Patient Care in Acute Settings
Question Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills necessary for delivering effective patient care in acute healthcare settings. Emphasizing the assessment and management of patients with urgent or life-threatening conditions, the curriculum covers rapid patient evaluation, prioritization, intervention strategies, emergency procedures, and interdisciplinary collaboration. Students learn to recognize and respond to clinical deterioration, implement evidence-based practices, communicate with patients and families, and ensure patient safety and comfort during acute episodes. Through case studies, simulations, and hands-on experiences, learners develop the competence and confidence required to perform in dynamic and high-pressure acute care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Surgical Nursing Clinical Management for Positive Outcomes Single Volume 8th Edition
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Chapter 1: Health Promotion and Disease Prevention
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is presenting information at a community forum related to pneumonia. The nurse informs the audience that people who should receive the pneumococcal vaccine include those who (select all that apply).
A) are over age 65 and had a vaccination more than 5 years ago.
B) are under age 65 and are alcoholics.
C) are under age 65 with chronic illnesses.
D) are over age 65 and have never had pneumococcal pneumonia before.
E) are over the age of 65.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) The nurse is counseling an overweight young man on entry into a weight reduction and exercise program. The nurse is aware that the client is most likely to begin and maintain the program if he
A) can envision himself as thinner.
B) feels competent about making the change.
C) has read about the program.
D) is aware of being overweight.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Health Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is brought to the emergency department in serious condition and needs an operation within the next hour. Which of the following principles does the nurse use to guide the health history? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess the client's current health status.
B) Collect data pertinent to the immediate problem.
C) Strive to collect only pertinent data while being thorough.
D) Update the database when the client's condition allows.
E) Use a systematic approach to gather the client's entire health history.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Q2) The nurse collecting data on a client's social history asks questions regarding the client's (select all that apply)
A) exposure to communicable diseases.
B) home life.
C) immunization history.
D) lifestyle.
E) social roles.
Answer: A, B, D, E
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Chapter 3: Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is confused about the best way to confirm placement of a small flexible feeding tube before giving a bolus feeding. Colleagues on the unit suggest several different methods. The best process by which to determine a policy outlining the appropriate course of action is
A) critical reasoning.
B) evidence-based practice.
C) problem solving.
D) professional judgment.
Answer: B
Q2) It is crucial for the nurse to be able to make sound decisions using critical thinking because
A) it is the most efficient use of the nurse's time and resources.
B) it uses previously learned knowledge in predictable situations.
C) most clients have problems for which there are no textbook answers.
D) nurses can recognize problems rapidly and provide speedy responses to situations.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client asks the nurse about the use of therapeutic herbs, the nurse's most instructional response would be
A) "Herbs are not regulated and may pose health risks if used with prescribed drugs."
B) "Herbs have many qualities; some effects are good, and some are not."
C) "I have heard many people have used some herbal remedies and had good results."
D) "If you are getting relief from some herbal remedy, there is probably no harm in it."
Q2) A nurse understands that many conventional drugs are derived from plants, such as A) meperidine (Demerol).
B) penicillin.
C) quinine.
D) steroids.
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6
Chapter 5: Ambulatory Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When considering culture as the nurse is designing health plans for clients, the ambulatory care center nurse will consider least the cultural concept of
A) making food modifications culturally appropriate.
B) recognizing that cultural family roles may be rigidly defined.
C) reflecting on research data describing culturally motivated responses.
D) understanding that some cultures reject female authority.
Q2) The purpose of the mutual recognition model (MRM), implemented through an interstate contract, is to
A) ensure an increasing supply of nurses entering the work force.
B) monitor the number of nurses working in more than one field of specialty.
C) provide educational incentives for nurses to continue working full-time.
D) reduce barriers to interstate nursing practice.
Q3) The facility that could best represent an ambulatory care center is a A) home health care agency.
B) hospital with less than 50 beds.
C) rehabilitation center.
D) student health center.
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Chapter 6: Acute Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a nurse is able to work effectively in more than one care area (e.g., general medical-surgical, and cardiac care unit), the nurse is said to be A) cross-trained.
B) flexibly assigned.
C) nursing intense.
D) skill mixed.
Q2) A registered nurse (RN) seeking work in a voluntary health agency would choose a A) church-affiliated hospital.
B) proprietary hospital.
C) state university hospital.
D) veterans administration (VA) hospital.
Q3) The nurse who is delegating care to unlicensed assistive personnel should keep in mind that most of these workers have an educational background consisting of A) completion of high school.
B) less than 1 year of college.
C) more than 1 year of college.
D) on-the-job experience.
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Chapter 7: Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse admitting clients to the critical care unit understands that priority clients for this area are those who need
A) a cleaner environment to prevent nosocomial infections.
B) continuous physiologic monitoring.
C) frequent vital sign checks.
D) private rooms conducive to rest and sleep.
Q2) The population that is increasingly using critical care units and needing specialized nursing care is the population of
A) elderly.
B) middle-age adults.
C) underserved pregnant women.
D) uninsured.
Q3) A nurse who is acting in a manner that respects and supports the client's and family's basic rights, values, and beliefs is functioning in which professional role?
A) Advocate
B) Caregiver
C) Critical thinker
D) Manager
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Chapter 8: Home Health Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a client that the person who would be most likely to receive home health care is the client who is
A) 65-years-old with a wrist fracture.
B) 68-years-old with a cataract in one eye.
C) 72-years-old with diabetes mellitus.
D) 74-years-old with a hearing impairment.
Q2) Consumer need and demand for home health care have increased dramatically in recent years because of (Select all that apply)
A) the advent of Medicare reimbursement for home care.
B) the closing of acute care hospital beds.
C) escalating health care costs.
D) increased consumer demand.
E) lack of services available in the hospital.
Q3) The home health nurse explains that her philosophy is based on the belief that clients should
A) adhere to the care plan generated by the nurse.
B) alter cultural practices to meet health needs.
C) be knowledgeable about their health care.
D) feel no responsibility for their health care.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Long-Term Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) In regard to nursing services in a long-term care facility, OBRA regulations include
A) a director of nursing that holds at least a master's degree in health administration.
B) availability of vocational nurses on each unit 24 hours a day, 7 days a week.
C) the presence of at least four direct caregivers on duty per unit for each shift, regardless of census.
D) the provision of nursing personnel consistent with the level of care and needs of residents.
Q2) The nurse admitting a new resident to a long-term care facility is mindful that after the resident is assessed, a care plan must be written within
A) 1 day.
B) 3 days.
C) 5 days.
D) 7 days.
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11
Chapter 10: Rehabilitation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rehabilitation nurse stresses that the major focus in a rehabilitation setting is
A) acquisition of services for the newly discharged client.
B) elimination of clinical manifestations.
C) prevention of disease progression.
D) skills' instruction for independence.
Q2) A rehabilitation nurse scores the client at "1" in a functional area on the FIM. This means the client has
A) full independence in that area.
B) independence in that area with use of an assistive device.
C) partial dependence in need of significant assistance.
D) total dependence.
Q3) The nurse makes sure that the client and the family understand that in the transdisciplinary approach, the entire team
A) estimates the time required for full functioning.
B) identifies a primary therapist.
C) limits what each discipline will offer.
D) sets team goals during transdisciplinary meetings.
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Chapter 11: Clients with Fluid Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with hyponatremia is on a fluid restriction diet and complains of extreme dry mouth. Interventions the nurse can include in the plan of care include (Select all that apply)
A) encouraging the client to take warm, not cold, fluids.
B) giving the client ice chips instead of water.
C) increasing the frequency of oral care.
D) instructing the client to hold ice chips in the mouth.
E) using a commercial mouthwash every 2 hours.
Q2) The nurse working with elderly clients in a nursing home assesses them for dehydration closely because the clients (Select all that apply)
A) are more susceptible to developing ascites and anasarca.
B) experience interactions among drugs they may take for chronic illnesses.
C) have a decreased proportion of body water as compared to fat.
D) may be demented and not realize they need to drink.
E) probably have a diminished sense of thirst.
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Chapter 12: Clients with Electrolyte Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is being discharged after successful treatment for hyperphosphatemia. The nurse would know that diet teaching has been effective when the client says, "I can't eat large amounts of
A) bananas."
B) dairy products."
C) fatty foods."
D) green leafy vegetables."
Q2) A client has end-stage renal disease and is going to start dialysis this week. The nurse is aware the client is at most risk for which electrolyte imbalance?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypophosphatemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Q3) The factor in the client's history that the nurse assesses as a risk for the development of hypermagnesemia is
A) Addison's disease.
B) gastrointestinal disease.
C) vomiting.
D) water intoxication.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assigned to a client with insulin-dependent diabetes who was brought to the emergency department because of shortness of breath and confusion. On admission, the client's blood glucose level is 720 mg/ml, and ABG values are pH of 7.28, PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 35 mm Hg, and bicarbonate level of 15 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these readings as indicating
A) compensated metabolic acidosis.
B) compensated respiratory acidosis.
C) uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
D) uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Q2) The nurse is caring for a client who has developed metabolic acidosis and has an anion gap of 12 mEq/L. The nurse informs a family member that this finding indicates that the client's acidosis is caused by A) accelerated lipid metabolism.
B) an increase of fixed acid. C) increases in carbonic acid.
D) loss of bicarbonate.
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Chapter 14: Clients Having Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client who had spinal anesthesia will ensure that the plan of care includes
A) administering oxygen to reduce the hypoxia produced by spinal anesthesia.
B) elevating the client's feet to increase the blood pressure.
C) elevating the head of the bed to decrease nausea.
D) instructing the client to remain flat in bed for 6 hours.
Q2) A client calls the Telehealth nurse on the third postoperative day and describes a "giving way" sensation in the abdomen that occurred after coughing. To assess for a possible evisceration, the nurse asks if
A) bright-red bleeding from the wound edges is seen.
B) fascia or internal organs are visible.
C) fecal material is draining from the wound site.
D) large amounts of pus are draining.
Q3) Before administering the preoperative medication, the nurse should
A) ensure that the permit has been properly signed.
B) have the unlicensed assistive personnel call for transportation.
C) make sure there is nothing else left to do.
D) take and record a set of vital signs.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Perspectives in Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse counseling a couple about genetic disorders explains that Tay-Sachs disease is a genetically linked disorder seen in 7% of the
A) African-American ethnic group.
B) Ashkenazi Jewish ethnic group.
C) Hispanic ethnic group.
D) Northern European ethnic group.
Q2) A nurse providing genetic counseling explains that when one parent has an autosomal dominant gene for an inherited disease, the chances of the child being affected are
A) 10%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 100%.
Q3) The Human Genome Project (HGP) was begun in 1990 to A) alter the course of inherited disorders.
B) clone an animal, then a human.
C) determine the location of genes on chromosomes.
D) replicate the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
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17
Chapter 16: Perspectives in Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) After explaining how malignant cells differ from normal cells to a client with breast cancer, the nurse knows the client understands the characteristics of malignant cells when the client says "Malignant cells
A) are larger than normal cells and have designated purposes."
B) cannot grow if inflammation is present."
C) develop chromosomal abnormalities as they mature."
D) develop the same antigens as normal cells do."
Q2) A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation clinic. What information about smoking does the nurse include in the teaching component of the program?
A) A pack-year history is the length of time, in years, a person has smoked.
B) Smokeless tobacco is harmless because the carcinogens have been removed.
C) Smoking causes more cancer in the United States than do all other causes combined.
D) The risk of cancer for someone who stops smoking does not improve.
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Chapter 17: Clients with Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is receiving interleukin-2 (IL-2) as part of the therapeutic plan to manage malignant melanoma. The nurse should emphasize the ability of this agent to
A) increase oxygenation to cells that are not malignant.
B) physically dissolve the tumor mass.
C) replace damaged and diseased cells from bone marrow.
D) strengthen the client's immune response.
Q2) The nurse can best avoid catheter occlusion in a client with a recently inserted venous access device (VAD) by
A) administering medications in small volumes.
B) flushing the catheter per agency protocol.
C) instructing the client to keep the arm extended during administration.
D) using the catheter only for vesicant drugs.
Q3) When there is extravasation of vincristine (Oncovin), the nurse should initially
A) apply cold compresses to the site.
B) apply manual pressure to delay further circulation.
C) call the physician immediately.
D) leave the cannula in place and aspirate.
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Chapter 18: Clients with Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client receiving wet-to-dry dressings for mechanical debridement of a large wound would be aware that proper technique requires that the dressing should
A) be left in place about 12 hours.
B) be removed when it is totally dry.
C) cause slight bleeding when removed to be effective.
D) only be moist, not wet, when applied.
Q2) When caring for a client with a wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse considers during care planning that this type of wound is
A) healed with skin grafts.
B) prone to dehiscence.
C) sealed with sutures.
D) susceptible to infection.
Q3) A client's dressing orders include calcium alginate (Kalistat). The nurse instructs the client that this application is appropriate for a(n)
A) black wound.
B) draining wound.
C) infected wound.
D) red wound.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Perspectives on Infectious Disease and Bioterrorism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is explaining defense mechanisms to a client and uses the representative barrier example in the first line of defense known as
A) antigen-antibody reaction.
B) cell-mediated immunity.
C) inflammatory response.
D) pH of vaginal secretions.
Q2) A client is taking a 3-week diving vacation in a foreign country and will be staying at a local hotel known for its native food. The nurse cautions the client that a common traveler's infection is giardiasis, and that the client should be cautious about
A) eating food and drinking beverages prepared in the foreign country.
B) flying on an airplane in close contact with other persons.
C) swimming in the coastal waters of the foreign country.
D) taking the necessary inoculations required to travel.
Q3) The nurse can best instruct a client to avoid the acquisition of hookworm by
A) advising the client not to eat raw pork products.
B) advising the client to drink only bottled water when traveling.
C) encouraging the client to wear shoes outdoors.
D) teaching the client good hand-washing technique.
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Chapter 20: Clients with Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the client complains of nausea after receiving his first dose of morphine for pain, the nurse should
A) encourage the client to wait as long as possible for the next dose.
B) give only half of the prescribed dose of morphine the next time.
C) instruct the client that with continued use the nausea will lessen.
D) withhold the next dose of morphine until re-evaluation by the physician.
Q2) A client's leg was pinned under a piece of heavy equipment in the workplace for several hours, during which he was in severe pain. The physiologic response that the occupational health nurse could have assessed in this situation is
A) a wide pulse pressure.
B) constricted pupils.
C) dry, cold skin.
D) tachycardia.
Q3) To provide the best care to a client having pain, the nurse must assess which information in addition to using a pain measuring scale?
A) A record of any healing taking place in damaged tissue
B) Objective measurements of the tissue damage
C) The client's perception of the pain
D) The type of pain fibers conducting the pain
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Perspectives in Palliative Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse alerts a family member about the client's imminent death because the nurse has assessed the cardiovascular indicator of
A) bradycardia.
B) fluctuating blood pressure.
C) irregular heart rate.
D) narrowing pulse pressure.
Q2) A hospice client is clearly dehydrated and the family is arguing over whether or not the client should receive intravenous fluids. The nurse would guide this discussion based on what knowledge about dehydration in the terminally ill client?
A) If the terminally ill client complains of thirst, he/she is dehydrated.
B) Peripheral edema in the terminally ill client indicates fluid overload.
C) The emphasis of all treatments should be on comfort and reduction of symptoms.
D) The only choices for hydration are oral and intravenous.
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Chapter 22: Clients with Sleep and Rest Disorders and Fatigue
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Q1) A client has mild obstructive sleep apnea syndrome (OSAS). The nursing teaching plan should include information regarding
A) alternate sleeping positions.
B) breathing exercises.
C) foods high in vitamin B2.
D) scheduling regular naps.
Q2) The nurse explains to a client with severe depression and who takes tricyclic antidepressants that the effectiveness of this type of medication may be a result of A) increased stage 4 sleep.
B) prevention of night awakenings.
C) prevention of sleep terrors.
D) suppression of REM sleep.
Q3) The nurse would explain to a client with a sleep disorder that alcohol intoxication
A) decreases REM sleep.
B) increases sleep latency.
C) increases stage 4 sleep.
D) promotes periodic limb movements.
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Clients with Psychosocial and Mental Health
Concerns
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Q1) The nurse attempting to develop a plan of care that addresses a client's spirituality should incorporate measures to address
A) broad concepts related to values, meaning, and purpose.
B) only those individual aspects of the self that the client has shared with the nurse.
C) the client's religion and the specific degree of participation in the church.
D) the personal relationship between God and the client.
Q2) A home health nurse is visiting a client living with his parents who has severe depression and is considered at risk of suicide. When the client refuses to sign a "no harm" contract, the most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) call 911, explaining that there is a psychiatric emergency.
B) instruct family members to keep a close watch on the client.
C) schedule another visit for the following day.
D) telephone the physician for a referral to a psychiatric nurse.
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Chapter 24: Clients with Substance Abuse Disorders
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Q1) A nurse works with another nurse who has been coming to work with red eyes and flushed face and is increasingly irritable. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A) Ask another co-worker what he/she thinks about the situation.
B) Document questionable incidents and relay them to the manager.
C) Leave the co-worker alone as it is obvious he/she has personal problems.
D) Work alongside the colleague so there are no mistakes.
Q2) During history-taking, a client tells the nurse that he is addicted to caffeine and that he drinks 10 to 12 cups of coffee a day as well as several cola drinks and iced tea. The nurse would warn the client that during his NPO status for surgery, he should expect to experience
A) diarrhea.
B) euphoria.
C) headache.
D) itching.
Q3) The nurse teaching a client taking disulfiram (Antabuse) should focus on
A) abstaining from alcohol ingestion.
B) daily exercise.
C) emotional support for the family.
D) skin care.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Assessment of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The nurse assisting with an arthrocentesis provides which intervention after the procedure is over? The nurse
A) applies a compression dressing.
B) gives the client a tetanus shot.
C) teaches the client crutch-walking.
D) wraps a heating pad around the knee.
Q2) To evaluate a client's swollen right knee further, the nurse should first A) compare the right knee to the left knee.
B) palpate for crepitus.
C) put the knee through range of motion.
D) test muscle strength.
Q3) The client who has osteoarthritis describes a grating sound in the hip. The nurse explains that this bothersome manifestation is related to A) bursa enlargement.
B) joint irregularities.
C) normal findings with age.
D) the presence of fluid.
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Chapter 26: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) On admitting a client with acute osteomyelitis, the nurse is not surprised at the client's complaint of
A) generalized bone pain.
B) localized pain and redness.
C) nausea and vomiting.
D) paresthesias in the affected extremity.
Q2) On admission assessment of a client with Paget's disease, the nurse would anticipate the client to complain of
A) continuous bone pain.
B) fever in the afternoon.
C) pain on ambulation.
D) swelling at site of deformity.
Q3) As a beneficial exercise program, the nurse teaching a group of clients with osteoarthritis would suggest
A) daily vigorous aerobic exercise followed by a warm shower or bath.
B) minimal exercise several times daily, followed by rest periods.
C) regular daily, low-impact exercise program.
D) strength-building exercises with weights or resistance.
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Chapter 27: Management of Clients with Musculoskeletal
Trauma or Overuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse in the emergency department caring for a client with an anterior dislocation of the knee should have as a priority the assessment of A) capillary refill of the toes.
B) degree of misalignment in the limb.
C) degree of pain in the joint.
D) mobility in the affected limb.
Q2) The complaint of proximal thigh pain in an older client who has fallen leads the nurse to suspect a hip fracture and that the location of the fracture is
A) intracapsular.
B) intratrochanteric.
C) subtrochanteric.
D) the femoral neck.
Q3) The assessment that would alert the nurse to the possibility of cast syndrome in a client with a spica cast is
A) abdominal distention.
B) diminished pulses in the foot.
C) "hot spot" felt on cast.
D) musty, unpleasant odor to cast.
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Chapter 28: Assessment of Nutrition and the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing a client for gastric analysis, the nurse should plan for A) antacid administration.
B) fluoroscopic examination.
C) frequent expectoration for samples.
D) nasogastric tube insertion.
Q2) A client who had a barium swallow 4 days earlier calls the nurse in the GI clinic to ask, "Is there anything I can do about my constipation? I have not had a bowel movement since the x-ray, and my stomach is so big that I look pregnant." The most appropriate response for the nurse to make is
A) "Do you normally have more frequent bowel movements?"
B) "Increase fluids in your diet to 10 glasses of water a day."
C) "Take a strong laxative immediately."
D) "You need to be examined in the clinic today."
Q3) A nurse is assessing a client who complains of aching abdominal pain. To correctly assess this client, the nurse would
A) defer palpation altogether.
B) give pain medication before starting.
C) palpate the nonpainful areas first.
D) percuss the abdomen before ausculating.
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Management of Clients with Malnutrition
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4027
Sample Questions
Q1) When assisting a dysphagic client to eat, the nurse should A) have the client slightly flex the neck for swallowing.
B) place the client in Sims position for 15 minutes after meals.
C) position the client in the semi-Fowler position.
D) use the fingers to check the client's mouth for food.
Q2) A client who is diagnosed with bulimia would be most likely to manifest the psychosocial alteration of A) denial.
B) depression.
C) self-mutilation.
D) social withdrawal.
Q3) The nurse should assist the malnourished client with oral hygiene by providing the client with A) a firm-bristled toothbrush.
B) alcohol-containing mouthwashes.
C) glycerin and lemon swabs.
D) warm saltwater rinses.
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Chapter 30: Management of Clients with Ingestive Disorders
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4028
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who had extensive oral surgery 5 days earlier has the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to altered oral mucosa and surgical procedure. The most appropriate caution by the nurse when the client resumes oral feedings is
A) "It will be painful to eat for some time."
B) "Often clients lose their sense of taste following surgery."
C) "The capacity of your mouth will be smaller."
D) "You may have difficulty feeling the food in your mouth."
Q2) The nurse caring for a client who has recently undergone oral surgery has made a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements related to oral pain and difficulty eating. The nursing intervention that would best assist the client to achieve the goal of maintaining weight is
A) administering analgesics before meals.
B) increasing the time interval between oral care and mealtime.
C) regularly suctioning secretions from the mouth.
D) teaching the client to avoid putting food directly on the suture site.
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32
Chapter 31: Management of Clients with Digestive Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4029
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse planning to irrigate a nasogastric (NG) tube prepares to use
A) half-strength peroxide.
B) normal saline.
C) sterile water.
D) tap water.
Q2) A nurse is instructing a client with a peptic ulcer on recommended dietary changes. A goal of teaching has been met when the client states that he/she will avoid which of the following beverages?
A) Apple juice
B) Lemonade
C) Milk
D) Water
Q3) A nurse is teaching health promotion measures to a support group for clients who are at high risk for gastric cancer. Important health promotion measures to advise the clients include (select all that apply)
A) avoiding alcohol.
B) eating a diet high in nitrites.
C) limiting salted fish and pickled foods.
D) quitting smoking.
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Assessment of Elimination
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4030
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has an oral intake of 1500 ml and a urine output of 350 ml in a 24-hour period. The nurse can correctly chart that the client is
A) anuric.
B) hematuric.
C) oliguric.
D) polyuric.
Q2) The history finding in a client with elevated carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) that suggests to the nurse that this result might not be related to colorectal cancer is a A) high-fiber diet.
B) history of heavy smoking.
C) regular exercise program.
D) sedentary lifestyle.
Q3) Palpation
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Management of Clients with Intestinal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4031
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is caring for several clients. One client needs ostomy care. The nurse delegates ostomy care to the unlicensed assistive personnel for the client who A) has had the ostomy for several years, but whose arthritis makes self-care difficult. B) is afraid to touch the ostomy, causing the nurse to be frustrated and short-tempered. C) underwent ostomy surgery 3 days ago and has been stable with a red stoma. D) uses multiple brands and sizes of appliances and pouches.
Q2) A client with Crohn's disease is recovering from a fourth bowel resection and is being dismissed. The nurse determines that teaching goals have been met when the client indicates that s/he will watch for manifestations of A) chronic constipation. B) fatigue and weakness. C) Heberden's nodules. D) malabsorption syndrome.
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Chapter 34: Management of Clients with Urinary Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4032
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a man with a mega-ureter should assess for the potential problem of A) impotence.
B) incontinence.
C) scrotal swelling.
D) urine reflux.
Q2) After reading the order to "irrigate ureteral catheter with 50 ml of sterile saline solution," the nurse should
A) call the surgeon to clarify.
B) irrigate as ordered.
C) question the order relative to the use of sterile saline.
D) warn the client that there will be some discomfort.
Q3) A nurse working on a rehabilitation unit is caring for several clients with neurogenic bladder. The client who probably should not be a candidate for intermittent catheterization teaching is the
A) 15-year-old client who cannot understand sterile technique.
B) 26-year-old paraplegic client.
C) 26-year-old woman with an active sex life.
D) 35-year-old man with an erratic work schedule.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Management of Clients with Renal Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4033
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse assessing a client with a renal abscess would expect to find
A) bacteria in the urine.
B) high fever.
C) hypertension.
D) oliguria.
Q2) For a client after nephrectomy and based on the location of the incision, the nurse would formulate the nursing diagnosis of
A) Acute Pain related to surgery
B) Anxiety related to long-term outcome
C) Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity related to immobility
D) Risk for Injury: Postoperative Complications related to surgical procedure
Q3) A client with hydronephrosis has undergone stent placement to relieve the obstruction. The priority action of the nurse is to
A) assess serum electrolytes and glucose levels.
B) monitor for manifestations of urinary tract infection.
C) monitor vital signs every 30 minutes for the first 4 hours.
D) provide accurate hourly fluid volume replacement.
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Chapter 36: Management of Clients with Renal Failure
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The client with chronic renal failure who would not be a candidate for peritoneal dialysis is a client
A) who has diabetes mellitus.
B) who is a 10-year-old child.
C) with severe cardiovascular disease.
D) with severe respiratory disease.
Q2) In caring for a chronic dialysis patient with an arteriovenous fistula, the nurse would
A) avoid getting the fistula site wet during the client's bath.
B) irrigate the fistula with heparin to prevent clotting.
C) not use the arm with the fistula when taking the client's BP.
D) perform dressing changes to prevent infection.
Q3) The nurse explains to a client with chronic renal failure that the rationale for receiving calcium carbonate is that it
A) binds with phosphorus to eliminate it from the body.
B) binds with potassium to eliminate it from the body.
C) helps prevent constipation.
D) helps prevent ulcer formation.
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Chapter 37: Assessment of the Reproductive System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4035
Sample Questions
Q1) A female client scheduled for her first mammography needs the information that A) no pain or discomfort is involved.
B) results are available within 60 days.
C) she cannot wear deodorant on the day of the test.
D) the procedure takes 15 to 30 minutes.
Q2) The client who has a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) density of 0.13 ng/ml is considered to have
A) a contaminated specimen.
B) the presence of cancer cells.
C) the need for a follow-up examination.
D) no risk for prostate cancer.
Q3) A nurse palpates a small lump in a woman's breast. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to
A) ask the client if any relatives have had breast cancer.
B) document its characteristics and the position of the client.
C) refer the client for a same-day mammography.
D) tell the client to return next month for a repeat examination.
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Chapter 38: Management of Men with Reproductive Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4036
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client with mild benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) who will be treated conservatively, the nurse would advise the client to A) avoid alcoholic beverages.
B) limit fluid intake.
C) limit sexual intercourse.
D) void every couple of hours.
Q2) After a transurethral resection, the nurse notes that the client's urinary catheter is blocked and his bladder is overdistended. The initial nursing action should be to A) change the catheter.
B) irrigate the catheter.
C) milk the catheter tubing.
D) notify the physician.
Q3) The nurse explains that if left untreated, BPH could result in (Select all that apply).
A) bladder cancer.
B) prostatic cancer.
C) renal failure.
D) upper urinary tract infection.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Management of Women with Reproductive Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4037
Sample Questions
Q1) After the physician has prescribed danazol (Danocrine) for treatment of a client's endometriosis, the nurse would explain that this drug may cause
A) hot flashes.
B) increased breast size.
C) irregular periods.
D) loss of appetite.
Q2) The nurse caring for the client who is undergoing radiation therapy for endometrial cancer would include which directions in the nursing care plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Elevate head of bed to 90 degrees.
B) Encourage in-room exercising.
C) Minimize visitation.
D) Organize cares.
Q3) A client is suspected of having premenstrual syndrome (PMS). A somatic complaint the nurse would assess for is a client report of
A) abdominal bloating.
B) blurring of vision.
C) nasal congestion.
D) severe uterine cramping.
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Chapter 40: Management of Clients with Breast Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4038
Sample Questions
Q1) A male client has been diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer. The nurse would understand that this client most likely may have feelings of sexual inadequacy because
A) breast cancer is a "female" disease.
B) decreased libido is common in male breast cancer clients.
C) radiation therapy produces unwanted skin side effects.
D) treatment includes medical orchiectomy.
Q2) To help a client cope with the body image change caused by chemotherapy with doxorubicin, the nurse suggests that the client
A) begin an exercise routine.
B) get fitted for a good prosthesis.
C) obtain a wig before hair is lost.
D) purchase some new clothes.
Q3) In a client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer, the nurse would assess for A) back pain.
B) confusion.
C) infection.
D) weight gain.
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42
Chapter 41: Management of Clients with Sexually
Transmitted Infections
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4039
Sample Questions
Q1) In teaching a client receiving doxycycline for the treatment of chlamydial infection, the nurse should include
A) avoidance of alcoholic beverages while taking doxycycline.
B) increasing fluid intake while taking doxycycline.
C) protecting the medication from sunlight.
D) using a condom as a birth control method.
Q2) The statement made by a client being treated for gonorrhea that would indicate that teaching has been effective is "I
A) can get some antibiotics to take home, in case I get infected again."
B) don't want to get this again because treatment is lengthy and expensive."
C) will come back after I finish all my medicine."
D) won't have sex until I have completed my medications."
Q3) When teaching clients strategies for primary prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), the nurse should
A) encourage compliance with medical treatment.
B) encourage early treatment of infected individuals.
C) provide risk reduction counseling.
D) treat all the client's sexual partners.
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Chapter 42: Assessment of the Endocrine and Metabolic Systems
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4040
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a client knows that endocrine disorders can present with which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dark or tea-colored urine
B) Decreased libido
C) Impotence or infertility
D) Irregular menstrual cycle
E) Muscle wasting and atrophy
Q2) A client is having a physical examination and tells the nurse about a painful area in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Based on this information, the nurse would
A) avoid any manipulation or contact with the painful area.
B) examine the painful area at the end of the assessment.
C) examine the right upper quadrant area first.
D) notify the physician to complete the examination.
Q3) Explaining a paracentesis to an anxious client, the nurse states that the purpose is to
A) collect fluid accumulations from the pleura.
B) evaluate secretions of the gallbladder.
C) extract fluid sequestered in the pancreas.
D) remove excess fluid from the peritoneum.
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Chapter 43: Management of Clients with Thyroid and Parathyroid Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4041
Sample Questions
Q1) In a client with hyperthyroidism, the nurse would expect to see
A) anorexia, constipation, and cold extremities.
B) blurred vision, night sweats, and palpitations.
C) heat intolerance, weight loss, and diarrhea.
D) muscle cramps, paresthesias, and numbness of the fingers and toes.
Q2) In making emergency equipment available at the bedside of a client who has undergone subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse would include
A) a defibrillator.
B) a tracheostomy set.
C) an electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor.
D) an intra-aortic balloon pump.
Q3) To increase the comfort of a client with exophthalmos, the nurse would A) elevate the head of the bed at night.
B) provide warm soaks.
C) restrict activity.
D) restrict fluids.
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Chapter 44: Management of Clients with Adrenal and Pituitary Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4042
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has Addison's disease. The nurse should teach the client to carry an injection kit at all times with the medication
A) adrenaline.
B) Benadryl.
C) epinephrine.
D) hydrocortisone.
Q2) In a client with addisonian crisis, assessment would indicate that the drug Kayexalate is not effective when the nurses assesses the clinical manifestation of A) decreasing blood pressure.
B) low back pain.
C) pedal edema.
D) rapid or erratic pulse.
Q3) For a client who has undergone transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the aspect of usual postoperative care that the nurse would modify is A) administration of oxygen.
B) leg exercises.
C) nutrition.
D) oral care.
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Chapter 45: Management of Clients with Diabetes Mellitus
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4043
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes is in the hospital for initial management of the disease. The nurse is administering an injection of NPH insulin at 7 AM. While the nurse is in the room, the client asks if s/he can go to the cafeteria with family around 2 PM, when they visit. The best response by the nurse is
A) "No, I'd rather you wait until after 5, then you can go."
B) "No, we need to monitor everything you eat for the next few days."
C) "Sure, just be certain you don't eat or drink anything while you're there."
D) "That's fine; let's talk about what kind of snack you can get there."
Q2) The nurse counseling a client with diabetes about establishing an exercise program would encourage
A) playing tennis.
B) running.
C) swimming.
D) walking.
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Chapter 46: Management of Clients with Exocrine
Pancreatic and Biliary Disorders
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4044
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that the individual at highest risk for development of gallstones is
A) a 20-year-old black man with sickle cell disease.
B) a 35-year-old white woman being treated for breast cancer.
C) a 49-year-old white man with a sedentary lifestyle.
D) a 60-year-old white woman being treated for obesity.
Q2) When a client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of acute cholecystitis, the nurse would anticipate that the immediate medical management will be A) antibiotic therapy.
B) provided by a medical nutritionist.
C) systemic corticosteroid administration.
D) total parenteral nutrition.
Q3) A client had an endoscopic retrograde papillotomy for stone removal and has returned to the nursing unit. The client is asking for ice chips. What assessment takes priority? The nurse should assess the client's A) bowel sounds.
B) gag reflex.
C) sedation level.
D) vital signs.
Page 48
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Chapter 47: Management of Clients with Hepatic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4045
Sample Questions
Q1) A client has ascites and the nursing diagnosis Excess Fluid Volume. The nurse has orders to administer albumin and furosemide (Lasix). Which action by the nurse regarding this order is correct?
A) Call the physician to clarify the order.
B) Give the albumin first and then give the furosemide.
C) Give the furosemide first and then give the albumin.
D) Have the pharmacy mix both drugs in the same IV bag.
Q2) A 15-year-old client admitted with severe jaundice is having diagnostic testing. The nursing diagnosis that would have priority is
A) Activity Intolerance related to fatigue
B) Deficient Knowledge related to diet modification
C) Disturbed Body Image related to yellowing of skin and sclera
D) Impaired Skin Integrity related to jaundice
Q3) The nurse would counsel a client that the portosystemic shunt will A) eliminate the danger of hepatic failure.
B) reduce ascites.
C) reduce portal hypertension only.
D) reverse effects of cirrhosis.
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Chapter 48: Assessment of the Integumentary System
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4046
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would record the presence of a lichenification as a A) complicated lesion.
B) primary lesion.
C) secondary lesion.
D) simple lesion.
Q2) The nurse would explain to a client that an "allergy" differs from an "irritation" in that an allergy
A) affects the skin and mucous membranes only.
B) is an immune response.
C) is inconsistent.
D) can be totally desensitized.
Q3) A client has elevated lesions that contain serous fluid. The nurse would document these as A) nodules.
B) pustules.
C) vesicles.
D) wheals.
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Chapter 49: Management of Clients with Integumentary Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4047
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is working with a client suffering from chronic pruritus. The client is angry and frustrated. The nurse should incorporate actions into the care plan that acknowledge
A) multiple treatments may be tried before finding one that works.
B) the lack of any effective treatments for pruritus.
C) the major impact pruritus has on quality of life.
D) that pruritus is very expensive to treat.
Q2) In teaching a client about sun protection, the nurse would make an accurate suggestion with the statement
A) "Sitting in the shade will protect you from sun exposure."
B) "Use sunscreen, even on overcast days."
C) "Use a sunscreen with the lowest SPF number."
D) "Wear light-colored, loosely woven clothes."
Q3) Discharge teaching for a client following rhytidectomy would include the instruction to
A) sleep in the prone position only.
B) practice coughing and deep breathing.
C) maintain a liquid diet for 1 week.
D) exercise the facial muscles daily.
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Chapter 50: Management of Clients with Burn Injury
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4048
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that when a major burn occurs, the body's initial systemic responses include
A) elevated pulse rate, decreased cardiac output, and polyuria.
B) increased capillary permeability, decreased cardiac output, and oliguria.
C) plasma leakage into surrounding tissue, decreased hematocrit, and oliguria.
D) production of epinephrine, vasodilation, and increased cardiac output.
Q2) A severely burn-injured client is being discharged at the end of the week. Important interventions the nurse can provide to assist the client with re-integration into society include (Select all that apply)
A) down-playing the appearance of the burned areas to prevent discouragement.
B) encouraging the client to interact with people outside the hospital setting.
C) making the client totally responsible for all physical care to improve confidence.
D) role-playing potentially difficult social interactions with the client.
Q3) The nurse would assess that the client with a "major burn" is
A) 60 years old with a 20% burn.
B) 32 years old with a 14 % burn.
C) 18 years old with an 18% burn.
D) 10 years old with a 15% burn.
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Chapter 51: Assessment of the Vascular System
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To determine if a client with complaints of pain after walking 5 blocks is experiencing intermittent claudication, the nurse would ask
A) "Do you experience leg swelling?"
B) "Does pain go away when you rest?"
C) "Is the pain cramp-like?"
D) "Is the pain in the calf muscle?"
Q2) Age-related changes the nurse incorporates into interpreting the physical assessment for vascular disorders include (Select all that apply)
A) blood pressure readings are often inaccurate in older people.
B) dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses may be more difficult to palpate.
C) peripheral vascular disease is common among the elderly.
D) skin changes, such as dependent rubor, are often seen in people over 65.
Q3) The nurse tests the capillary refill on a client's lower extremity and notes that it takes 4 seconds for the color to return to baseline. It would be most important for the nurse to then check for
A) constricting clothing.
B) other indicators of peripheral perfusion.
C) presence of venous ulcers.
D) prior surgery on this extremity.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Management of Clients with Hypertensive Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4050
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client that the most common cause of secondary hypertension is
A) chronic renal disease.
B) oral contraceptive use.
C) pregnancy.
D) primary hyperaldosteronism.
Q2) To reduce the risk of orthostatic hypotension in a client prescribed a diuretic antihypertensive medication, the nurse would teach the client to A) increase fluid intake.
B) increase intake of potassium.
C) sit up before standing, and stand before walking.
D) stand up quickly using sturdy support.
Q3) The nurse providing care to a client being treated for a hypertensive emergency would monitor the blood pressure to ensure that it is slowly reduced during the therapy to prevent
A) myocardial infarction.
B) pulmonary embolism.
C) renal ischemia.
D) vascular collapse.
54
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Chapter 53: Management of Clients with Vascular Disorders
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4051
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse suspects a client has an acute arterial occlusion. Early assessment findings that would confirm her suspicion include (Select all that apply)
A) pain.
B) pallor.
C) paralysis.
D) paresthesias
E) pulselessness.
Q2) A client is scheduled to have a femoral-popliteal bypass with a synthetic graft. The nurse's preoperative teaching would include information about preoperative A) antibiotics.
B) anticoagulants.
C) platelets.
D) skin preparation.
Q3) The nurse teaches the client with intermittent claudication that the pain results from A) lactic and pyruvic acid buildup.
B) muscle cramps.
C) rapid vasodilation in the legs.
D) venous stasis.
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Chapter 54: Assessment of the Cardiac System
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30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4052
Sample Questions
Q1) Women with heart disease often present with which symptom? (Select all that apply.)
A) Chest pain
B) Dyspnea
C) Fatigue
D) Nausea
E) Palpitations
Q2) The nurse performing an admission assessment of a 36-year-old client with cardiac valve disease would know the most relevant fact is that the client has
A) a childhood history of rheumatic fever.
B) a recent rash on the upper extremities.
C) allergies to shellfish.
D) been a smoker for the last 3 years.
Q3) The finding during a routine assessment that would most strongly suggest to the nurse the presence of serious heart or lung disease is
A) blanching of nail beds when compressed.
B) broken vessels in the legs.
C) duskiness of the buccal mucosa.
D) pulse rate greater than 90 beats/min.
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Chapter 55: Management of Clients with Structural
Cardiac Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4053
Sample Questions
Q1) For a client who has undergone a tissue valve replacement, the most appropriate anticipatory guidance provided by the nurse would be
A) activity should be restricted to reduce stress on the valve.
B) follow-up is important, since most tissue valves eventually need replacement.
C) long periods of standing decreases venous return to the heart.
D) modification of lifestyle can prevent associated dysrhythmias.
Q2) Examining the electrocardiogram strips of a client with mitral stenosis, the nurse would recognize the characteristic dysrhythmia of
A) atrial fibrillation.
B) artial flutter.
C) sinus tachycardia.
D) ventricular tachycardia.
Q3) To help relieve the discomfort of a client with pericarditis who is experiencing pain, the nurse would position the client
A) flat in bed.
B) in semi-Fowler's position.
C) prone.
D) sitting upright.
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Chapter 56: Management of Clients with Functional
Cardiac Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4054
Sample Questions
Q1) When the client who had a myocardial infarction develops dependent edema, the nurse would assess that this could be an early manifestation of A) fluid deficit.
B) left ventricular failure.
C) renal failure.
D) right ventricular failure.
Q2) The nurse would explain the etiology of heart failure after myocardial infarction (MI) as
A) impairment of the contractile function of the ventricle.
B) inability of the heart chambers to fill adequately.
C) increased myocardial workload.
D) increased oxygen demands of the myocardium.
Q3) A nurse is conducting worksite health education classes. The nurse informs the participants that in order to prevent heart disease, the American Heart Association recommends which amount of exercise?
A) 10-20 minutes every day.
B) 20-30 minutes three to five times a week.
C) 30-60 minutes every day.
D) 30-60 minutes on most days of the week.
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Chapter 57: Management of Clients with Dysrhythmias
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4055
Sample Questions
Q1) At the ambulatory care clinic, the nurse counseling a client who has presented with frequent episodes of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia would advise the client to
A) avoid all aspirin and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) eat a low-salt, low-fat diet that contains plenty of fiber.
C) get 30 minutes of exercise and drink six glasses of water per day.
D) quit smoking and avoid caffeine and alcohol.
Q2) The client's ECG shows normal-appearing P waves that occur at regular intervals. Every third impulse from the atria is missing a QRS complex. The nurse would recognize this pattern as the dysrhythmia of
A) first-degree AV block.
B) second-degree AV block.
C) third-degree AV block.
D) fourth-degree AV block.
Q3) The nurse would be most concerned about premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) that
A) are uniform in appearance.
B) fall on a T wave.
C) occur at a rate of four per minute.
D) occur with angina.
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Page 59
Chapter 58: Management of Clients with Myocardial Infarction
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4056
Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a client immediately after an MI, the nurse's first priority would be
A) monitoring for dysrhythmias.
B) preventing an embolism.
C) relieving pain.
D) relieving the client's apprehension.
Q2) A client is scheduled for the "early release" discharge after suffering an STEMI. Which action by the nurse would most facilitate a successful outcome after discharge?
A) Arranging to have all medications delivered to the home
B) Referring the client for home health care visits
C) Reviewing the client's medications before discharge
D) Teaching the client to monitor his/her own blood pressure
Q3) When the nurse notes a run of four premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) on the monitor of a client with a recent MI, the nurse would
A) administer sublingual nitroglycerin.
B) change the client's ECG leads.
C) continue observing for six PVCs or more.
D) notify the physician immediately.
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Page 60
Chapter 59: Assessment of the Respiratory System
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4057
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse auscultating the chest of a client with chronic bronchitis would expect to hear the characteristic adventitious breath sound of
A) bronchovesicular sounds in the bases.
B) crackles throughout the lung fields.
C) rhonchi on expiration.
D) wheezes on inspiration.
Q2) A client with pulmonary disease appears more comfortable after respiratory therapy but still feels short of breath. To measure the client's respiratory improvement, the nurse would use a
A) Candle Scale.
B) pulmonary function test.
C) Treadmill test.
D) Visual Analogue Scale.
Q3) A 44-year-old man with active pulmonary tuberculosis is experiencing hemoptysis, which the nurse understands describes
A) bloody sputum.
B) chest pain.
C) constant cough.
D) dyspnea.
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Page 61
Chapter 60: Management of Clients with Upper Airway Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client is trying unsuccessfully to clear the airway with a cough. The measure the nurse would suggest to help the client cough more effectively is
A) cough while leaning forward.
B) drink milk to coat the throat.
C) insert a large-lumen suction catheter before coughing.
D) place a clean finger over the tracheostomy tube and cough.
Q2) A nurse is teaching a client with a new tracheostomy self-care measures and evaluates that teaching goals have been met when the client says
A) "I can shower if I am careful not to get water into the stoma."
B) "I don't see why I should quit smoking now; what more could happen?"
C) "Stoma covers aren't used because they can lead to suffocation."
D) "When my tube comes out I can go swimming again."
Q3) The observation that would require an immediate nursing intervention for a client recently returned to the unit following partial laryngectomy is
A) blood-tinged sputum.
B) copious respiratory secretions.
C) difficulty swallowing.
D) pulsating tracheostomy tube.
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Chapter 61: Management of Clients with Lower Airway and Pulmonary Vessel
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4059
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who experienced a pulmonary embolus is receiving heparin therapy. The client will now also start receiving sodium warfarin (Coumadin). When the client asks the nurse why both medications are being given, the best response by the nurse is
A) "It takes several days for the warfarin to become therapeutic."
B) "Most clients go home on both drugs for maximal treatment."
C) "The heparin is not working to dissolve the blood clot, so we are adding warfarin."
D) "You are right to ask. You are at increased risk of bleeding with both drugs."
Q2) After providing instructions to a client with newly diagnosed COPD who is learning to take a steroid medication by inhaler, the nurse would determine that proper technique has been learned when the client
A) breathes out forcefully with an open mouth.
B) gently rolls the canister in the hands before use.
C) holds the breath for 5 to 10 seconds after inhalation.
D) starts to discontinue the medication once manifestations subside.
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Page 63
Chapter 62: Management of Clients with Parenchymal and Pleural Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4060
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse has made the nursing diagnosis Ineffective Breathing Pattern related to tachypnea secondary to chest pain for a client with pneumonia. After administration of an analgesic, the nurse would
A) encourage the use of an incentive spirometer.
B) monitor the client's respiratory pattern.
C) reposition the client flat in bed.
D) request that the client cough.
Q2) The nurse would know that the client most likely to exhibit a false-negative Mantoux reaction is the client who is
A) being treated for sickle cell disease.
B) HIV-positive.
C) malnourished.
D) previously diagnosed with TB.
Q3) The nurse would know that a client who has just begun treatment for pulmonary TB with rifampin has a good understanding of this medication with the statement that
A) "I told my wife to throw away all our spoons and forks before I come home."
B) "I won't go to any family gatherings for 6 months."
C) "It's going to be important to remember to cover my nose when I sneeze."
D) "My urine will look orange because of the medication."
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Chapter 63: Management of Clients with Acute Pulmonary Disorders
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4061
Sample Questions
Q1) A client who sustained a head injury is intubated and receiving volume-cycled mechanical ventilation via the controlled mechanical ventilation (CMV) mode. The nurse would explain that this means
A) a preset amount of pressure stays in the client's lungs at the end of exhalation.
B) spontaneous inspiratory effort triggers the ventilator to deliver a preset tidal volume.
C) the client's own breaths can become "stacked" with the ventilator breaths.
D) the ventilator delivers the preset volume regardless of the client's efforts.
Q2) The nurse monitoring a client with adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) would closely assess for
A) atelectasis.
B) cor pulmonale.
C) pneumonia.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q3) When a client with a cuffed ET tube reports shortness of breath, the nurse would
A) give the ordered pain medication.
B) assess for a cuff leak.
C) increase the level of O<sub>2</sub> delivery.
D) elevate the head of the bed.
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Chapter 64: Assessment of the Eyes and Ears
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4062
Sample Questions
Q1) An important primary prevention activity the nurse could teach a community group for vision is (Select all that apply)
A) having an annual ophthalmologic examination.
B) keeping blood pressure under control.
C) taking medication for glaucoma as prescribed.
D) wearing safety goggles and sunglasses.
Q2) A client has severe hearing loss that occurred within the last year. It is important for the nurse to also assess the client for A) accompanying visual losses.
B) frustration and loneliness.
C) hypertension and heart disease.
D) impaired physical mobility.
Q3) A client is being treated for arthritis with large doses of aspirin, and the nurse assesses the client for ototoxicity. The most indicative clinical manifestation of damage to the eighth cranial nerve is
A) ear pain.
B) hearing loss.
C) nystagmus.
D) tinnitus.
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Chapter 65: Management of Clients with Visual Disorders
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4063
Sample Questions
Q1) A client is scheduled for enucleation of the eye because of advanced ocular melanoma. The nurse finds the client crying and saying, "I'm sure I will just look horrid. I can't let anyone see me after the operation ever again!" The best response by the nurse would be
A) "Don't worry. With your prosthetic in, you'll look almost normal."
B) "I'm sure this is very hard for you. I can sit with you for a while."
C) "Let me call our chaplain to come see you; he is very understanding."
D) "Well at least they think they can get all the cancer by removing your eye."
Q2) The nurse recently diagnosed a client as experiencing Visual Sensory/Perceptual Alterations related to increased intraocular pressure. The priority for the plan of care would be
A) encouraging compliance with drug therapy to prevent loss of vision.
B) managing the severe pain experienced until the optic nerve atrophies.
C) providing anticipatory guidance regarding the eventual loss of peripheral vision.
D) recognizing that damage to the eye caused by glaucoma can be reversed.
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67
Chapter 66: Management of Clients with Hearing and Balance Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4064
Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate action that the nurse working at a camp would take to remove an insect from a camper's ear is
A) gently irrigate the ear canal with sterile water.
B) instill a few drops of mineral oil into the ear.
C) instruct the camper to tilt the affected ear downward.
D) occlude the ear with a medicated cotton pledget.
Q2) A client's family reports that the client does not hear well. The client becomes angry and defensive and denies having a hearing problem. The best response by the nurse would be
A) "It seems like it's hard to listen to your family when you don't agree with them."
B) "My father has a hearing aid and is really glad he got it."
C) "There's nothing to be ashamed about having poor hearing."
D) "Why don't you believe what your family is saying?"
Q3) When communicating with a client who has a significant hearing loss, the nurse would
A) obtain the client's attention by hand clapping.
B) speak as loudly as possible.
C) use an intercommunication system.
D) use phrases to convey meaning rather than one-word answers.
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Chapter 67: Assessment of the Neurologic System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4065
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would explain to a client scheduled for an electroencephalogram (EEG) that an EEG
A) assesses for the presence of solid masses in the brain.
B) measures the adequacy of cerebral perfusion.
C) records cerebral blood flow patterns.
D) traces superficial electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
Q2) The nurse asking a client questions that test orientation would include
A) "Can you count backward from 100 by 7s?"
B) "Do you have any brothers and sisters?"
C) "What would you do if you lost your house key?"
D) "What year is this?"
Q3) A client with a head injury has had the caloric test performed using ice-cold water. When the water was injected into the auditory canal, the client's eyes moved slowly toward the irrigated side and then quickly returned to midline. The nurse would conclude after watching this reaction that the client
A) has an intact brain stem.
B) has brain death.
C) is likely to arouse within 24 hours.
D) will be permanently deaf.
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Page 69
Chapter 68: Management of Comatose or Confused
Clients
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for an elderly client, the nurse should plan interventions based on the understanding that the elderly often
A) are frequently confused on admission.
B) are particularly at risk for confusion in the hospital.
C) do not seem bothered by changes in routines.
D) have an intact recent memory.
Q2) An elderly chronically confused client with Alzheimer's disease frequently states that the nursing home is her home to which she has invited people for a party. The most appropriate nursing response to this client's perception is to
A) give detailed explanations about the nursing home.
B) "go along" with the client's confused statements.
C) provide a lot of sensory stimulation.
D) reorient the client as often as necessary.
Q3) To improve the quality of sleep for a confused client, the nurse would plan to
A) allow for 90 minutes of undisturbed rest.
B) give warm black tea at bedtime.
C) keep the client awake during the day.
D) routinely use sedative medications.
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Chapter 69: Management of Clients with Cerebral Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has cyclical headaches accompanied by constricted pupils, unilateral lacrimation, and rhinorrhea. The nurse is exploring ways to prevent these headaches with the client. The nurse could focus questions and interventions on modifying the client's
A) daily level of stress.
B) family history of brain tumors.
C) pattern of caffeine consumption.
D) usual alcohol intake.
Q2) A client is being worked up for a possible brain tumor. An important intervention the nurse would include in the nursing care plan specific to this client is
A) documenting manifestations.
B) preparing the client for tests.
C) seizure precautions.
D) supporting the client and family.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) should assess for
A) anorexia, numbness, and tingling of extremities.
B) ataxia, nausea, and bleeding tendency.
C) headache, myalgias, and arthralgias.
D) unsteady gait, slurred speech, and blurred vision.
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Chapter 70: Management of Clients with Stroke
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4068
Sample Questions
Q1) The critical care nurse explains to the family of a client who is to receive nimodipine following hemorrhagic stroke that the purpose of this drug is to treat
A) dizziness.
B) hypertension.
C) spasticity.
D) vasospasm.
Q2) To promote safety, when a client complains of the effects of diplopia after a stroke, the nurse would
A) approach the client on the unaffected side.
B) place a patch over one eye.
C) reassure the client that the problem is temporary.
D) teach eye muscle exercises.
Q3) A client with stroke has a nursing diagnosis of Impaired Verbal Communication and has specific difficulty in verbal expression. The most helpful strategy by the nurse would be to
A) give the client practice in repeating words after the nurse.
B) point to objects and state their names.
C) repeat directions until they are understood.
D) try to do all the speaking for the client.
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Page 72
Chapter 71: Management of Clients with Peripheral Nervous
System Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse should assess a client who has had unrelieved trigeminal neuralgia for the past 6 months for
A) alcohol consumption.
B) suicidal ideation.
C) vocational rehabilitation.
D) weight gain.
Q2) The nurse would recommend that the habit that should be modified to reduce the incidence of back pain is
A) eating a high-fiber diet.
B) mild exercise three times a week.
C) sitting for long periods, rather than standing.
D) using leg muscles when lifting.
Q3) The nurse points out the physical therapy modality that would be avoided in the treatment for a client with Bell's palsy is
A) cold packs.
B) facial nerve stimulation with faradic current.
C) gentle massage.
D) moist heat.
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Chapter 72: Management of Clients with Degenerative Neurologic Disorders
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with MG began to experience a sudden worsening of her condition with difficulty in breathing. The nurse explains that this complication of MG is usually initially treated with
A) admission and administration of IV corticosteroids.
B) an increased dose of anticholinesterase drugs.
C) bolus doses of atropine titrated to effect.
D) rest and increased sleep.
Q2) Important self-care measures a nurse can teach a client with Parkinson's disease in order to prevent contractures and improve mobility include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Bend over with your head over your toes to get out of chairs.
B) Exercise first thing in the morning.
C) Keep a narrow-based gait.
D) Look up when you walk, not down at the floor.
E) Use a firm surface, like the floor, for exercising.
Q3) The nurse explains that the pathology of Huntington's disease involves
A) a decrease in the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
B) an excess of the neurotransmitter dopamine.
C) destruction of white matter in the brain.
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D) formation of neurofibrillary tangles and plaques.
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Chapter 73: Management of Clients with Neurologic
Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse explains to a family that immediate medical-surgical stabilization after a severe cervical injury would include
A) cervical brace.
B) halo jacket.
C) skeletal traction.
D) spinal fusion.
Q2) When the client who has been in flaccid spinal shock dorsiflexes the great toe and fans the other toes when the sole of his foot is stroked, the nurse is
A) alarmed, because this indicates increased ICP.
B) alerted, because this indicates possible meningeal irritation.
C) distressed, because this indicates deterioration.
D) pleased, because this indicates a reduction of spinal shock.
Q3) The emergency department nurse should position the client with cranial injuries
A) in high-Fowler position and knees elevated.
B) side-lying with head of bed elevated 20 degrees.
C) supine with head of bed elevated 30 degrees.
D) supine with the bed completely flat.
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Page 75
Chapter 74: Assessment of the Hematopoietic System
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse notes that a client has a higher than normal reticulocyte count. This would indicate
A) bone marrow depression.
B) dehydration.
C) increased erythrocyte production.
D) polycythemia vera.
Q2) In evaluating a young woman, the following laboratory result the nurse recognizes as abnormal is
A) hemoglobin 13 g/dl.
B) platelet count 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
C) red blood cell count 5 million/mm<sup>3</sup>.
D) white blood cell count 6000/mm<sup>3</sup>.
Q3) The nurse should anticipate an elevated hemoglobin level in a
A) 40-year-old woman with congestive heart failure.
B) client who lives in Colorado.
C) client with iron deficiency anemia.
D) dehydrated elderly client being given IV fluids.
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Chapter 75: Management of Clients with Hematologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse points out that nursing management of all individuals with anemia is primarily directed toward
A) genetic counseling.
B) identifying complications.
C) managing manifestations.
D) rehabilitative measures.
Q2) The nursing intervention that is the priority when preparing to administer blood is
A) administration of pretransfusion antihistamines.
B) asking a second health care professional to confirm blood acceptability.
C) establishing baseline vital signs.
D) obtaining a written order for the transfusion.
Q3) The statement about dietary iron made by a client with iron deficiency anemia that indicates understanding of the dietary concepts is "I
A) know that dairy products are the best source of iron."
B) know that iron from animal sources is not absorbed well."
C) should be able to change my diet so that I can get sufficient iron."
D) will not be able to obtain enough iron by just increasing my dietary intake."
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Page 77
Chapter 76: Management of Clients with Immune Disorders
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse would observe the client for how long to determine whether there is an immediate reaction to a skin test?
A) 1 to 2 minutes
B) 2 to 5 minutes
C) 5 to 10 minutes
D) 10 to 20 minutes
Q2) The nurse assesses an atopic client who has had serious type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. The nurse recognizes that the most severe form of a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is
A) anaphylaxis.
B) bronchial asthma.
C) cell-mediated sensitivity.
D) dermatitis.
Q3) A client with urticaria is frustrated with the chronic nature of the problem. To enhance coping, which intervention by the nurse would be most effective?
A) Assist the client in identifying and eliminating triggers for outbreaks.
B) Demonstrate to the client measures to increase comfort.
C) Let the client vent frustrations and remain supportive.
D) Teach the client the proper way to take antihistamines.
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Page 78
Chapter 77: Management of Clients with Rheumatic Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client has dermatomyositis. The nurse will include priority interventions in the care plan provisions to meet the problem of
A) difficulty ambulating.
B) difficulty swallowing.
C) disorientation.
D) phlebitis.
Q2) The nurse explains that one of the few rheumatic joint diseases about which we know the infectious etiology is
A) ankylosing spondylitis.
B) Lyme disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) Sjögren's syndrome.
Q3) The nurse caring for a client with systemic sclerosis should include in the teaching plan the measure to prevent pain and injury, which is
A) do not stand for longer than 30 minutes at a time.
B) exercise only moderately.
C) wash the hands with plain water only.
D) wear gloves when removing food from the freezer.
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Chapter 78: Management of Clients with Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) The situation that would be least helpful to manage pain in the AIDS client who is an injecting drug user is
A) carefully rationing narcotic prescriptions.
B) having multiple practitioners prescribing medications.
C) limiting rescue doses of narcotic analgesics on a monthly basis.
D) refusing to fill lost prescriptions.
Q2) When a client with AIDS experiences pain while swallowing, the nurse could suggest
A) avoiding the use of straws while drinking.
B) drinking acidic juices such as orange juice.
C) eating very cold foods.
D) increasing the intake of well-cooked eggs and noodle dishes.
Q3) The client who has a positive enzyme immunoassay test asks the nurse if that means that he is HIV positive. The nurse's most helpful response would be
A) "No, many people have positive enzyme immunoassays."
B) "No, you need to have the Western blot test to confirm that you are positive."
C) "Yes, but antiretrovirals will probably combat the infection now."
D) "Yes, you should seek medical care for antiretroviral drugs."
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Page 80
Chapter 79: Management of Clients with Leukemia and Lymphoma
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client with Hodgkin's lymphoma has relapsed after completing chemotherapy. The nurse plans care for this client understanding the probable treatment will be
A) BMT or stem cell transplantation.
B) immunosuppressants.
C) more chemotherapy.
D) systemic steroids.
Q2) A client with acute leukemia develops a neutrophil count of 450/mm³. The nurse should (Select all that apply)
A) allow no plants or live flowers in the room.
B) allow no visitors at this time.
C) ensure strict adherence to hand-washing protocol.
D) place the client on protective isolation.
E) restrict the client's access to raw fruits and vegetables.
Q3) A client with Hodgkin's disease is staged at III. The nurse plans care knowing this means there
A) are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with para-aorta involvement.
B) are nodes on both sides of the diaphragm with portal involvement.
C) is involvement of a single lymphoid structure.
D) might be a single node on one side of the diaphragm.
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Chapter 80: Management of Clients Requiring
Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Important health promotion measures for the client who has received an organ transplant include regularly-scheduled (select all that apply)
A) dental examinations.
B) mammograms.
C) Papanicolaou (Pap smears).
D) substance abuse screening.
E) vaccinations.
Q2) The nurse working with clients who need organ transplant includes in the teaching plan that the primary responsibility of the transplantation team is to A) determine the histocompatibility of the donor and the recipient.
B) find the best candidate with good immune function and appropriate insurance. C) provide the greatest number of transplants possible because of the ongoing great need.
D) transplant organs into clients with the best chance of long-term success.
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Chapter 81: Management of Clients with Shock and Multisystem
Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse caring for a client newly diagnosed with MODS explains that the method of providing nutrition is likely to be
A) enteral nutrition.
B) intravenous fluids.
C) oral diet.
D) parenteral nutrition.
Q2) A client is critically ill and in shock. The large, extended family has gathered in the waiting room. Important interventions the nurse can use when working with this family include (Select all that apply)
A) allow the family to ask questions and express concerns.
B) avoid explaining a lot of equipment so as not to worry the family.
C) encourage the family to participate in decision making.
D) let the family visit the client as much as possible.
E) provide frequent explanations of what is happening with the client.
Q3) Distributive shock is primarily due to
A) a fluid shift from the vascular space.
B) an increase in the size of the vascular space.
C) inadequate circulating blood volume.
D) inadequate pumping action of the heart.
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Chapter 82: Management of Clients in the Emergency Department
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/4080
Sample Questions
Q1) After stabilizing a trauma victim's airway, breathing, and circulation, the next item for the ED nurse to assess is
A) abdomen.
B) broken bones.
C) integument.
D) neurologic status.
Q2) For children who need crystalloid fluid resuscitation, the formula is altered to
A) 20 ml/kg bolus.
B) 20 ml/kg/hour.
C) 40 ml/kg bolus
D) 40 ml/kg/hour.
Q3) The ED triage nurse identifies the client who can have treatment delayed for a few hours as the client with a A) avulsed (knocked-out) tooth.
B) broken finger.
C) head injury from a fall.
D) large laceration that needs suturing.
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