Patient Care Concepts
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Patient Care Concepts explores the foundational principles and practices essential to delivering effective, compassionate, and holistic care to patients across the healthcare continuum. The course emphasizes the development of critical thinking, communication, and clinical skills necessary for assessing, planning, implementing, and evaluating patient care in diverse settings. Topics include infection control, safety, basic human needs, therapeutic communication, cultural competence, ethics, and patient advocacy. Through both theoretical instruction and practical application, students gain the knowledge and skills to support interdisciplinary care teams and provide patient-centered care that promotes health, dignity, and comfort.
Recommended Textbook
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing 7th Editon by Cooper
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57 Chapters
2259 Verified Questions
2259 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Evolution of Nursing
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The relationships among nursing, patients, health, and the environment are the basis for:
A) care plans.
B) nursing models.
C) physician's orders.
D) evaluation of patient care.
Answer: B
Q2) What is a nursing program considered when certified by a state agency?
A) Accredited
B) Approved
C) Provisional
D) Exemplified
Answer: B
Q3) What premise is Maslow's hierarchy of needs based on?
A) All needs are equally important.
B) Basic needs must be met before the next level of needs can be met.
C) Self-actualization is a primary need.
D) Individuals prioritize needs the same way.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal and Ethical Aspects of Nursing
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the universal guidelines that define appropriate measures for all nursing interventions?
A) Scope of practice
B) Advocacy
C) Standard of care
D) Prudent practice
Answer: C
Q2) Patients have expectations regarding the health care services they receive. To protect these expectations, which of the following has become law?
A) American Hospital Association's Patient's Bill of Rights
B) Self-determination act
C) American Hospital Association's Standards of Care
D) The Joint Commission's rights and responsibilities of patients
Answer: A
Q3) Acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited are defined by ___________ of ______________.
Answer: standards, care
Standards of care define acts whose performance is required, permitted, or prohibited.
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4
Chapter 3: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The staff from all disciplines is developing integrated care plans for a projected length of stay for patients of a specific case type. This is known as a:
A) nursing order.
B) Kardex.
C) nursing care plan.
D) critical pathway.
Answer: D
Q2) The nurse charts only additional treatments done, changes in patient condition, and new concerns. What is this system of documentation?
A) SOAP
B) Block
C) CBE
D) Focus
Answer: C
Q3) Documentation using the DARE format (Data, Action, Response, Education) includes elements of the __________ charting system.
Answer: focused
Focused charting uses the acronym DARE to direct and formalize charting.
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Chapter 4: Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is true about the use of silence in therapeutic communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Maintaining silence is an effective therapeutic communication technique.
B) Maintaining silence is generally overused in therapeutic communication.
C) The sender often becomes uncomfortable when using silence.
D) The ability to use silence effectively requires skill and timing.
E) Prolonged periods of misunderstood silence can cause tension.
F) Purposeful use of silence often conveys lack of respect.
Q2) A patient states, "I'm really strung out about this pregnancy." The nurse responds by asking, "What about this pregnancy worries you?" What communication technique is this?
A) Closed inquiry
B) Restating
C) Open-ended question
D) Minimal encouraging
Q3) What is one of the main characteristics of therapeutic communication?
A) It allows the patient a passive role.
B) It uses only verbal communication.
C) It involves the patient as a person.
D) It is directive.
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Chapter 5: Nursing Process and Critical Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human responses to health conditions and life processes that may develop in a vulnerable individual, family, or community are known as a(n) __________
Q2) From where are the "risk for" nursing diagnoses identified?
A) The care plan
B) The interventions
C) The assessment
D) The evaluation
Q3) What best defines the nursing process?
A) A method to ensure that the physician's orders are implemented correctly.
B) A series of assessments that isolate a patient's health problem.
C) A framework for the organization of individualized nursing care.
D) A preset formula for the design of nursing care.
Q4) A patient with a urinary tract infection is assessed using a clinical pathway. When a projected outcome is not met by a predetermined date, it is determined that what has occurred?
A) Omission
B) Variance
C) Failure
D) Error
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Chapter 6: Cultural and Ethnic Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are some characteristics that cultures have in common? (Select all that apply.)
A) Economic practices
B) Survival modes
C) Transportation systems
D) Language
E) Family systems
Q2) Following the death of a Presbyterian infant, the nurse should help arrange for
Q3) What is the term for when members of a particular ethnic group believe that their beliefs and practices are the best?
A) Prejudice
B) Separatism
C) Ethnocentrism
D) Bias
Q4) While caring for a Mexican American family in the home, the home health nurse recognizes that the family may also consult the _____________ for health advice.
Q5) A generalization about a form of behavior, an individual, or a group is known as a
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Chapter 7: Asepsis and Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is observing isolation precautions by wearing a mask while performing complex patient care. How often should the nurse change masks?
A) 5-10 minutes
B) 10-20 minutes
C) 20-30 minutes
D) 30-40 minutes
Q2) What assessment does the nurse recognize as an inflammatory response in a surgical wound on the leg of a patient?
A) A foul drainage is coming from the wound
B) The affected leg is cooler than the other leg
C) There are raised, red, pruritic welts on the leg
D) Rubor and edema appear around the wound
Q3) What can result from the nurse consistently performing hand hygiene and using sterile supplies when caring for patients in the hospital setting?
A) Hospital stay is shortened
B) Sense of self-worth is improved
C) Risk of infection is reduced
D) Nursing care needed is reduced
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9
Chapter 8: Body Mechanics and Patient Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 125-pound nurse assesses the weight of a patient. What weight is the heaviest the nurse may safely lift by herself?
A) 158.75 lb
B) 168.75 lb
C) 178.75 lb
D) 188.75 lb
Q2) What profession has the highest workers' compensation claim rates of any occupation or industry?
A) Firefighters
B) Truck drivers
C) Law enforcement
D) Nursing personnel
Q3) What should the nurse do to reduce the effort of moving a heavy object?
A) Bring the feet close together and flex the knees
B) Keep the back straight and bend at the waist
C) Widen the base of support in the direction of movement
D) Broaden the base of support and twist toward the direction of movement
Q4) The most common cause of musculoskeletal disorders in nurses involves a movement that requires the nurse to ________ and _________ at the same time.
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Chapter 9: Hygiene and Care of the Patients Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) How will the nurse correctly replace a patient's dentures after cleaning?
A) Inserting the lower denture first
B) Asking the patient to insert them
C) Inserting both dentures together
D) Inserting the upper denture first
Q2) Clear water is used to cleanse the eyes. It is important to use proper technique when cleansing the eyes to prevent infection. What direction will the water flow when cleansing a patient's eyes?
A) Upward toward the forehead
B) Downward toward the chin
C) From the outer toward the inner canthus
D) From the inner toward the outer canthus
Q3) The nurse is educating a patient regarding a tub bath. What is the maximum length of time the nurse should instruct the patient to remain in the water?
A) 5 to 10 minutes
B) 10 to 20 minutes
C) 20 to 30 minutes
D) 30 to 40 minutes
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Chapter 10: Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is important for the nurse to determine in order to decrease the risk for injury to a patient?
A) If patient can read English
B) If patient is left-handed
C) If patient is able to eat unassisted
D) If patient can dress independently
Q2) When reinforcing the PASS acronym for fire extinguisher use, the nurse reminds the staff that the final "S" stands for ______________.
Q3) What must the nurse do before applying a safety reminder device (SRD)?
A) Get permission from the family
B) Assess patient's skin condition
C) Get a physician's order
D) Explain the SRD to the patient
Q4) What should a nurse do when encountering a mercury spill?
A) Vacuum the spill
B) Open interior doors
C) Close all outside windows
D) Open any outside windows
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Chapter 11: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing factors that may influence the patient's pulse rate, what should the nurse take into consideration? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Sex
C) Emotion
D) Temperature
E) Religion
Q2) What is the term for a fever that rises and falls but does not return to normal until the patient is well?
A) Constant
B) Intermittent
C) Remittent
D) Elevated
Q3) The nurse assesses for the fifth vital sign, which is______________.
Q4) If a patient has an axillary temperature of 96.2°F, the nurse understands that the true temperature is ______.
Q5) The nurse assesses the blood pressure as 192/86, noting that the patient has a pulse pressure of ________.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Physical Assessment
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician documents that a patient has a sallow complexion. How does the nurse interpret this information?
A) Yellow color to the skin
B) Blue color to the skin
C) Red color to the skin
D) Gray color to the skin
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient for collection of subjective and objective data. What will this data provide the basis for making?
A) Care plan
B) Medical diagnosis
C) Nursing assessment
D) Nursing diagnosis
Q3) The nurse assesses a patient for capillary refill after the fingernail is compressed for 5 seconds. What should the nurse expect the refill time to be?
A) 1 second
B) 2 seconds
C) 3 seconds
D) 4 seconds
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Chapter 13: Admission, Transfer, and Discharge
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Sample Questions
Q1) What essential part of the admission procedure is performed by the RN?
A) Securing the patient's valuables
B) Confirming the type of insurance coverage
C) Obtaining a health history
D) Familiarizing the patient with the room
Q2) A nurse is admitting a patient to an acute care facility. During the admission procedure, what nursing intervention would best help reduce patient anxiety?
A) Transport the patient by wheelchair.
B) Inform the physician that the patient is admitted.
C) Greet the patient by name.
D) Collect financial information during the interview.
Q3) A nurse is caring for a Haitian American patient. How might the nurse demonstrate cultural sensitivity?
A) Discarding any leaves the patient may have brought with them
B) Assigning the patient to a room with any Haitian American patient
C) Instructing the patient to ride in a wheelchair when discharged
D) Allowing the patient to walk out of the hospital when discharged
Q4) Some _____________________patients consider sundown Friday to sundown Saturday to be the Sabbath, which is a time of rest.
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Chapter 14: Surgical Wound Care
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse assessing a patient's wound notes pale red watery drainage. How will the nurse most accurately document this finding?
A) Serous drainage
B) Purulent drainage
C) Sanguineous drainage
D) Serosanguineous drainage
Q2) The nurse assures a patient that the purple, raised, immature scar of a surgical wound is normal and caused by _______ formation.
Q3) The nurse informs a patient that a wet-to-dry dressing is applied wet and allowed to dry. This drying process causes it to adhere to the wound. What is the result of this intervention when the dressing is removed?
A) Destruction of tissue
B) Bleeding
C) Mechanical debridement
D) Prevention of infection
Q4) When preparing to remove a dressing, the nurse should don __________ gloves.
Q5) The nurse encourages a patient recovering from a hysterectomy to drink at least _______ mL of fluid a day.
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Chapter 15: Specimen Collection and Diagnostic Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a bone scan, the nurse assesses a hematoma at the injection site of the dye. The nurse should apply ______ soaks or compresses.
Q2) What should the nurse do when preparing the patient for an abdominal scan?
A) Assess laboratory results only for liver function
B) Assess patient for allergies to dye or shellfish
C) Instruct patient to limit fluid intake immediately following procedure
D) Instruct patient to be NPO for 1 hour before scan if contrast medium is used
Q3) What is the term for the cleanest part of a voided urine specimen that is collected after voiding is initiated and before it is finished?
A) Sterile specimen
B) "Caught" specimen
C) Midstream specimen
D) Patient-collected specimen
Q4) When initiating a 24-hour urine collection, the nurse asks the patient to void. The nurse then _______ the specimen.
Q5) Following an intravenous pyelogram, the nurse should watch the patient closely for a delayed reaction to the dye, usually occurring within ___ to ___ hours following the procedure.
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Chapter 16: Care of Patients Experiencing Urgent
Alterations in Health
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) CPR has been initiated at an accident site. When can CPR be terminated?
A) Victim is clinically dead
B) Victim is brain dead
C) Paramedics arrive
D) Rescuer perceives CPR is futile
Q2) The acronym RICE directs the nurse in the care of a sprain. The "C" in the acronym stands for ________.
Q3) A burn patient is brought into the emergency department with the following burns: half of the front torso, entire left arm, and front of left leg. The nurse should record that the patient has a ______% burn.
Q4) A patient is admitted to the hospital after receiving a blow to the head. The patient begins to show signs of shock. How should the patient be positioned?
A) With the head lower than the body
B) Flat with the legs elevated
C) Flat on the back
D) In a side-lying position
Q5) If a spinal injury is suspected, before the rescuer starts CPR, the trachea should be opened with a _______ _______ maneuver.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Complementary and Alternative Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Founded in 1992, the National Center for Complementary and Alternative Medicine (NCCAM) has the responsibility for what actions? (Select all that apply.)
A) Evaluating alternative treatments
B) Distributing information to the public
C) Coordinating and conducting research
D) Removing defective products from the market
E) Regulating third-party reimbursement
Q2) Which term describes using the conscious mind to create situations that evoke physical changes in the body?
A) Imagination
B) Self-hypnosis
C) Imagery
D) Visualization
Q3) Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that uses fine needles placed in acupoints. What is the believed purpose of these acupoints?
A) "Close the gate" for pain transmission
B) Align the internal organs
C) Open meridians to release qi
D) Stimulate the "centering" of qi
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19
Chapter 18: Pain Management, Comfort, Rest, and Sleep
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should a nurse promptly administer a prescribed analgesic after a pain assessment?
A) The physician has ordered it
B) It is an efficient use of time
C) Unrelieved pain can cause setbacks
D) It meets the goals of the nursing care plan
Q2) What is the defining term for continuous or intermittent pain that does not serve as a warning of tissue damage?
A) Acute
B) Unrelieved
C) Chronic
D) Subacute
Q3) The nurse explains that transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) provides a continuous mild electrical current to the skin. How does the TENS unit act to reduce pain?
A) Distracts the patient
B) Blocks endorphin production
C) Warms the skin
D) Blocks pain impulses
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Nutritional Concepts and Related Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The young woman who is breastfeeding will need an increase of calories and protein. What foods should the nurse suggest as sources of protein?
A) Green, leafy vegetables
B) Citrus fruits
C) Asparagus
D) Nuts
Q2) What are elements that are found in food and necessary for good health but that the body cannot make?
A) Important nutrients
B) Life-saving nutrients
C) Essential nutrients
D) Necessary nutrients
Q3) The nurse is educating a group of high school students regarding nutrition. How should the nurse respond when the students ask what occurs when protein, mineral, iron, and fat combine?
A) Body processes are regulated
B) Energy is provided
C) Tissue is built and repaired
D) Body function is restored
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Fluids and Electrolytes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse encourages a patient who has been vomiting to drink fluids because the body fluid lost daily must match the amount of fluid taken in to maintain homeostasis. What is the recommended daily amount of fluid for an adult?
A) 1000 mL
B) 1500 mL
C) 2050 mL
D) 2500 mL
Q2) The nurse explains that a normal adult will lose approximately _____ mL of water through respiration in the course of a day.
Q3) The nurse weighs a patient at the same time of day with the same scale and same clothing. What is this a simple and accurate method of determining?
A) An accurate weight
B) Water balance
C) Adequate nutrition
D) Urinary output
Q4) The nurse expects an adult with normal kidney function to void a minimum of ____ mL of urine in 4 hours.
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22
Chapter 21: Mathematics and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following fractions is the smallest?
A) 3/12
B) 2/3
C) 5/6
D) 3/4
Q2) When giving a tubal medication, the nurse should flush the tubing with ___ to ___ mL of water.
Q3) The average adult dose of Phenergan is 50 mg. Using the Young rule for a 10-year-old, what is the correct dosage for the child?
A) 23 mg
B) 25 mg
C) 30 mg
D) 35 mg
Q4) Tylenol gr V is ordered. The available tablet is 0.3g. What dosage should the nurse administer?
A) 1 tablet
B) 1.5 tablets
C) \(\frac { 1 } { 2 }\) tablet
D) 2 tablets
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Chapter 22: Care of Patients with Alterations in Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an appropriate nursing measure when performing tracheostomy care?
A) Wear clean gloves
B) Insert the catheter without suction
C) Suction for 1 minute before removing the catheter
D) Place the used catheter in a plastic shield for later use
Q2) Hot moist compresses have which positive effect(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Improvement of circulation
B) Relief of edema
C) Consolidation of exudates
D) Enhancement of scabbing
E) Relief of pain
Q3) Before inserting a nasogastric tube, what measurement should the nurse take?
A) Tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process
B) Bridge of the nose to the xiphoid process
C) Nose to the top of the ear to the stomach
D) Clavicular notch to the stomach
Q4) The appliance that connects to an IV drip and delivers a continuous irrigation to the eye is known as a ________ _________
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Chapter 23: Life Span Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who has just begun to demonstrate object permanence is in which of the Piaget stages of cognitive development?
A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational thought
C) Formal operational thought
D) Concrete operational thought
Q2) The home health nurse assesses an older adult's respiratory function carefully because age-related changes in the respiratory system could result in which of the following?
A) Vital capacity
B) Susceptibility to respiratory infections
C) Expiratory capacity due to increased chest size
D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange
Q3) The nurse tells a mother that the blueprint for all inherited traits, such as height, is found in which of the following?
A) Sperm
B) Ovary
C) Chromosomes
D) Nucleus of the cell
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Loss, Grief, Dying, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse spends a great deal of time in the room of a dying 12-year-old because the nurse knows that most children are aware of their condition and want the nurse to do which of the following?
A) Keep them clean
B) Help them eat
C) Care about them
D) Keep them comfortable
Q2) What is the final stage of human growth and development?
A) Integrity
B) Death
C) Despair
D) Resolution
Q3) A nurse is caring for the dying mother of a 7-year-old child. What is important for the nurse to understand regarding the child?
A) The child associates death with aggression.
B) The child believes his or her own death cannot be avoided.
C) The child lacks understanding of the concept of death.
D) The child understands death as the inevitable end of life.
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Chapter 25: Health Promotion and Pregnancy
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Q1) The chorion and the amnion are the two components of the ________
Q2) Where does implantation of the fertilized ovum usually occur?
A) Lower uterine wall
B) Side of the uterus
C) Fundus of the uterus
D) Body of the uterus
Q3) What does the increase in circulating blood volume during pregnancy cause in the mother?
A) Shortness of breath
B) Frontal headaches
C) Decreased white blood cell count
D) Decreased hemoglobin
Q4) A woman entering the 22nd week of pregnancy complains that she has become unsightly because of chloasma. What should the nurse recommend to reduce the appearance of the chloasma?
A) Use heavy makeup
B) Take extra doses of vitamin A
C) Avoid exposure to the sun
D) Reduce caffeine intake
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Chapter 26: Labor and Delivery
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is oxytocin administered in the third stage of labor?
A) To stimulate lactation
B) To relieve postpartum pain
C) To stimulate uterine contractions
D) To sedate the mother so she can rest
Q2) A woman is admitted in active labor, and the nurse assesses the fetal heart rate (FHR) at 124 bpm. What action should the nurse take based on the assessment?
A) Position patient on her left side
B) Start oxygen per nasal cannula
C) Reassure the mother the rate is normal
D) Notify the physician at once
Q3) During labor, the patient screams at her husband to get out of her sight. What would be the most appropriate action for the nurse?
A) Ask the husband to leave the room
B) Assure the husband that such behavior is normal
C) Remind the patient that the husband wants to help
D) Change the patient's position
Q4) A primigravida has a pelvis of the android type, which usually means the delivery will be a _______________.
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Chapter 27: Care of the Mother and Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) The new mother has decided not to breastfeed the baby. How should the nurse correctly instruct the mother to suppress her milk supply?
A) Pump the breasts to remove milk
B) Apply warm, moist compresses
C) Restrict oral fluids
D) Apply a firm bra and ice packs
Q2) The nurse is giving a bath demonstration for a group of new mothers. What should be included in the demonstration?
A) Apply baby powder generously to keep baby dry.
B) Cleanse perineum from front to back.
C) Use scented soap to make baby smell good.
D) Partially submerge head in water when shampooing.
Q3) Following delivery of the newborn, which nursing intervention should be carried out immediately?
A) Weigh the infant
B) Warm the infant
C) Bathe the infant
D) Inoculate the infant
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Family with Special Needs
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse hope to identify by keeping a record of a patient's blood pressure during prenatal visits?
A) Ketoacidosis
B) Placenta previa
C) Gestational diabetes
D) Gestational hypertension
Q2) The nurse is assessing the newborn and discovers a yellowing of the skin. What is true for jaundice that appears at birth?
A) Within normal limits
B) Pathologic
C) A result of iron deficiency
D) Indicating possible hepatitis
Q3) A patient is admitted to the hospital with hyperemesis gravidarum. The patient is malnourished and severely dehydrated. The care plan should be altered to include which interventions?
A) Hyperalimentation
B) IV fluids and electrolyte replacement
C) Hormone replacement therapy
D) Vitamin supplements
30
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Chapter 29: Health Promotion for the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which children must be secured in the back seat in a rear-facing safety seat?
A) Children weighing up to 20 lb
B) Children weighing between 20 and 30 lb
C) Children weighing between 30 and 40 lb
D) Children weighing more than 40 lb
Q2) Which of the following interventions should be included when teaching a healthy behaviors class for parents of adolescents? (Select all that apply.)
A) Always monitor the child's telephone conversations
B) Insist on seatbelt use at all times
C) Encourage tanning bed use versus exposure to the sun
D) Maintain recommended immunization schedule
E) Encourage good dental care
Q3) Smoking contributes to an increased risk of heart and lung disease in children by which methods?
A) Air pollution
B) Allergens in the environment
C) Environmental smoke
D) Lack of oxygen in the air
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Chapter 30: Basic Pediatric Nursing Care
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one way to enhance the nutrition of the hospitalized toddler?
A) Reward with sweets for eating meals
B) Discourage participation in noneating activities
C) Offer nutritious fluids frequently
D) Leave nutritious finger foods out for the child to eat
Q2) The nurse welcomes the presence of the family in a pediatric unit because it reduces the stressors of hospitalization. Which are common stressors for the hospitalized child? (Select all that apply.)
A) Separation
B) Lack of love
C) Fear of pain
D) Unfamiliar food
E) Loss of control
Q3) What is the purpose of a mist tent?
A) To provide a constant oxygen supply
B) To liquefy respiratory secretions
C) To aid in lowering temperature
D) To improve the infant's hydration
Q4) The pediatric nurse, along with the primary caregiver(s), has a special duty to ________ the child and the family.
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Chapter 31: Care of the Child with a Physical and Mental or Cognitive Disorder
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the infant with gastroesophageal reflux (GER) typically treated?
A) By making the infant NPO
B) By thickening the formula or breast milk with cereal
C) By placing the infant to sleep on the side
D) By switching the infant to cow's milk
Q2) Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
A) Every 2 months
B) Every 4 months
C) Every 6 months
D) Every 8 months
Q3) The physician is treating a child with meningitis with a course of antibiotic therapy. When should the nurse expect the child to be out of isolation?
A) When the course of antibiotics is complete
B) When a negative CNS culture is obtained
C) When the antibiotics have been initiated for 24 hours
D) When the child has no symptoms of the disease
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Chapter 32: Health Promotion and Care of the Older Adult
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best test to identify the risk of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?
A) Skeletal x-ray
B) Bone density scan
C) Calcium blood level
D) CAT scan
Q2) The nurse is assisting an older adult patient out of bed when suddenly the patient begins to fall. What is the likely cause of the fall?
A) Fever
B) Orthostatic hypotension
C) Dehydration
D) A decrease in venous return
Q3) Because thin skin and lack of subcutaneous fat predisposes the older adult to pressure ulcers, the nurse alters the care plan to include turning the bedfast patient how often?
A) Once every shift
B) Every 4 hours
C) Each evening
D) Every 2 hours
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34
Chapter 33: Concepts of Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse tearfully confides to the head nurse that being assigned to care for eight patients is stressful and overwhelming. What demonstrates the use of a healthy coping mechanism?
A) Writing down long lists of needed interventions before starting the day's work
B) Delegating appropriate care assignments to nursing assistants
C) Asking a co-worker to take one of her patients
D) Asking for the day off
Q2) In the movie Gone with the Wind, Scarlett O'Hara says, "I'll think about that tomorrow. Tomorrow is another day." The nurse recognizes the defense mechanism of
Q3) What action by a student before taking a test should indicate to a nursing instructor that the student is demonstrating signs of moderate anxiety?
A) Studies for 6 hours
B) Sleeps 6 hours because of fatigue
C) Vomits
D) Argues about the scheduling of the test
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Chapter 34: Care of the Patient with a Psychiatric Disorder
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that stress can cause an ulcer, which is classified as a _______________ illness.
Q2) A young man with malaria spikes a temperature of 105° F and begins to hallucinate. How should the nurse assess this?
A) Delirium
B) Psychotic break
C) Possible stroke
D) Anxiety disorder
Q3) The nurse asks a patient with schizophrenia if he had any visitors on Sunday. Which response indicates loose association?
A) "No."
B) "Yes! I had 90 visitors who came from every state in the union."
C) "Sunday is the Sabbath. Do we have visitors on the Sabbath?"
D) "We visited Yellowstone Park last summer."
Q4) Dementia is an organic mental disease secondary to what problem?
A) Chemical imbalance
B) Emotional problems
C) Circulatory impairment
D) Cerebral disease
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Chapter 35: Care of the Patient with an Addictive Personality
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A college student has brought his hallucinating roommate to the college clinic. The young man says his roommate has been experimenting with phencyclidine (PCP). How long should the nurse expect the hallucinations to last?
A) 30 to 60 minutes
B) 1 to 4 hours
C) 4 to 6 hours
D) 6 to 12 hours
Q2) During the initial intake assessment of a drug user, the nurse should attempt to obtain which subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
A) Usual pattern of use
B) Specific drug
C) Previous arrests
D) Amount of drug used
E) Time of last use
Q3) When assessing an alcoholic patient, the nurse notes short-term memory loss, painful extremities, footdrop, and muttered incoherent responses to questions. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as most likely related to a condition caused by long-term alcohol abuse, which is known as __________ syndrome.
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Chapter 36: Home Health Nursing
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31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because many illnesses are now controlled rather than cured, the number of people with chronic, debilitating illnesses has increased. What do home care nurses prevent by providing?
A) Deaths
B) Increased morbidity
C) Increased hospitalization
D) Acute episodes
Q2) How long is the average home health care visit by the skilled nurse?
A) 10 to 15 minutes
B) 20 to 30 minutes
C) 30 to 45 minutes
D) 45 to 60 minutes
Q3) If solely for this reason, Medicare will not cover home health aide visits. What is that reason?
A) Physical assistance
B) Physician orders
C) Personal care
D) Household chores
Q4) The nurse can best confirm that the patient understands the communication by obtaining ____________ from the patient.
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Chapter 37: Long-Term Care
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34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A daughter is assessing a nursing home before placing her mother there for what she feels will be a long-term stay. Which of the following are important aspects of quality to consider when selecting a nursing home? (Select all that apply.)
A) Privacy is respected
B) Staff members are task-focused
C) The staff welcomes family visits
D) There is a homelike environment
E) Rooms are maintained like a hospital
Q2) The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) defines the requirements for which aspect of care as it relates to long-term care?
A) Nursing care
B) Nutritional support
C) Quality of care
D) Staffing requirements
Q3) What is the correct term for people who live in long-term care facilities?
A) Patients, because they will be receiving acute care
B) Residents, because the facility has become their home
C) Patients, because they seek professional medical services
D) Customers, because they are purchasing care service
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Rehabilitation Nursing
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When caring for a patient with a disability, the rehabilitation nurse provides individual treatment to help the patient stay focused on which goals?
A) Returning to normal
B) Independence
C) Employment
D) Promotion of health
Q2) When changing the position of a patient with a spinal cord injury at T4, the nurse should recognize that what symptom is an indication of an episode of autonomic dysreflexia?
A) Nausea
B) Pallor
C) Goose bumps
D) Dizziness
Q3) The patient with a brain injury is beginning to regain memory. The nurse explains to the family that what will most likely occur?
A) The patient will become less combative.
B) The patient will become angrier.
C) The patient will become more depressed.
D) The patient will wish to retire.
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Chapter 39: Hospice Care
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hospice nurse documents an assessment finding of cachexia in the patient record. What does cachexia describe?
A) Deep sleep and unresponsiveness
B) Marked weakness and emaciation
C) Total addiction to opioids
D) Renewed energy
Q2) When air hunger is assessed in the dying patient, the nurse can perform which intervention(s)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Circulate the air with a fan
B) Use a tranquilizer to decrease anxiety
C) Provide good oral hygiene
D) Perform careful suctioning
E) Raise the head of the bed 30 degrees
Q3) Who was responsible for renewing the hospice philosophy in the 1960s?
A) Cicely Saunders
B) Lillian Wald
C) Dorothea Dix
D) Florence Nightingale
Q4) When the dying patient becomes confused, the nurse should ____________ him or her.
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Chapter 40: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the distinct surface proteins of the plasma membrane essential in determining?
A) Tissue typing
B) Blood count
C) Effectiveness of a drug
D) Sexual maturity
Q2) Using a poster, the nurse demonstrates the protection of the nucleus. Arrange the layers starting with the most superficial. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
B) Nuclear membrane
C) Nucleus
D) Plasma membrane
E) Cytoplasm
Q3) What is the broad section of biology dealing with the description of human structure?
A) Hematology
B) Anatomy
C) Kinesiology
D) Physiology
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Chapter 41: Care of the Surgical Patient
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the patient's return to the medical-surgical unit, the nurse performing an abdominal assessment can affirm an absence of bowel sounds after listening in each quadrant for at least:
A) 30 seconds.
B) 1 minute.
C) 2 minutes.
D) 3 minutes.
Q2) The nurse clarifies that serum potassium levels are determined before surgery to:
A) assess kidney function.
B) determine respiratory insufficiency.
C) prevent arrhythmias related to anesthesia.
D) measure functional liver capability.
Q3) While turning a patient who had a bowel resection yesterday, the wound eviscerated. What is the initial nursing intervention?
A) Place the patient in the high Fowler's position.
B) Give the patient fluids to prevent shock.
C) Replace the dressing with sterile fluffy pads.
D) Apply a warm, moist normal saline sterile dressing.
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Chapter 42: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has been admitted to the hospital with burns to the upper chest. The nurse notes singed nasal hairs. The nurse needs to assess this patient frequently for which condition?
A) Decreased activity
B) Bradycardia
C) Respiratory complications
D) Hypertension
Q2) What should the nurse examine in assessing a patient for tinea corporis?
A) Soles of the feet
B) Scalp
C) Armpits
D) Abdomen
Q3) When providing the open method of treatment for a patient who is 52 years old with burns to the lower extremities, what would a nurse include in the nursing plan?
A) Change the dressing using good medical asepsis
B) Provide an analgesic immediately after the dressing change
C) Perform circulation checks every 2 to 4 hours
D) Keep the room temperature at 85° F (29.4° C) to prevent chilling
Q4) The most deadly skin cancer is ________________.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Care of the Patient with a Musculoskeletal Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nurse instruct the patient before a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) procedure?
A) Void to completely empty the bladder
B) Omit all citrus food for 12 hours before the procedure
C) Remove all metal, such as jewelry, glasses, and hair clips
D) Wear only cotton garments for the procedure
Q2) The characteristics of osteoarthritis that should be included in a teaching plan would include that osteoarthritis (select all that apply):
A) will cause the formation of Heberden nodes.
B) can involve other organs.
C) results from wear and tear.
D) may affect only one side of the body.
E) may cause constitutional symptoms of fatigue and fever.
F) will cause marked erythema and edema of hands.
Q3) The nurse administering the drug colchicine for gout will give 0.5 mg hourly for _____ hours.
Q4) The nurse explains that the use of the _________brace allows a person with a cervical fracture to be mobile.
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Chapter 44: Care of the Patient with a Gastrointestinal Disorder
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bowel sound assessment on a patient with an obstruction who has distention, nausea, and visible peristaltic waves would be:
A) loud and clearly audible.
B) high pitched.
C) hyperactive.
D) absent.
Q2) In designing a teaching plan to present to a group of older adults regarding the prevention of esophageal cancer, the nurse would include information about the significance of (select all that apply):
A) cessation of smoking.
B) good oral care.
C) regular checkups if dysphagia is present.
D) reducing excessive weight.
E) limiting alcohol consumption.
F) reduction of consumption of citrus fruits.
Q3) Due to frequent bouts of constipation, the nurse examines the bedfast nursing home resident for ulceration of the anus, called __________________.
Q4) Flexible sigmoidoscopy should be performed every ________ years.
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Care of the Patient with a Gallbladder, Liver, Biliary Tract, or Exocrine Pancreatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common procedure for the removal of the gallbladder?
A) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B) Cholangiography
C) Open cholecystectomy
D) Choledochostomy
Q2) Which patient statement indicates that the patient requires additional teaching about an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?
A) "Right after the test, I want breakfast with black coffee."
B) "The instrument will be put down my throat."
C) "I haven't had anything to eat or drink since 9 PM last night."
D) "My doctor said I could have medicine to relax me before the test."
Q3) Why is it advantageous for a live person to be a liver donor?
A) Because the donor is not at risk for any complication
B) Because the recipient is more likely to avoid rejection
C) Because the donor donates only a part of the liver
D) Because the blood supply is more dependable in the donated liver
Q4) The disease that is on the increase because of the growing obesity population and is associated with coronary artery disease and use of corticosteroids is_______________.
Q5) Hepatitis D is usually seen as a co-infection with __________.
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Chapter 46: Care of the Patient with a Blood or Lymphatic Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which patient statement from a 15-year-old girl with thrombocytopenia would require more assessment to report to the charge nurse?
A) "I think these red spots on my skin are going away."
B) "I am so bored lying in bed I could scream."
C) "My bowel movement is brown and stinks."
D) "I have this really weird Coke-colored urine."
Q2) The nurse caring for a patient in the emergency room with suspected internal injuries will assess for hypovolemic shock, which is evidenced by (select all that apply):
A) irritability.
B) restlessness.
C) slow bounding pulse.
D) decreased respirations.
E) pallor.
F) hypotension.
Q3) The Reed-Sternberg cell is the hallmark diagnostic indicator for
Q4) _____________ are leukocytes that destroy and remove cellular waste, bacteria, and solid particles.
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Chapter 47: Care of the Patient with a Cardiovascular or a Peripheral
Vascular Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse encourages the patient who is recovering from a myocardial infarct (MI) to ask the health care provider to prescribe a cardiac rehabilitation series in order to learn to (select all that apply):
A) improve stamina.
B) strengthen muscles.
C) plan an appropriate diet.
D) select herbal remedies.
E) reduce risk of further problems.
F) understand heart condition.
Q2) Which assessment would lead the nurse to examine the leg closely for evidence of a stasis ulcer?
A) Cool dry lower limb
B) Edematous, red scaly skin on medial surface of the leg
C) Lack of hair and shiny appearance of the lower leg
D) Lack of a pedal pulse
Q3) The pain that a person with arterial insufficiency feels on exertion, which is relieved by rest, is ______________ _____________.
Q4) The life support system that uses special techniques, ventilation equipment, and therapies for emergency situations is ________.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Care of the Patient with a Respiratory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _________ are the structures of the lung in which gas exchange occurs.
Q2) The nurse prepares a patient for the procedure of a(n) __________, which will remove the fluid from around the lung to improve respiration and obtain a specimen.
Q3) How should a patient be positioned after a thoracentesis is completed and the dressing applied?
A) High Fowler
B) Semi-Fowler
C) Side lying on unaffected side
D) Prone
Q4) What is the purpose of the cilia?
A) Warm and moisturize inhaled air
B) Sweep debris toward nasal cavity
C) Stimulate cough reflex
D) Produce mucus
Q5) How does pursed lip breathing assist patients with asthma during an attack?
A) It distracts the patient with breathing technique to reduce anxiety.
B) It gets rid of CO2 faster.
C) It opens bronchioles by backflow air pressure.
D) It increases PACO2..
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Chapter 49: Care of the Patient with a Urinary Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis report on an assigned patient. The nurse recognizes which findings to be normal? (Select all that apply.)
A) Turbidity clear
B) pH 6.0
C) Glucose negative
D) Red blood cells, 15 to 20
E) White blood cells
Q2) The nurse is aware that as a person ages there is a loss of the __________mechanism of the kidney due to a decrease in blood supply to the kidneys and loss of nephrons.
A) filtering
B) reabsorption
C) sterile water.
D) concentrating
Q3) _____________ is a term for severe generalized edema.
Q4) The prostatectomy technique, which involves an incision through the abdomen and the bladder, is a ____________prostatectomy.
Q5) Exercises to increase muscle tone of the pelvic floor are known as ____________ exercises.
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Chapter
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse teaching a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus (IDDM) about early signs of Insulin reaction would include information about:
A) abdominal pain and nausea.
B) dyspnea and pallor.
C) flushing of the skin and headache.
D) hunger and a trembling sensation.
Q2) Another term for hyperglycemic reaction is ____________ ______________.
Q3) Which precaution(s) should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is being treated with radioactive iodine 131 (RAIU)?
A) Initiate radioactive safety precautions
B) Avoid assigning any young woman to the patient
C) Wait three days after dose before assigning a pregnant nurse to care for this patient
D) Advise visitors to sit at least 10 feet away from the patient
Q4) A condition with a deficiency in growth hormone is called ________________.
Q5) The nurse is administering long-acting insulin once a day, which provides insulin coverage for 24 hours. This insulin is _________________.
Q6) Only ________insulin can be administered intravenously.
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Chapter 51: Care of the Patient with a Reproductive Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition would prevent the use of a vaginal hysterectomy?
A) A woman with more than four pregnancies
B) Large uterine fibroids
C) Menorrhagia for over 6 months
D) Women over the age of 50
Q2) A 20-year-old patient presents in the emergency room with a temperature of 103° F, blood pressure of 92/58, headache, and desquamation of both palms. What should the nurse make sure to ask about during the interview?
A) Any recent traveling outside the country
B) Immunization against influenza
C) Method of birth control
D) Use of tampons
Q3) Which statement indicates that the patient who has had an abdominal hysterectomy needs further home teaching?
A) "I understand I can lift as much as 20 lb."
B) "I'm leaving today to stay with my daughter, who lives 20 miles away. My husband plans to drive the family car."
C) "The doctor said I can't have sexual intercourse for 4 to 6 weeks."
D) "I'm going to miss wearing my girdle or knee-high hose."
Page 53
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Chapter 52: Care of the Patient with a Sensory Disorder
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Sample Questions
Q1) What must a patient do following a left vitrectomy?
A) Remain flat in bed for 48 hours
B) Position self in a face-down position for 4 to 5 days
C) Assume a side-lying position with the left side down for 3 days
D) Keep head upright and cushioned with pillows for 24 hours
Q2) Why would the nurse encourage a group of teenagers to protect their eyes with dark sunglasses while using a UV lamp?
A) The lamp can cause cataracts.
B) The lamp can cause presbycusis.
C) The lamp can cause keratitis.
D) The lamp can cause ectropion.
Q3) Place the nursing intervention in appropriate order for the immediate care of a patient with a penetrating wound of the eye. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D)
A) Assess eye, do not remove object
B) Cover both eyes with an eye shield or cup
C) Lay the patient down flat
D) Check for the irregularity of the pupil
E) Obtain medical attention immediately
Q4) The total removal of an eye is a(n) ___________.
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Chapter
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 83-year-old patient has had a stroke. He is right-handed and has a history of hypertension and "little" strokes. He presents with right hemiplegia. To afford him the best visual field, the nurse should approach him:
A) from the right side.
B) from the left side.
C) from the center.
D) from either side.
Q2) A ___________ is a diagnostic procedure used to identify lesions by observing the flow of radiopaque dye through the subarachnoid space.
Q3) Which symptom is specific to migraine headaches?
A) Tachycardia
B) They become worse in the evening
C) They involve the entire head
D) They are preceded by an aura
Q4) Involuntary rhythmic movement of the eyes, with oscillations that may be horizontal, vertical, or mixed movements, is called ___________________
Q5) _________________ is/are responsible for the transmission of impulses between synapses.
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Chapter
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse outlines the functions of the immune system as those actions which: (Select all that apply.)
A) Prevention of hemorrhage
B) Protection of the body's internal environment
C) Maintenance of hemoglobin level
D) Maintenance of homeostasis by removing damaged cells
E) Destruction of growth of abnormal cells
Q2) The nurse recommends to the busy mother of three that the antihistamine fexofenadine (Allegra) would be more beneficial than diphenhydramine (Benadryl) because Allegra:
A) is inexpensive.
B) contains a stimulant for an energy boost.
C) does not dry out the mucous membranes.
D) does not induce drowsiness.
Q3) How does normal aging change the immune system?
A) Depresses bone marrow
B) T cells become hyperactive
C) B cells show deficiencies in activity
D) Increase in the size of the thymus
Q4) A type IV latex allergy is characterized by________ _______.
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Chapter 55: Care of the Patient with HIV/AIDS
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has just been diagnosed as HIV-positive. He asks the nurse, "Does this mean I have AIDS?" Which response would be most informative?
A) "Most people get AIDS within 3 to 12 weeks after they are infected with HIV."
B) "Don't worry. You may never get AIDS if you eat properly, exercise, and get plenty of rest."
C) "It varies with every individual, but the average time is 8 to 10 years from the time a person is infected, and some go much longer."
D) "You can expect to develop signs and symptoms of AIDS within 6 months."
Q2) An organism that can cross from an animal species to humans is a(n) ____________organism.
Q3) The term that describes an immunosuppressed patient's inability to react to a skin test is __________________.
Q4) The patient, age 21, has been treated for chlamydia and has a history of recurrent herpes. What should the nurse counsel this patient about?
A) Sexual history, risk reduction measures, and testing for HIV
B) Getting an appointment at a family planning clinic
C) Testing for HIV and what the test results mean
D) Abstinence and a monogamous relationship
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Care of the Patient with Cancer
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5510
Sample Questions
Q1) How do cancer cells differ from normal cells? (Select all that apply.)
A) They replicate in an organized manner.
B) They have larger nuclei.
C) They have an irregular shape.
D) They have a different number of chromosomes.
E) They have a different mitosis process.
Q2) What should the home health nurse advise the patient who found a lump in her breast a week ago during breast self-examination?
A) Arrange for an examination by her physician
B) Wait until her next ovulatory cycle and check the lump again
C) Postpone appointment until the lump enlarges
D) Apply warm, moist compresses
Q3) Nursing interventions for the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements would include all these except:
A) provide adequate, easily digestible, soft, bland foods.
B) give small, frequent, highly nutritional meals.
C) allow extra time to eat.
D) offer three regular meals of highly nutritious foods.
Q4) A ___________ test screens for occult blood in the stool.
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Chapter 57: Professional Roles and Leadership
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/5511
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of leadership involves a leader who displays little trust or confidence in employees and therefore makes all the decisions?
A) Democratic
B) Laissez-faire
C) Autocratic
D) Authoritative
Q2) What is another term for promotion?
A) Reward
B) Advancement
C) Lift
D) Bubble
Q3) In what setting can the LPN/LVN's management and leadership skills be developed best?
A) Acute care hospital
B) Rehabilitation hospital
C) Trauma center
D) Long-term care facility
Q4) The experienced nurse who assists a novice to learn the skills of the profession is called a(n) ________________.
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