
B)Rings, watches
C)Dangling earrings
D)Necklaces or chains
Q4) When drying your hands after a surgical hand/arm scrub,it is acceptable to use the same end of the towel for both hands.
A)True
B)False
18
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Chapter 17: Decontamination and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a disadvantage of using ultraviolet (UV)irradiation as a means of disinfection?
A)The rays can kill selective vegetative bacteria, fungi, and lipoprotein viruses.
B)UV rays may cause skin burns.
C)UV rays produce nonionizing radiant energy.
D)Pathogens have effective contact with the UV rays for destruction.
Q2) When instruments need repairing,OR personnel may sharpen or repair surgical instruments as needed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surgical services central processing department (CPD or SPD)is usually located close to the main OR to minimize the potential for cross-contamination of soiled and clean instruments and supplies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Disinfection is the same as sterilization.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Sterilization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the six process-associated parameters associated with sterilization?
A)Steam quality
B)Wrapper capacity
C)Cost to operate radiation sterilization
D)Saturation and penetration
Q2) A closed-container system with moisture in the closed tray is considered unsterile and contaminated.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does Sterrad sterilization work?
A)Items don't need to be thoroughly rinsed before use.
B)They have low volatility.
C)It works by a strong vacuum.
D)Aeration is needed.
Q4) What is the preferred method for sterilizing talc?
A)Steam heat sterilization
B)Dry heat sterilization
C)EO gas sterilization
D)Glutaraldehyde sterilization
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Chapter 19: Surgical Instrumentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a type of dissector that might be used in an orthopedic surgical procedure?
A)Bone cutter
B)Snare
C)Curette
D)Adson forceps
Q2) If the surgeon or assistant is on the same side of the operating bed and to the right,which hand should the scrub pass with?
A)The right hand
B)Let the surgeon take the instrument from the mayo stand
C)Pass across the field
D)Pass with your left hand
Q3) What is not a valid function of a clip applier?
A)Used as an end-to-end anastomosis connector
B)Used to mark tissue
C)To occlude blood vessels
D)To close or occlude small lumens of tubes
Q4) It is acceptable to use a hemostat to load a blade onto a knife handle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Specialized Surgical Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the safest location for the placement of a dispersive electrode pad for a patient who has a total knee replacement on the left knee?
A)Left calf
B)Left thigh
C)Right thigh
D)Right knee
Q2) Which part of the body must be protected when using lasers?
A)The patient's eyes
B)The laser has minimal effect on tissue.
C)The caregiver's eyes
D)The caregiver's eyes and the patient's eyes, skin, and respiratory tract
Q3) There is a difference between electrosurgery and electrocautery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Instruments used in or near the laser beam should be reflective to enhance the laser's effect on the tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Preoperative Preparation of the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which topic would be reviewed in a preoperative phone call to a patient?
A)What type of vacation or illness coverage the patient will use when missing work
B)What type of financial coverage the patient will use to pay for the procedure
C)The patient's personal feeling towards the surgeon
D)NPO instructions that the patient must adhere to before surgery
Q2) The family of the surgical patient should be included in preoperative teaching.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Once the patient is placed on the OR table before a procedure,the circulating nurse does not need to be with the patient because the anesthesia provider will take over and start induction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Herbal or dietary supplements must be asked about and noted on the patient's chart preoperatively.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter
Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of biopsy involves removing the mass or entire structure from the body?
A)Brush
B)Excisional
C)Incisional
D)Smear
Q2) Sensory evoked potential (SEP)is useful in diagnosing which type of abnormality?
A)Hepatic tumor
B)Kidney stones
C)Acoustic neuroma
D)Air embolus
Q3) Venous impedance plethysmography measures reflux in the lower extremities.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What type of procedure does not enter the patient's body and uses equipment placed near the patient's skin?
A)Invasive
B)Interventional
C)Noninvasive
D)Percutaneous
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Chapter 23: Surgical Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of clinical trials is performed on 100 to 300 people with an actual disease process for which the drug is the proposed treatment for 2 years?
A)Phase I
B)Phase II
C)Phase III
D)Phase IV
Q2) Which is an example of an irrigation fluid?
A)Cardioplegia solution
B)Formalin
C)Ringer's lactate
D)Gelfoam
Q3) Which drug name describes the molecular components of the compound?
A)Official name
B)Chemical name
C)Brand name
D)Trade name
Q4) It is acceptable to recap and save saline left in a bottle for the next case.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Anesthesia: Techniques and Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emergency case cart should be near the surgical suite with resuscitative drugs and equipment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a method used to prevent "rewarming shock"?
A)Quickly induced vasodilation
B)Hypervolemia
C)Immediate blood transfusion
D)Adequate oxygenation
Q3) For what reason are neuromuscular blockers given?
A)Make the patient stay still
B)Smoother endotracheal intubation
C)Skeletal muscle relaxant
D)All of the above
Q4) A spinal headache is caused by persistent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)leaking through the dura.
A)True
B)False
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26
Chapter 25: Coordinated Roles of the Scrub Person and the Circulating Nurse
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Q1) The correct way for the scrub person to receive a local medication on the field is
A)to use a sterile syringe and hypodermic needle and draw up the drug offered from the circulating nurse.
B)to place a cup near the edge of the sterile table and have the circulator pour the drug from the container after removing the lid.
C)dispense the drug to the sterile field after confirming drug identification and expiration date with the scrub person.
D)to wrap the drug vial in a sterile drape and have the scrub person draw it up themselves.
Q2) What instrument should be immediately handed up after a suture ligature is passed to the surgeon?
A)A Kelly clamp
B)ESU pencil
C)Scissors
D)Mahoney dilator
Q3) Instrument counts are recommended for all surgical procedures.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Positioning,prepping,and Draping the Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A donut is a ring shaped device used to pad and protect only the head during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ can result when prep solutions pool underneath a patient's body or extremity.
A)Chemical burns or fire
B)Contamination
C)Infections
D)Toxicity
Q3) When rolling a patient from the stretcher to the OR bed,only the shoulder and arm should be grasped when transferring.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When placing a patient's arm on an armboard,what should be avoided?
A)Hyperabduction of the arm
B)Extra padding on the armboard
C)Placing the arm at a 90° angle
D)Secure the arm to the board
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Chapter 27: Physiologic Maintenance and Monitoring of the
Perioperative Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Central venous pressure (CVP)
A)measures left atrial blood pressure.
B)measures total body blood volume.
C)reflects the pressure in the major veins as blood returns to the heart.
D)measures cardiac output.
Q2) Pulmonary artery pressure
A)15 to 25 mm Hg
B)6 to 12 mm Hg
C)15 to 25 mm Hg systolic, 8 to 15 diastolic
D)3 to 6 mm Hg
Q3) What is the normal hourly urinary output?
A)5 to 10 mL/hr
B)10 to 20 mL/hr
C)30 to 60 mL/hr
D)Greater than 30 to 60 mL/hr
Q4) Cardiac output (CO)is measured to determine how many liters the right aorta pumps into the left ventricle.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Surgical Incisions implants and Wound Closure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of material can be used to retract skin or a vessel?
A)Cotton towel
B)Thyroid shield
C)Balfour retractor
D)Umbilical tape
Q2) What type of incision is typically used for an open appendectomy procedure?
A)Thoracoabdominal incision
B)Pfannenstiel incision
C)Inguinal incision
D)McBurney's incision
Q3) Which type of suture is less traumatic and glides easily through tissue?
A)Monofilament
B)Polyfilament
C)Unafilament
D)Bifilament
Q4) Which is an example of a synthetic nonabsorbable polymer?
A)Dermal silk
B)Surgical cotton
C)Stainless steel suture
D)Surgical nylon
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Chapter 29: Wound Healing and Hemostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is one of the four classifications of wounds?
A)Sterile
B)Clean
C)Aseptic
D)Traumatic
Q2) All tissues should be handled gently for complete hemostasis during the surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What influences the ease in which a skin incision is made?
A)Type of knife handle
B)The type of surgery
C)Toughness of skin or scar tissue
D)Excess tension on the skin or wound
Q4) Which is a preventive measure that should be followed to reduce postoperative wound infections?
A)Do not operate on infected patients.
B)Control exogenous infections.
C)Decrease number of air exchanges in the OR suite.
D)Increase turnover rate of cleaning OR suites in between cases.
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Chapter 30: Postoperative Patient Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one way a PACU nurse can assess a patient's pain level?
A)Palpating the surgical incision
B)Wait until they are crying
C)Asking the anesthesia provider whether the patient is experiencing pain
D)Using the FACES scale
Q2) When does the postoperative phase begin?
A)As soon as the surgery is over
B)When report is given
C)When the patient is admitted to the postoperative area
D)When the patient is home
Q3) The main focus of the PACU nurse is on A)discharge.
B)all physiologic processes.
C)circulation.
D)documentation.
Q4) Which is one piece of equipment needed for each patient bed space in the PACU?
A)Linen container
B)Suction equipment
C)Computer monitor for documentation
D)Bedside table
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Chapter 31: Potential Perioperative Complications
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Q1) What is the term for abnormal accumulation of water in extravascular portions of the lungs?
A)Atelectasis
B)Intercostal muscle spasm
C)Pneumothorax
D)Pulmonary edema
Q2) Which is a symptom of cardiac arrest?
A)Tachycardia
B)Reactive pupils
C)Warm skin
D)Absence of bleeding in surgical field
Q3) Shock can occur in the OR because of loss of heat and temperature during a surgical procedure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which vitamin is necessary in the clotting process?
A)Vitamin K
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin C
D)Vitamin E
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Chapter 32: Endoscopy and Robotic-Assisted Surgery
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Q1) After an endoscopic procedure,it is acceptable to evacuate the CO into the room air because the OR staff are wearing masks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One disadvantage of robotic-assisted surgery is the expensive equipment and startup cost needed to perform the procedures.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Natural Orifice Transluminal Endoscopic Surgery (NOTES)is a newer form of endoscopic surgery in which only two incisions are made on the patient's abdomen to remove an appendix or a gallbladder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The surgeon may place more than one trocar during puncture endoscopy. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: General Surgery
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Q1) An anastomosis is a surgically created opening in an organ that forms an exit from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Mammography is the only diagnostic technique to diagnose breast cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gastrostomy is a procedure involving the passage of a flexible fiberoptic gastroscope to inspect the mucosal walls of the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What organ is removed when performing a cholecystectomy?
A)Colon
B)Gallstones
C)Pancreas
D)Gallbladder
Q5) Once the abdominal cavity is entered,all free 4 ´ 4 sponges should be removed from the field.
A)True
B)False
35
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Chapter 34: Gynecologic and Obstetric Surgery
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Q1) Which female organ can expand,receive,and hold a fertilized ovum during development of a fetus?
A)Bartholin's glands
B)Hymen
C)Cervix
D)Uterus
Q2) Which of the following may be used to obtain a cone biopsy?
A)Hot knife
B)ESU
C)Laser
D)Curette
Q3) What term describes the herniation of the rectum into the vagina?
A)Enterocele
B)Hydrocele
C)Cystocele
D)Rectocele
Q4) Intrauterine thermal balloon ablation is contraindicated for women wishing to have future pregnancies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: Urologic Surgery
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Q1) What anatomic structure may be viewed through a cystoscopy?
A)Kidney
B)Renal vein
C)Renal pelvis
D)Bladder
Q2) Removal of one or both kidneys
A)Nephrectomy
B)Pyeloplasty
C)Prostatic hypertrophy
D)Phimosis
E)Varicocele
F)Penectomy
G)Orchiectomy
H)Hydrocele
I)Vasovasostomy
Q3) What is created when both ureters are anastomosed to the terminal ileum?
A)Colostomy
B)Ileal conduit
C)Nephrostomy
D)Cutaneous ureterostomy
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Chapter 36: Orthopedic Surgery
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Q1) Which kinds of tissues are slow healers and join the articular surfaces of bones and cartilage?
A)Joints
B)Muscle
C)Periosteum
D)Ligaments
Q2) Arthritis is a main cause of joint pain and usually results in the patient receiving a total joint replacement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of laser may be used via an arthroscope?
A)Diode
B)Argon
C)Carbon dioxide
D)Ruby
Q4) What does ORIF stand for?
A)Offer surgical treatment
B)Open reduction and internal fixation
C)Close reduction fix later
D)Operating room ready if necessary
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Chapter 37: Neurosurgery of the Brain and Peripheral Nerves
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Q1) What procedure is performed to suture a divided nerve?
A)Neurolysis
B)Neurectomy
C)Neurexeresis
D)Neurorrhaphy
Q2) A galea is defined as
A)a tough, highly vascular tissue over the cranium.
B)the skin layer over vessels and muscles in the brain.
C)lining of the cranium and spinal cord.
D)the circulating fluid that helps bathe the brain.
Q3) Which is a layer of the meninges?
A)Cerebral mater
B)Frontal mater
C)Dura mater
D)Temporal mater
Q4) Which is one of the most common brain tumors?
A)Basal cell sarcoma
B)Glioblastoma multiforme
C)Subdural hematoma
D)Cranioglioma
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Chapter 38: Spinal Surgery
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Q1) A hemangioblastoma is a vascular tumor more commonly found in the cervical or thoracic area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which type of diagnostic tool is most effective at diagnosing spinal injuries?
A)Radiograph
B)PET scan
C)Ultrasound
D)MRI
Q3) Which specific need of the spinal cord injury patient must be addressed after the injury?
A)Temperature control
B)Tactile sensation
C)Loss of vision
D)Loss of hearing
Q4) Which of the following body systems can be affected by scoliosis?
A)Reproductive system
B)Respiratory system
C)Genitourinary system
D)Neurological system
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Chapter 39: Ophthalmic Surgery
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Q1) Who is a candidate for radial keratotomy?
A)Farsighted individuals
B)Blind individuals
C)Nearsighted individuals
D)Individuals with cataracts
Q2) Which is a classification of cataracts?
A)Congenital
B)Intermediate
C)Opaque
D)Full thickness
Q3) Which is the mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and the exposed surface of the sclera except the cornea?
A)Lens
B)Conjunctiva
C)Cataract
D)Cornea
Q4) Retrobulbar blocks are injected into the soft tissue superior and inferior to the globe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery
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Q1) Which is a reason that replantation of amputated parts would be contraindicated?
A)The ischemic part has been kept dry at a cooled temperature.
B)Intact subcutaneous venous circulation is present in the skin bridges.
C)The injury involves severe bruising or a crushing injury.
D)The patient has not received a tetanus shot.
Q2) The rule of sevens chart is used to estimate burn injury in the adult.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of graft remains attached at one or both ends of the donor site during its transfer to the recipient site?
A)Free graft
B)Free flap
C)Pedicle flap
D)Vascular flap
Q4) Which type of surgical treatment is preferred for deep partial-thickness burns of the hands,arms,or legs?
A)Excisional debridement
B)Escharectomy
C)Tangential excision
D)Partial hyperbaric oxygen
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Otorhinolaryngologic and Head and Neck Surgery
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Q1) Which is a type of major salivary glands?
A)Suboral
B)Subarticular
C)Submandibular
D)Suborbital
Q2) Communication is a major problem for patients with hearing loss.What is an effective means of showing concern?
A)Sign language
B)Smile
C)Touch
D)Ignore them
Q3) What type of procedure involves the removal of the tongue and the use of a free flap?
A)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
B)Glossectomy
C)Laryngectomy
D)Mucogingivoplasty
Q4) Patients having a procedure,such as a laryngoscopy,that involves the use of a laser should have their eyelids ______________ and their face covered with a
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Chapter 42: Thoracic Surgery
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Q1) Air in the pleural space
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
Q2) Collection of pus and fluid in intrathoracic spaces
A)Hemothorax
B)Pectus carinatum
C)Mediastinal shift
D)Thoracic outlet syndrome
E)Hiatal hernia
F)Pectus excavatum
G)Empyema
H)Pneumothorax
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Chapter 43: Cardiac Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid heartbeat
A)Endarterectomy
B)Laser angioplasty
C)Intraaortic balloon pump
D)Intracoronary stent
E)Extracorporeal oxygenation
F)Cryoablation
G)Ventricular aneurysmectomy
H)Tachycardia
I)Transmyocardial revascularization
J)Cardiac transplantation
Q2) What describes the use of solution delivered through a catheter during cardiac surgery?
A)MRI
B)Defibrillator
C)Argon beam coagulator
D)Cardioplegia
Q3) The most common complication after cardiac surgery is stroke.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Vascular Surgery
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Q1) Which is one of the three layers of the arterial walls?
A)Semilunar
B)Popliteal
C)Intima
D)Mediastinal
Q2) Which is a potential serious complication of a carotid endarterectomy?
A)Keloid scar formation
B)Brain injury due to embolized plaque
C)Inflammation due to scar formation
D)Anaphylactic reaction to thrombin
Q3) What is the most common arterial disease?
A)Embolus
B)Venous stasis disease
C)Atherosclerosis
D)Varicose veins
Q4) Which is a predisposing factor to venous stasis disease?
A)Hyperkalemia
B)Low socioeconomic status
C)Obesity
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
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Chapter 45: Organ Procurement and Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two organs can be removed from nonheartbeating donors?
A)Skin and bone
B)Kidney and pancreas
C)Heart and liver
D)Lung and liver
Q2) Presence of which disease is an indication for a bone marrow transplantation?
A)Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B)Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
C)Myelogenous leukemia
D)Graft-versus-host disease
Q3) What act is recognized by all 50 states as a legal consent for organ donation?
A)Organ Transplant Registry Act
B)United Network for Organ Sharing Act
C)Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
D)Total Organ Perfusion System
Q4) What areas of the body is donor bone marrow taken from?
A)All bones
B)Ribs
C)Iliac crests and sternum
D)Sternum and femur
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