Patient Care and Medication Administration Test Questions - 825 Verified Questions

Page 1


Patient Care and Medication Administration

Test Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides students with foundational knowledge and practical skills essential for effective patient care and safe medication administration in clinical settings. Students will explore the principles of patient safety, communication, infection control, vital signs assessment, and documentation. The course also covers the pharmacological concepts necessary for understanding medication mechanisms, dosages, preparation, and administration techniques including oral, intravenous, and other common routes. Emphasis is placed on ethical and legal aspects, patient-centered care, prevention of medication errors, and strategies for dealing with adverse drug events. Through hands-on practice and case studies, students gain competency and confidence in delivering holistic care and ensuring optimal patient outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Evolve Resources for Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 7th Edition by Linda Lane Lilley

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

58 Chapters

825 Verified Questions

825 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1613 Page 2

Chapter 1: The Nursing Process and Drug Therapy

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31978

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is performing an assessment of a newly admitted patient. Which is an example of subjective data?

A) Blood pressure 158/96 mm Hg

B) Weight 255 pounds

C) The patient reports that he uses the herbal product ginkgo.

D) The patient's laboratory work includes a complete blood count and urinalysis.

Answer: C

Q2) The medication order reads, "Give ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg, 30 minutes before beginning chemotherapy to prevent nausea." The nurse notes that the route is missing from the order. What is the nurse's best action?

A) Give the medication intravenously because the patient might vomit.

B) Give the medication orally because the tablets are available in 4-mg doses.

C) Contact the prescriber to clarify the route of the medication ordered.

D) Hold the medication until the prescriber returns to make rounds.

Answer: C

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Chapter 2: Pharmacologic Principles

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31979

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering medications to the patient who is in liver failure resulting from end-stage cirrhosis. The nurse is aware that patients with liver failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase?

A) Absorption

B) Distribution

C) Metabolism

D) Excretion

Answer: C

Q2) When given an intravenous medication, the patient says to the nurse, "I usually take pills. Why does this medication have to be given in the arm?" What is the nurse's best resolve ?

A) "The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously."

B) "The intravenous medication will have delayed absorption into the body's tissues."

C) "The action of the medication will begin sooner when given intravenously."

D) "There is a lower chance of allergic reactions when drugs are given intravenously."

Answer: C

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Chapter 3: Lifespan Considerations

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31980

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to give an injection to a 4-year-old child. Which intervention is age-appropriate for this child?

A) Give the injection without any advanced preparation.

B) Give the injection, and then explain the reason for the procedure afterwards.

C) Offer a brief, concrete explanation of the procedure at the patient's level and with the parent or caregiver present.

D) Prepare the child in advance with details about the procedure without the parent or caregiver present.

Answer: C

Q2) The nurse is trying to give a liquid medication to a \(2\) \( 1 / 2 \) -year-old child and notes that the medication has a strong taste. Which technique is the best way for the nurse to give the medication to this child?

A) Give the medication with spoonfuls of ice cream.

B) Add the medication to the child's bottle.

C) Tell the child you have candy for him.

D) Add the medication to a cup of milk.

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Cultural, Legal, and Ethical Considerations

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31981

Sample Questions

Q1) During a busy night shift, a new nurse administered an unfamiliar medication without checking it in a drug handbook. Later that day, the patient had a severe reaction because he has renal problems, which was a contraindication to that drug. The nurse may be liable for

A) medical negligence.

B) nursing negligence.

C) nonmaleficence.

D) autonomy.

Q2) During the development of a new drug, which would be included in the study by the researcher to prevent any bias or unrealistic expectations of the new drug's usefulness? A) A placebo

B) FDA approval

C) Informed consent

D) Safety information

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6

Chapter 5: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding

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8 Verified Questions

8 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31982

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is transcribing a verbal medication order. Which is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered?

A) Digoxin .125 mg

B) Digoxin .1250 mg

C) Digoxin 0.125 mg

D) Digoxin 0.1250 mg

Q2) When given a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, "I haven't seen that pill before. Are you sure it's correct?" The nurse checks the medication administration record and verifies that it is listed. Which is the nurse's best response?

A) "It's listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it."

B) "Go ahead and take it, and then I'll check with your doctor about it."

C) "It wouldn't be listed here if it were not ordered for you!"

D) "Let me check on the order first before you take it."

Q3) When taking a telephone order for a medication, which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) Verify the order with the charge nurse.

B) Call back the prescriber to review the order.

C) Repeat the order to the prescriber before hanging up the telephone.

D) Ask the pharmacist to double-check the order.

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Page 7

Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31983

Sample Questions

Q1) Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient who has just received a prescription for a new medication?

A) Noncompliance related to new drug therapy

B) Impaired memory related to new drug therapy

C) Lack of knowledge regarding newly prescribed drug therapy

D) Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy

Q2) During a nursing assessment, which question by the nurse allows for greater clarification and additional discussion with the patient?

A) "Are you allergic to penicillin?"

B) "What medications do you take?"

C) "Have you had a reaction to this drug?"

D) "Are you taking this medication with meals?"

Q3) A patient is to receive prednisone 7.5 mg PO daily. The tablets are available in a 2.5-mg strength. How many tablets will the patient receive?

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8

Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Herbal and Dietary Supplements

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31984

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing the criteria for over-the-counter drugs. Which criteria for over-the-counter status in the United States are accurate? (Select all that apply.)

A) The drug must be easy to use.

B) The drug must have a low therapeutic index.

C) The consumer must be able to monitor the drug's effectiveness.

D) The drug must have a low potential for abuse.

E) The drug must not have any interactions with other drugs.

Q2) The nurse is conducting a class for senior citizens about the use of over-the-counter ( OTC ) drugs. Which statements are true regarding the use of OTC drugs? (Select all that apply.)

A) Use of OTC drugs may delay treatment of serious ailments.

B) Drug interactions with OTC medications are rare.

C) OTC drugs may relieve symptoms without addressing the cause of the problem.

D) OTC drugs are indicated for long-term treatment of conditions.

E) Patients may misunderstand product labels and use the drugs improperly.

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Chapter 8: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics

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7 Verified Questions

7 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31985

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is discussing gene therapy in a continuing education class. Which is the best definition of eugenics?

A) The use of gene therapy to prevent disease

B) The development of new drugs based on gene therapy

C) Intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others

D) The determination of genetic factors that influence a person's response to medications

Q2) Which is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to offspring?

A) Chromatin

B) DNA

C) Alleles

D) RNA

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Chapter 9: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration

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23 Verified Questions

23 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31986

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is giving medications through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which technique is correct?

A) Administering the medications using a 3-mL medication syringe

B) Applying firm pressure on the syringe's piston to infuse the medication

C) Flushing the tubing with 30 mL of saline after the medication has been given

D) Using the barrel of the syringe, allowing the medication to flow via gravity into the tube

Q2) The nurse is measuring 4 mL of a liquid cough elixir for a child. Which method is most appropriate?

A) Using a teaspoon to measure and administer

B) Holding the medication cup at eye level and filling it to the desired level

C) Withdrawing the elixir from the container using a syringe without a needle attached

D) Withdrawing the elixir from the container using a calibrated oral syringe

Q3) A patient is to receive hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 1.5 mg IV push now. The medication comes in a prefilled syringe, 2 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer for this dose?

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Chapter 10: Analgesic Drugs

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31987

Sample Questions

Q1) The drug nalbuphine (Nubain) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists?

A) They have antiinflammatory effects.

B) They are given to reverse the effects of opiates.

C) They have a higher potency than agonists.

D) They have a lower dependency potential than agonists.

Q2) A patient is receiving gabapentin (Neurontin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition?

A) Inflammation pain

B) Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy

C) Depression associated with chronic pain

D) Prevention of seizures

Q3) The nurse is reviewing herbal therapies. Which is a common use of the herb feverfew?

A) Muscle aches

B) Migraine headaches

C) Leg cramps

D) Incision pain after surgery

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Chapter 11: General and Local Anesthetics

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31988

Sample Questions

Q1) During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure?

A) No anesthesia

B) Topical benzocaine spray on the area

C) Topical prilocaine ( EMLA ) cream around the site

D) Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine

Q2) A patient is undergoing abdominal surgery and has been anesthetized for 3 hours. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient?

A) Anxiety related to the use of an anesthetic

B) Risk for injury related to increased sensorium from general anesthesia

C) Decreased cardiac output related to systemic effects of local anesthesia

D) Impaired gas exchange related to central nervous system depression produced by general anesthesia

Q3) A patient is to receive midazolam (Versed) 2 mg IV push over 2 minutes just before an endoscopy procedure. The medication is available in a strength of 5 mg/mL. How many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up into the syringe for this dose?

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Chapter 12: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31989

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is brought to the emergency department for treatment of a suspected overdose. The patient was found with an empty prescription bottle of a barbiturate by his bedside. He is lethargic and barely breathing. The nurse would expect which immediate intervention?

A) Starting an intravenous infusion of diluted bicarbonate solution

B) Administering medications to increase blood pressure

C) Implementing measures to maintain the airway and support respirations

D) Administrating naloxone (Narcan) as an antagonist

Q2) A patient tells the nurse that he likes to drink kava herbal tea to help him relax. Which statement by the patient indicates that additional teaching about this herbal product is needed?

A) "I will not drink wine with the kava tea."

B) "If I notice my skin turning yellow, I will stop taking the tea."

C) "I will not take sleeping pills if I have this tea in the evening."

D) "I will be able to drive my car after drinking this tea."

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Stimulants and Related Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31990

Sample Questions

Q1) A 22-year-old nursing student has been taking NoDoz (caffeine) tablets for the past few weeks to "make it through" the end of the semester and exam week. She is in the university clinic today because she is "exhausted." What nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for her?

A) Noncompliance

B) Impaired physical mobility

C) Sleep deprivation

D) Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

Q2) The order reads, "Give atomoxetine (Strattera) 0.5 mg/kg/day once daily in the morning before school." The child weighs 88 pounds. How many milligrams will be administered per dose?

Q3) An ergot alkaloid is prescribed for a patient who is having frequent migraine headaches. The nurse provides information to the patient about the medication and tells the patient to contact the prescriber if which problem occurs?

A) Nervousness

B) Dizziness

C) Chest pain

D) Nausea and vomiting

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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31991

Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching a patient about taking a newly prescribed antiepileptic drug ( AED ) at home, the nurse will include which instruction?

A) "Driving is allowed after 2 weeks of therapy."

B) "If seizures recur, take a double dose of the medication."

C) "Antacids can be taken with the AED to reduce gastrointestinal adverse effects."

D) "Regular, consistent dosing is important for successful treatment."

Q2) The nurse is monitoring a patient who has been taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) for 2 months. Which effects would indicate that autoinduction has started to occur?

A) The drug levels for carbamazepine are higher than expected.

B) The drug levels for carbamazepine are lower than expected.

C) The patient is experiencing fewer seizures.

D) The patient is experiencing toxic effects from the drug.

Q3) A 9-year-old child will be receiving carbamazepine (Tegretol) suspension, 200 mL daily. The medication is available in a strength of 100 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse give to the patient for each dose?

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16

Chapter 15: Antiparkinson Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31992

Sample Questions

Q1) The prescriber writes this order, "Give amantadine (Symmetrel) 100 mg per PEG tube twice a day." The medication is available in a liquid form with a concentration 50 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse give with each dose?

Q2) The nurse is assessing the medication history of a patient with a new diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Which condition is a contraindication for the patient, who will be taking tolcapone (Tasmar)?

A) Glaucoma

B) Seizure disorder

C) Liver failure

D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia

Q3) The nurse is developing a care plan for a patient who is taking an anticholinergic drug. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient?

A) Diarrhea

B) Urinary retention

C) Risk for infection

D) Sleep deprivation

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Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31993

Sample Questions

Q1) Before beginning a patient's therapy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants, the nurse will assess for concurrent use of which medications or medication class?

A) Aspirin

B) Anticoagulants

C) Diuretics

D) Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

Q2) Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. The nurse includes which information?

A) The patient needs to avoid caffeine while on this drug.

B) The patient needs to wear sunscreen while outside because of photosensitivity.

C) Long-term therapy may result in nervousness and excitability.

D) The medication may be taken with an antacid to reduce gastrointestinal upset.

Q3) An agitated patient is to receive an intravenous dose of diazepam (Valium). The order reads, "Give diazepam, 2 mg, IV push, now. Repeat in 15 minutes if needed." How many milliliters will the nurse administer for this dose? The medication vial contains 5 mg/mL.

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Chapter 17: Substance Abuse

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31994

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is experiencing severe ethanol withdrawal. Which are signs and symptoms of severe ethanol withdrawal? (Select all that apply.)

A) Agitation

B) Drowsiness

C) Tremors

D) Systolic blood pressure higher than 200 mm Hg

E) Temperature over 100° F ( 37.7° C )

F) Pulse rate 110 beats/minute

Q2) A patient has been taking naltrexone ( ReVia ) as part of the treatment for addiction to heroin. The nurse expects that the naltrexone will have which therapeutic effect for this patient?

A) Naltrexone prevents the cravings for opioid drugs.

B) Naltrexone works as a safer substitute for the heroin until the patient completes withdrawal.

C) The patient will experience flushing, sweating, and severe nausea if he takes heroin while on naltrexone.

D) If opioid drugs are used while taking naltrexone, euphoria is not produced; thus, the opioid's desired effects are lost.

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Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31995

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse recognizes that adrenergic drugs cause relaxation of the bronchi and bronchodilation by stimulating which type of receptors?

A) Dopaminergic

B) Beta1-adrenergic

C) Beta2-adrenergic

D) Alpha1-adrenergic

Q2) When an adrenergic drug stimulates beta?-adrenergic receptors, the result is an increased force of contraction, which is known as what type of effect?

A) Positive inotropic

B) Anti-adrenergic

C) Negative dromotropic

D) Positive chronotropic

Q3) The nurse is to administer epinephrine 0.3 mg subcutaneously. The ampule contains 1 mL of medication and is labeled "Epinephrine 1:1000." How many milliliters of epinephrine will the nurse give?

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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31996

Sample Questions

Q1) During therapy with a beta blocker, the patient notices that she has swollen feet, has gained 3 pounds within 2 days, feels short of breath even when walking around the house, and has been dizzy. The nurse suspects that which of the following is occurring?

A) The patient is experiencing an allergic reaction.

B) The patient may be developing heart failure.

C) More time is needed for the patient to see a therapeutic response to the drug.

D) The patient is experiencing expected adverse effects of the drug.

Q2) During a teaching session about self-monitoring while taking a beta blocker at home, the nurse has taught the patient to take his apical pulse daily for 1 minute. If the pulse rate decreases to less than 60 beats per minute, the nurse will instruct the patient to:

A) notify his prescriber.

B) reduce the dose of his beta blocker by half.

C) continue the medication because this is an expected effect.

D) skip the medication dose that day, and check his pulse again the next day.

Q3) A patient has an order for carvedilol (Coreg) 6.25 mg twice a day PO. The tablets are 3.125 mg. How many tablets will the nurse administer per dose?

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21

Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31997

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been diagnosed with Sjögren's syndrome will be given cevimeline for the treatment of xerostomia. The nurse will monitor for what therapeutic effect?

A) Reduction of salivation

B) Stimulation of salivation

C) Reduction of gastrointestinal peristalsis

D) Improvement of fine-motor control

Q2) When monitoring a patient who is taking a cholinergic drug, the nurse will watch for which cardiovascular effect?

A) Bradycardia

B) Tachycardia

C) Vasoconstriction

D) Palpitations

Q3) A factory worker has been admitted to the emergency department after an industrial accident involving organophosphate insecticides. The nurse will prepare to administer which drug?

A) pilocarpine (Salagen)

B) bethanechol (Urecholine)

C) pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

D) tacrine (Cognex)

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31998

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is reviewing a patient's medication history and notes that the patient is taking the cholinergic blocker tolterodine (Detrol). Which is an indication for this medication?

A) Irritable bowel disease

B) Induction of mydriasis

C) Urge incontinence

D) Reduction of secretions preoperatively

Q2) The nurse working in a preoperative admitting unit administers an anticholinergic medication to a patient before surgery. What is the purpose of this drug in the preoperative setting?

A) Control the heart rate

B) Relax the patient

C) Reduce urinary frequency

D) Reduce oral and gastrointestinal secretions

Q3) The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect when administering an anticholinergic drug?

A) Excessive urination

B) Diaphoresis

C) Dry mouth

D) Pupillary constriction

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Chapter 22: Antihypertensive Drugs

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/31999

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been taking antihypertensive drugs for a few months complains of having a persistent dry cough. The nurse knows that this cough is an adverse effect of which class of antihypertensive drugs?

A) Beta blockers

B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

C) Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

D) Calcium channel blockers

Q2) An elderly patient will be taking a vasodilator for hypertension. Which adverse effect is of most concern for the older adult patient taking this class of drug?

A) Dry mouth

B) Restlessness

C) Constipation

D) Hypotension

Q3) A patient is to receive enalapril (Vasotec) 5 mg IV every 6 hours. Each dose is given over 5 minutes. The medication is available in an injectable form, 1.25 mg/mL. How many milliliters of medication will the nurse draw up for each dose?

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Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32000

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain. The patient reports that the pain has been occurring off and on for a week now. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites?

A) Blood pressure of 88/62 mm Hg

B) Apical pulse rate of 110 beats/min

C) History of renal disease

D) History of a myocardial infarction 2 years ago

Q2) A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after 1 or 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?

A) Classic

B) Variant

C) Unstable

D) Prinzmetal's

Q3) A patient will be receiving metoprolol (Lopressor) 5 mg IV push ´ 3 doses for angina. The medication is available in a strength of 1 mg/mL. How much medication will the nurse draw up for each dose?

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Heart Failure Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32001

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse administering the phosphodiesterase inhibitor milrinone (Primacor) recognizes that this drug will have a positive inotropic effect. Which result reflects this effect?

A) Increased heart rate

B) Increased blood vessel dilation

C) Increased force of cardiac contractions

D) Increased conduction of electrical impulses across the heart

Q2) A patient has a digoxin level of 1.4 ng/mL. The nurse interprets that this level is

A) below the therapeutic level.

B) within the therapeutic range.

C) above the therapeutic level.

D) at a toxic level.

Q3) When administering digoxin immune Fab ( Digibind ) to a patient with severe digoxin toxicity, the nurse knows that each vial can bind with how much digoxin?

A) 0.5 mg

B) 5 mg

C) 5.5 mg

D) 15 mg

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Chapter 25: Antidysrhythmic Drugs

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32002

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient will be discharged on quinidine sulfate (Quinidex) extended-release tablets for the treatment of ventricular ectopy. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan?

A) The medication should be stopped once the cardiac symptoms subside.

B) Signs of cinchonism, such as tinnitus, loss of hearing, or slight blurring of vision, may occur.

C) It is important to use sunscreen products when outside because of increased photosensitivity.

D) If any tablet or capsule is visible in the stool, contact the prescriber immediately.

Q2) A patient is in the emergency department with a new onset of rapid-rate atrial fibrillation, and the nurse is preparing a continuous infusion. Which drug is most appropriate for this dysrhythmia?

A) diltiazem ( Cardizem )

B) atenolol ( Tenormin )

C) lidocaine

D) adenosine ( Adenocard )

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Chapter 26: Coagulation Modifier Drugs

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17 Verified Questions

17 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32003

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has been instructed to take one enteric-coated low-dose aspirin a day as part of therapy to prevent strokes. The nurse will provide which instruction when providing patient teaching about this medication?

A) Aspirin needs to be taken on an empty stomach to ensure maximal absorption.

B) Low-dose aspirin therapy rarely causes problems with bleeding.

C) Take the medication with 6 to 8 ounces of water and food.

D) Coated tablets may be crushed if necessary for easier swallowing.

Q2) A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) in addition to a heparin infusion. The patient asks the nurse why he has to be on two medications. The nurse's response is based on which rationale?

A) The oral and injection forms work synergistically.

B) The combination of heparin and an oral anticoagulant results in fewer adverse effects than heparin used alone.

C) Oral anticoagulants are used to reach an adequate level of anticoagulation when heparin alone is unable to do so.

D) Heparin is used to start anticoagulation so as to allow time for the blood levels of warfarin to reach adequate levels.

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Chapter 27: Antilipemic Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32004

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is conducting a class about antilipemic drugs. The antilipemic drug ezetimibe ( Zetia ) works by which mechanism?

A) Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase

B) Preventing resorption of bile acids from the small intestines

C) Activating lipase, which breaks down cholesterol

D) Inhibiting cholesterol absorption in the small intestine

Q2) When reviewing patients' histories, the nurse recognizes that which patient would be a likely candidate for drug therapy for cholesterol reduction?

A) A patient who has coronary heart disease and an LDL level of 100 mg/dL

B) A patient who has one risk factor, an LDL level of 170 mg/dL, and no history of coronary heart disease

C) A patient who has coronary heart disease and an LDL level of 165 mg/dL

D) A patient who has two risk factors and a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 100 mg/dL, without coronary heart disease

Q3) The medication order reads, "Give simvastatin (Zocor) 10 mg daily at bedtime, PO." The medication is available in 20-mg tablets. How many tablets will the nurse administer to the patient?

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Chapter 28: Diuretic Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32005

Sample Questions

Q1) When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?

A) Digitalis

B) Penicillin

C) Potassium supplements

D) Aspirin

Q2) A patient in the neurologic intensive care unit is being treated for cerebral edema. Which class of diuretic is used to reduce intracranial pressure?

A) Loop diuretics

B) Osmotic diuretics

C) Thiazide diuretics

D) Vasodilators

Q3) Mannitol (Osmitrol) has been ordered for a patient with acute renal failure. The nurse will administer this drug using which procedure?

A) Intravenously, through a filter

B) By rapid intravenous bolus

C) By mouth in a single morning dose

D) Through a gravity intravenous drip with standard tubing

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Chapter 29: Fluids and Electrolytes

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32006

Sample Questions

Q1) During a blood transfusion, the patient begins to have chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

A) Observe for other symptoms.

B) Slow the infusion rate of the blood.

C) Discontinue the infusion immediately, and notify the prescriber.

D) Tell the patient that these symptoms are a normal reaction to the blood product.

Q2) A patient is receiving an infusion of fresh frozen plasma. Based on this order, the nurse interprets that this patient has which condition?

A) Hypovolemic shock

B) Anemia

C) Coagulation disorder

D) Previous transfusion reaction

Q3) During an infusion of albumin, the nurse monitors the patient closely for the development of which adverse effect?

A) Hypernatremia

B) Fluid volume deficit

C) Fluid volume overload

D) Transfusion reaction

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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs

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9 Verified Questions

9 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32007

Sample Questions

Q1) When reviewing the medication profile of a patient with a new order for desmopressin (DDAVP), the nurse notes that a drug interaction will occur if which drug is taken with desmopressin?

A) aspirin

B) digoxin

C) lithium

D) penicillin

Q2) The nurse notes in a patient's medication history that the patient has been taking desmopressin (DDAVP). Based on this finding, the nurse interprets that the patient has which disorder?

A) Diabetes mellitus

B) Diabetes insipidus

C) Adrenocortical insufficiency

D) Carcinoid tumor

Q3) A patient is to receive vasopressin (Pitressin) 5 units subcut BID. The medication is available in a vial that contains 20 units/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose? (Record solve using two decimal places.)

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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32008

Sample Questions

Q1) During a teaching session for a patient on antithyroid drugs, the nurse will discuss which dietary instructions?

A) Using iodized salt when cooking

B) Avoiding foods containing iodine

C) Restricting fluid intake to 2500 mL per day

D) Increasing intake of sodium- and potassium-containing foods

Q2) When reviewing the laboratory values of a patient who is taking antithyroid drugs, the nurse will monitor for which adverse effect?

A) Decreased glucose levels

B) Decreased white blood cell count

C) Increased red blood cell count

D) Increased platelet count

Q3) A patient, newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism, receives a prescription for a thyroid hormone replacement drug. The nurse assesses for which potential contraindication to this drug?

A) Infection

B) Diabetes mellitus

C) Liver disease

D) Recent myocardial infarction

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Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32009

Sample Questions

Q1) A 75-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes has recently been placed on glyburide ( Diabeta ), 10 mg daily. She asks the nurse when the best time would be to take this medication. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "Take this medication in the morning, 30 minutes before breakfast."

B) "Take this medication in the evening with a snack."

C) "This medication needs to be taken after the midday meal."

D) "It does not matter what time of day you take this medication."

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the various types of insulins. For each insulin listed below, place in order from shortest duration (1) to longest duration (4).

A) Glargine insulin

B) Aspart insulin

C) Regular insulin

D) NPH insulin

Q3) When teaching a patient who is starting metformin (Glucophage), which instruction by the nurse is correct?

A) "Take metformin if your blood glucose level is above 150 mg/dL."

B) "Take this 60 minutes after breakfast."

C) "Take the medication on an empty stomach 1 hour before meals."

D) "Take the medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal (GI) effects."

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32010

Sample Questions

Q1) When monitoring a patient who is taking a systemically administered glucocorticoid, the nurse will monitor for signs of which condition?

A) Dehydration

B) Hypokalemia

C) Hyponatremia

D) Hypoglycemia

Q2) A patient has been admitted for an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and will be receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 30 mg intravenously every 6 hours. The medication is available in 40-mg/mL vials. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose?

Q3) A glucocorticoid is prescribed for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history knowing that glucocorticoid therapy is contraindicated in which disorder?

A) Cerebral edema

B) Peptic ulcer disease

C) Tuberculous meningitis

D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs

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22 Verified Questions

22 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32011

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing teaching for a patient who is to receive estrogen replacement therapy. Which statement is correct to include in the teaching session?

A) "If you miss a dose, double-up on the next dose."

B) "There's no need to be concerned about breast lumps or bumps that occur."

C) "Be sure to report any weight gain of 5 pounds or more per week."

D) "Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption."

Q2) A patient is being treated for secondary amenorrhea. The nurse expects which drug to be used to treat this problem?

A) methylergonovine ( Methergine )

B) estradiol transdermal ( Estraderm )

C) raloxifene ( Evista )

D) medroxyprogesterone ( Provera )

Q3) The nurse is providing patient teaching about the oral bisphosphonate alendronate (Fosamax). Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of when this drug should be taken?

A) "I will take it in the evening just before bedtime."

B) "I will take it in the morning with an 8-ounce glass of water."

C) "I will take it with the first bite of the morning meal."

D) "I will take it between meals on an empty stomach."

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Page 36

Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32012

Sample Questions

Q1) A 63-year-old male patient is scheduled for a physical examination, and he tells the nurse that he wants to start taking a vitamin formula that includes saw palmetto for prostate health. Which is the nurse's best response?

A) "I've heard many good things about saw palmetto."

B) "It's not a good idea to start herbal therapy at your age."

C) "There are very few adverse effects with saw palmetto therapy."

D) "The doctor will need to draw some blood and do a digital rectal exam first."

Q2) A patient is to receive testosterone therapy via a transdermal patch. He asks the nurse, "Why am I getting a patch? Can't I just take a pill?" Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "The patch reduces the incidence of side effects."

B) "If you don't take the patch, you will have to have injections instead."

C) "The patch allows for better absorption of the medication."

D) "You will only have to change the patch weekly."

Q3) A patient will be receiving testosterone cypionate (Depo-Testosterone) 400 mg intramuscularly every 4 weeks. The medication is available in a 200-mg/mL strength. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for each injection?

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Page 37

Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper

13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32013

Sample Questions

Q1) When giving dextromethorphan, the nurse understands that this drug suppresses the cough reflex by which mechanism of action?

A) Causing depression of the central nervous system

B) Anesthetizing the stretch receptors

C) Having direct action on the cough center

D) Decreasing the viscosity of the bronchial secretions

Q2) A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. The nurse's answer considers that one benefit of orally administered decongestants is

A) immediate onset.

B) a more potent effect.

C) lack of rebound congestion.

D) shorter duration.

Q3) A patient asks the nurse about the uses of echinacea. Which use will the nurse include in the response?

A) Memory enhancement

B) Boosting the immune system

C) Improving mood

D) Promoting relaxation

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Chapter 37: Respiratory Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32014

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is providing instructions about the Advair inhaler (fluticasone propionate and salmeterol). Which statement about this inhaler is accurate?

A) It is indicated for the treatment of acute bronchospasms.

B) It needs to be used with a spacer for best results.

C) Patients need to avoid drinking water for 1 hour after taking this drug.

D) It is used for prevention of bronchospasms.

Q2) A patient will be receiving oral theophylline (Theo-Dur), 600 mg/day, in three divided doses. How many milligrams will the patient receive per dose?

Q3) A patient is taking a xanthine derivative as part of treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects associated with the use of xanthine derivatives, such as A) diarrhea.

B) palpitations.

C) bradycardia.

D) drowsiness.

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Chapter 38: Antibiotics Part 1

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32015

Sample Questions

Q1) During antibiotic therapy, the nurse will monitor closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity reaction. Which of these assessment findings may be an indication of a hypersensitivity reaction? (Select all that apply.)

A) Wheezing

B) Diarrhea

C) Shortness of breath

D) Swelling of the tongue

E) Itching

F) Black, hairy tongue

Q2) A patient is admitted with a fever of 102.8° F ( 39.3° C ), origin unknown. Assessment reveals cloudy, foul-smelling urine that is dark amber in color. Orders have just been written to obtain stat urine and blood cultures and to administer an antibiotic intravenously. The nurse will complete these orders in which sequence?

A) Blood culture, antibiotic dose, urine culture

B) Urine culture, antibiotic dose, blood culture

C) Antibiotic dose, blood and urine cultures

D) Blood and urine cultures, antibiotic dose

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Chapter 39: Antibiotics Part 2

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32016

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse who is administering aminoglycoside therapy must monitor the patient closely for signs of toxicity as manifested by which of these conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) Electrocardiogram changes

B) Hearing loss

C) Dizziness

D) Constipation

E) Decreasing hemoglobin level

F) Rising serum creatinine level

Q2) The nurse checks the patient's laboratory work prior to administering a dose of vancomycin (Vancocin) and finds that the trough vancomycin level is 24 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next?

A) Administer the vancomycin as ordered.

B) Hold the drug, and administer 4 hours later.

C) Hold the drug, and notify the prescriber.

D) Repeat the test to verify results.

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Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32017

Sample Questions

Q1) A young adult calls the clinic to ask for a prescription for "that new flu drug." He says he has had the flu for almost 4 days and just heard about a drug that can reduce the symptoms. What is the nurse's best response to his request?

A) "Now that you've had the flu, you will need a booster vaccination, not the antiviral drug."

B) "We will need to do a blood test to verify that you actually have the flu."

C) "Drug therapy should be started within 2 days of symptom onset, not 4 days."

D) "We'll get you a prescription. As long as you start treatment within the next 24 hours, the drug should be effective."

Q2) An infant has been hospitalized with a severe lung infection caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and will be receiving medication via the inhalation route. The nurse expects which drug to be used?

A) acyclovir (Zovirax)

B) ganciclovir (Cytovene)

C) amantadine (Symmetrel)

D) ribavirin (Virazole)

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Chapter 41: Antitubercular Drugs

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11 Verified Questions

11 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32018

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient newly diagnosed with tuberculosis ( TB ) has been taking antitubercular drugs for 1 week calls the clinic and is very upset. He says, "My urine is dark orange! What's wrong with me?" Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) "You will need to stop the medication, and it will go away."

B) "It's possible that the TB is worse. Please come in to the clinic to be checked."

C) "This is not what we usually see with these drugs. Please come in to the clinic to be checked."

D) "This is an expected side effect of the medicine. Let's review what to expect."

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a patient who is taking isoniazid (INH). Which drug or drug class has a significant drug interaction with isoniazid?

A) pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

B) Penicillins

C) phenytoin (Dilantin)

D) Benzodiazepines

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43

Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32019

Sample Questions

Q1) During an intravenous (IV) infusion of amphotericin B, a patient develops tingling and numbness in his toes and fingers. What will the nurse do first?

A) Discontinue the infusion immediately.

B) Reduce the infusion rate gradually until the adverse effects subside.

C) Administer the medication by rapid IV infusion to reduce these effects.

D) Nothing; these are expected side effects of this medication.

Q2) If a patient is taking fluconazole (Diflucan) with an oral anticoagulant, the nurse will monitor for which possible interaction?

A) Reduced action of oral anticoagulants, resulting in decreased prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR)

B) Increased effects of oral anticoagulants, resulting in increased PT/INR

C) Increased change in renal impairment caused by the antifungal drug

D) Decreased effectiveness of the antifungal drug

Q3) A patient will be taking fluconazole (Diflucan) 100 mg/day PO for 2 weeks. The patient is unable to swallow tablets, so an oral suspension that contains 10 mg/mL is available. How many milliliters will the nurse administer with each dose?

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44

Chapter

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32020

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with late-stage HIV infection also has Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. The nurse anticipates treatment with which medication for this pneumonia?

A) ivermectin (Stromectol)

B) atovaquone (Mepron)

C) praziquantel (Biltricide)

D) metronidazole (Flagyl)

Q2) A patient has an infestation with flukes. The nurse anticipates the use of which drug to treat this infestation?

A) praziquantel (Biltricide)

B) pyrantel (Pin-X)

C) metronidazole (Flagyl)

D) ivermectin (Stromectol)

Q3) A patient who has a helminthic infection has a prescription for pyrantel (Antiminth). Which is one of the common adverse effects that the patient may experience while on this therapy?

A) Vertigo

B) Seizures

C) Diarrhea

D) Insomnia

Page 45

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Chapter 44: Antiinflammatory and Antigout Drugs

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32021

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with gout has been treated with allopurinol (Zyloprim) for 2 months. The nurse will monitor laboratory results for which therapeutic effect?

A) Decreased uric acid levels

B) Decreased prothrombin time

C) Decreased white blood cell count

D) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

Q2) A 75-year-old woman has been given a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug ( NSAID ) for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse is reviewing the patient's medication history and notes that which types of medications could have an interaction with the NSAID? (Select all that apply.)

A) Antibiotics

B) Decongestants

C) Anticoagulants

D) Beta blockers

E) Diuretics

F) Corticosteroids

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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 1: Cancer Overview and

Cell Cyclespecific Drugs

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32022

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving high doses of methotrexate and is experiencing severe bone marrow suppression. The nurse expects which intervention to be ordered with this drug to reduce this problem?

A) A transfusion of whole blood

B) Leucovorin rescue

C) Therapy with filgrastim (Neupogen)

D) Administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Q2) A patient is receiving her third course of 5-fluorouracil therapy and knows that stomatitis is a potential adverse effect of antineoplastic therapy. What will the nurse teach her about managing this problem?

A) "You can take aspirin to prevent stomatitis."

B) "Be sure to watch for and report black, tarry stools immediately."

C) "You need to increase your intake of foods containing fiber and citric acid."

D) "Be sure to examine your mouth daily for bleeding, painful areas, and ulcerations."

Q3) A patient is to receive a daily dose of fludarabine (Fludara), 25 mg/m²/day for 5 consecutive days. Each dose is diluted in a 125-mL bag of normal saline and is to infuse over 30 minutes. The nurse will set the infusion pump to what rate in mL/hr?

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Page 47

Chapter 46: Antineoplastic Drugs Part 2: Cell

Cyclenonspecific Drugs and Miscellaneous Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32023

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the nurse's priority action if extravasation of an antineoplastic drug occurs during intravenous (IV) administration?

A) Reduce the infusion rate.

B) Discontinue the IV, and apply warm compresses.

C) Stop the infusion immediately, but leave the IV catheter in place.

D) Change the infusion to normal saline, and inject the area with hydrocortisone.

Q2) During therapy with the cytotoxic antibiotic bleomycin, the nurse will assess for a potentially serious adverse effect by monitoring which assessment finding?

A) Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

B) Cardiac ejection fraction

C) Respiratory function

D) Peripheral nerve sensation

Q3) A patient will be receiving mitoxantrone (Novantrone), 12 mg/m² every 3 weeks, as part of treatment for prostate cancer. Each dose is mixed into a 50-mL bag of D<sub>5</sub>W and needs to infuse over 15 minutes. The infusion pump delivers the dose at mL/hour. The nurse will set the pump to infuse at what rate?

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Chapter 47: Biologic Responsemodifying and Antirheumatic Drugs

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32024

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient has an order for the monoclonal antibody adalimumab ( Humira ). The nurse notes that the patient does not have a history of cancer. What is another possible reason for administering this drug?

A) Severe anemia

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Thrombocytopenia

D) Osteoporosis

Q2) A patient is to receive filgrastim (Neupogen) 5 mcg/kg/day. The patient weighs 198 pounds. How many micrograms of medication will this patient receive each day?

Q3) During a patient's therapy with interleukins, the nurse monitors the patient for capillary leak syndrome. Which assessment finding, if present, would indicate this problem?

A) Bradycardia

B) A dry cough

C) Bruising on the skin

D) A sudden, 15-pound weight gain

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Chapter 48: Immunosuppressant Drugs

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12 Verified Questions

12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32025

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is monitoring a patient who is receiving muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) after an organ transplant. Which effect is possible with muromonab-CD3 therapy?

A) Chest pain

B) Hypotension

C) Confusion

D) Dysuria

Q2) When administering cyclosporine, the nurse notes that allopurinol is also ordered for the patient. What is a potential result of this drug interaction?

A) Reduced adverse effects of the cyclosporine

B) Increased levels of cyclosporine and toxicity

C) Reduced uric acid levels

D) Reduced nephrotoxic effects of cyclosporine

Q3) When monitoring a patient who is on immunosuppressant therapy with azathioprine (Imuran), the nurse will monitor which laboratory results?

A) Serum potassium levels

B) White blood cell (leukocyte) count

C) Red blood cell count

D) Serum albumin levels

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Chapter 49: Immunizing Drugs and Biochemical Terrorism

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32026

Sample Questions

Q1) A 30-year-old woman is in the clinic for her yearly gynecologic exam and asks the nurse about the "new vaccine that prevents HPV." She wants to receive the papillomavirus vaccine (Gardasil). Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A) "This vaccine is recommended for women 13 to 26 years of age."

B) "We will need to make sure you are not pregnant first."

C) "There will be a total of three injections."

D) "I will check with your health care provider and then get the first dose of the vaccine ready."

Q2) The nurse is conducting a class on potential bioterrorism agents, and a participant asks, "Which one has three routes of exposure to humans?" Which response by the nurse is correct?

A) Anthrax

B) Smallpox

C) Botulism

D) Tularemia

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Chapter 50: Acid-Controlling Drugs

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32027

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is receiving an aluminum-containing antacid. The nurse will inform the patient to watch for which possible adverse effect?

A) Diarrhea

B) Constipation

C) Nausea

D) Abdominal cramping

Q2) A patient will be taking a 2-week course of combination therapy with omeprazole ( Prilosec ) and another drug for a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori. The nurse expects a drug from which class to be ordered with the omeprazole?

A) An antibiotic

B) A nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug

C) An antacid

D) An antiemetic

Q3) A patient will be receiving pantoprazole (Protonix), 20 mg IV daily every morning. The medication, once reconstituted, has a strength of 40 mg/10 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose?

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Chapter 51: Bowel Disorder Drugs

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32028

Sample Questions

Q1) A 10-year-old child will be receiving docusate sodium (Colace), 120 mg/day PO, divided into 3 doses. How many milligrams will the child receive per dose?

Q2) A laxative has been ordered for a patient. The nurse checks the patient's medical history and would be concerned if which condition is present?

A) High ammonia levels due to liver failure

B) Diverticulosis

C) Abdominal pain of unknown origin

D) Chronic constipation

Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer methylnaltrexone (Relistor), a peripherally acting opioid antagonist. This drug is appropriate for which patient?

A) A patient with diarrhea

B) A terminally ill patient who has opioid-induced constipation

C) A patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy

D) A patient who will be having colon surgery in the morning

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Chapter 52: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs

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12 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32029

Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is taking chemotherapy with a drug that has a high potential for causing nausea and vomiting. The nurse is preparing to administer an antiemetic drug. Which class of antiemetic drugs has proven most effective in preventing nausea and vomiting for patients receiving chemotherapy?

A) Prokinetic drugs, such as metoclopramide (Reglan)

B) Serotonin blockers, such a ondansetron (Zofran)

C) Anticholinergic drugs, such as scopolamine

D) Neuroleptic drugs, such as promethazine (Phenergan)

Q2) A patient with motion sickness is planning a cross-country car trip and has a new prescription for a scopolamine transdermal patc (Transderm-Sc p). h The nurse provides teaching for the use of this patch medication. The patient shows a correct understanding of the teaching with which statement?

A) "I will change the patch every day."

B) "I will change the patch every other day."

C) "I will change the patch every 3 days."

D) "I will remove the patch only if it stops working."

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54

Chapter 53: Vitamins and Minerals

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15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32030

Sample Questions

Q1) The patient asks the nurse about taking large doses of vitamin C to improve her immunity to colds. "It's just a vitamin, right? What can happen?" Which responses by the nurse are correct? (Select all that apply.)

A) "Vitamin C is harmless because it is a water-soluble vitamin."

B) "Large doses of vitamin C can cause nausea, vomiting, headache, and abdominal cramps."

C) "Keep in mind that if you suddenly stop taking these large doses, you might experience symptoms similar to scurvy."

D) "Studies have shown that vitamin C has little value in preventing the common cold."

E) "Vitamin C acidifies the urine, which can lead to the formation of renal stones."

F) "Large doses of vitamin C may delay wound healing."

Q2) A patient is on vitamin D supplemental therapy. The nurse will monitor for which signs of toxicity during this therapy?

A) Tinnitus

B) Anorexia

C) Diarrhea

D) Hypotension

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Page 55

Chapter 54: Anemia Drugs

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18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32031

Sample Questions

Q1) A woman who is planning to become pregnant should ensure that she receives adequate levels of which supplement to reduce the risk for fetal neural tube defects?

A) vitamin B<sub>12</sub>

B) vitamin D

C) iron

D) folic acid

Q2) A 2-year-old child will be receiving ferrous sulfate oral drops (Fer-Iron) 5 mg/kg/day in three divided doses. The child weighs 26 pounds. How many milligrams will the nurse administer per dose? (Record answer using one decimal place.)

Q3) A patient will be receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) 8,000 units IV three times a week. The medication is available in a vial that contains 10,000 units/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse draw up for this dose?

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Chapter 55: Nutritional Supplements

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12 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32032

Sample Questions

Q1) The peripheral parenteral nutrition bag that has been infusing into the patient is empty, and the nurse realizes that the next bag is not ready. The nurse should immediately hang which of these intravenous solutions until the new bag arrives?

A) 10% dextrose in water

B) 20% dextrose in water

C) 0.9% sodium chloride

D) Lactated Ringer's solution

Q2) The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) order reads, "Infuse TPN #2 over 24 hours." Bag #2 of TPN contains 1800 mL. At what rate will the nurse set the infusion pump?

Q3) An elderly patient needs to take an enteral supplement to improve her overall nutritional status. When considering enteral supplements, the nurse notes that which formulation provides complex nutrients?

A) Ensure Plus

B) Moducal

C) Propac

D) Microlipid

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Chapter 56: Dermatologic Drugs

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32033

Sample Questions

Q1) A 55-year-old obese patient was diagnosed with candidiasis in the skin folds under her breasts. When the nurse sees her at a follow-up visit 2 months later, she complains that it has returned. She said she applied the medicine for 1 week and stopped because the itching stopped and the cream was messy. Which statement is true regarding fungal infections of the skin?

A) Fungal infections often require prolonged therapy.

B) The patient has a new infection now.

C) The patient needs to apply a dressing if the cream is too messy.

D) This infection will probably never be cured.

Q2) A father calls because his son has head lice. He reports that he used "that special medicated shampoo three times, but nothing happened." He wants to know what to do now. What will the nurse advise first?

A) "It sounds like you need a prescription for a second product, malathion."

B) "Try one of the lotion products instead."

C) "Use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts."

D) "Try combing through the hair with mineral oil to loosen the lice from the hair shafts."

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Chapter 57: Ophthalmic Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching a patient about the proper application of timolol ( Timoptic ) eyedrops, the nurse will include which instruction?

A) "Apply the drops into the conjunctival sac instead of directly onto the eye."

B) "Apply the drops directly to the eyeball ( cornea ) for the best effect."

C) "Blot your eye with a tissue immediately after applying the drops."

D) "Tilt your head forward before applying the eyedrops."

Q2) The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a patient and notes an order for ophthalmic dexamethasone (Decadron) solution. The nurse knows that indications for ophthalmic dexamethasone include which conditions? (Select all that apply.)

A) Uveitis

B) Allergic conditions

C) Removal of foreign bodies

D) Ocular infections

E) Glaucoma

F) Conjunctival inflammation

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Chapter 58: Otic Drugs

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/32035

Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a new order for eardrops. Which is a potential contraindication to the use of many otic preparations?

A) Ear canal itching

B) Perforated eardrum

C) Staphylococcus aureus otitis externa infection

D) Escherichia coli ear infection

Q2) The nurse is administering eardrops that contain a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid. What is the rationale for combining these two drugs in eardrops?

A) The combination works to help soften and eliminate cerumen.

B) The corticosteroid reduces pain associated with ear infections.

C) The drops help to eliminate fungal infections.

D) The corticosteroid reduces the inflammation and itching associated with ear infections.

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