Patient Assessment in Respiratory Therapy
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides students with foundational knowledge and practical skills in patient assessment specific to respiratory therapy. Emphasizing holistic and systematic evaluation, the curriculum covers the collection and interpretation of patient health history, vital signs, physical examination procedures, and the use of assessment tools such as pulse oximetry and arterial blood gas analysis. Students will learn to recognize normal and abnormal findings, identify signs of respiratory distress, and effectively document and communicate assessment results. Through lectures, hands-on labs, and case studies, the course prepares future respiratory therapists to perform accurate assessments that inform diagnostic and therapeutic decision-making in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Wilkins Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care 7th Edition by Al Heuer PhD
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preparing for the Patient Encounter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following techniques is not associated with the demonstration of active listening?
A)Good eye contact
B)Taking notes while a patient is talking
C)Asking for clarification
D)Use of touch
Answer: D
Q2) In 1996, Congress passed the HIPAA.What does the letter "P" stand for?
A)Patient
B)Payment
C)Portability
D)Personal
Answer: C
Q3) What is the main purpose of the initial assessment stage?
A)To identify any allergies to medications
B)To document the patient's smoking history
C)To personally get to know the patient better
D)To verify that the prescribed treatment is still needed and appropriate
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Medical History and the Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) What pulmonary disorder is associated with visiting or living in Ohio, Maryland, and the central Mississippi Valley?
A)Blastomycosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Coccidioidomycosis
D)Silicosis
Answer: B
Q2) Screening information is:
A)Obtained at health fairs to determine whether the person should see a physician.
B)Designed to uncover problem areas that the patient forgot to mention or omitted.
C)Given to the interviewer by the patient at the very beginning of the interview process.
D)Obtained by the triage nurse in the emergency department to determine how lifethreatening the patient's symptoms are.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cardiopulmonary Symptoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cough syncope is associated most often with which of the following types of patients?
A)Middle-aged men with underlying COPD
B)Pregnant women
C)Children with asthma
D)Older obese men with diabetes
Answer: A
Q2) A patient comes to the emergency department following an episode of unexpected fainting (syncope).In order to determine the potential cause, all of the following could contribute valuable information except:
A)A sensation of an irregular heartbeat or history of cardiac arrhythmias.
B)The medications taken.
C)The activities at the time of the episode.
D)The time of day.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypotension associated with changes in posture in patients with hypovolemia is known as _____ hypotension.
A)persistent
B)orthostatic
C)hypovolemic
D)peristaltic
Q2) A pulse rate above the normal range is the definition of which of the following terms?
A)Tachypnea
B)Arrhythmia
C)Bradycardia
D)Tachycardia
Q3) Which of the following is not a cause of hypotension?
A)Left ventricular failure
B)Peripheral vasodilation
C)Hypovolemia
D)Right heart failure
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Chapter 5: Fundamentals of Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical disorders will cause decreased resonance to percussion?
A)COPD
B)Asthma
C)Pneumonia
D)Pneumothorax
Q2) The diaphragm portion of the stethoscope is used to listen for:
A)heart murmurs.
B)pleural friction rubs.
C)low-pitched heart sounds.
D)most lung sounds.
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe constriction of the pupil of the eye?
A)Lytosis
B)Miosis
C)Mydriasis
D)Nystagmus
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Chapter 6: Neurologic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperventilation would be observed in a patient who has damaged which portion of the brainstem?
A)High-midbrain
B)Medulla
C)Mid-midbrain
D)Pons
Q2) Where in the nervous system is breathing regulated?
A)Brain cortex
B)Medulla
C)Cerebellum
D)Brainstem
Q3) The main goal of assessing mental status is to determine which of the following?
A)Consciousness
B)Awareness
C)Thinking
D)CNS dysfunction
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Clinical Laboratory Studies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What percentage of normal circulating white blood cells are immature and nonsegmented?
A)0% to 5%
B)5% to 10%
C)10% to 15%
D)15% to 22%
Q2) Which of the following is considered the major cation of the extracellular fluid?
A)Sodium
B)Calcium
C)Chloride
D)Potassium
Q3) Which of the following organisms is responsible for most cases of bacterial pneumonia?
A)Pseudomonas
B)Klebsiella pneumoniae
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Interpretation of Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An arterial puncture site normally should be compressed for a minimum of ___ minutes after the puncture.
A)1 to 2
B)3 to 5
C)5 to 7
D)8 to 10
Q2) What is the normal value for CaO ?
A)16-20 vol%
B)12-16 vol%
C)8-12 vol%
D)4-8 vol%
Q3) The negative log of the hydrogen ion concentration is defined as which of the following?
A)PaCO
B)Base excess
C)Standard HCO -
D)pH
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests would be used to determine whether there is gross misdistribution of ventilation in the lungs of a patient given a diagnosis of emphysema?
A)DLCO
B)Helium dilution
C)Closing volume
D)Nitrogen washout
Q2) The ERV is limited in clinical usefulness.It may be reduced in all of the following cases except:
A)obesity.
B)restrictive disorders.
C)obstructive disorders.
D)patients making a poor effort during testing.
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of erroneous forced vital capacity (FVC) test results?
A)Maximal inspiratory effort
B)Age of the patient
C)Age of the equipment
D)Suboptimal coaching
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Chapter 10: Chest Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a PA film, what number of posterior ribs visible above the diaphragm indicates a good inspiratory effort?
A)10
B)8
C)6
D)5
Q2) All of the following are typical findings of a small pleural effusion except:
A)blunting of the costophrenic angle.
B)a small meniscus sign.
C)a partially obscured diaphragm.
D)complete whiteout of the affected side.
Q3) The ability of x-rays to penetrate matter is inversely proportional to which of the following physical properties of matter?
A)Viscosity
B)Density
C)Weight
D)Diffusion
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12
Chapter 11: Interpretation of Electrocardiogram Tracings
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of third-degree heart block?
A)There is a lengthening PR interval.
B)There is often a 2:1 ratio between P waves and QRS complexes.
C)The atrial rate is the same as the ventricular rate.
D)There is no relationship between the P waves and the QRS complexes.
Q2) What is the ventricular heart rate when the AV node paces the heart?
A)20 to 40 beats/min
B)40 to 60 beats/min
C)60 to 80 beats/min
D)80 to 100 beats/min
Q3) What term applies to any heartbeat that originates outside the SA node?
A)Ectopic impulse
B)Aberrant impulse
C)Eccentric impulse
D)Recurrent impulse
Q4) What axis change is common in patients with chronic pulmonary hypertension?
A)Left axis deviation
B)Right axis deviation
C)Inverted axis deviation
D)Extreme left axis deviation
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Chapter 12: Neonatal and Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What clinical problem is associated with low serum levels of calcium and phosphorus?
A)Acute hypoxia
B)Liver failure
C)Poor nutrition
D)Renal failure
Q2) What is the upper limit for normal systolic blood pressure in the term newborn?
A)60 mm Hg
B)70 mm Hg
C)80 mm Hg
D)90 mm Hg
Q3) Which of the following is a common cause of hypothermia in an infant?
A)Infection
B)Heart failure
C)Atelectasis
D)Liver disease
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Chapter 13: Older Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the 65- to 75-year-old age group, about what percentage of adults experience hearing loss?
A)23%
B)32%
C)37%
D)40%
Q2) Which of the following disorders would be characterized by intermittent cutaneous pallor or cyanosis?
A)COPD
B)Asthma
C)Acute renal failure
D)Raynaud phenomenon
Q3) Ageism in the healthcare setting can lead to:
A)practitioners spending more time with older patients.
B)practitioners listening to older patients less carefully.
C)practitioners treating older patients with compassion.
D)better communication with elderly patients.
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15
Chapter 14: Respiratory Monitoring in Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac output will increase to compensate for a decrease in oxygen tension when the PaO falls to below _____ mm Hg.
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
Q2) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumonia, and pulmonary edema are likely to cause a decrease in lung compliance.This is evidenced in a mechanically ventilated patient by an increase in:
A)static pressure.
B)expiratory time.
C)inspiratory time.
D)dynamic pressure.
Q3) When carbon dioxide elimination is monitored, the highest levels are obtained at the:
A)end of inhalation.
B)end of exhalation.
C)middle of inhalation.
D)middle of exhalation.
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Chapter 15: Vascular Pressure Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal range for pulmonary artery systolic pressure is _____ mm Hg.
A)0 to 10
B)10 to 20
C)20 to 30
D)30 to 40
Q2) The CVP can be used to estimate left ventricular filling pressures if there is no left ventricular dysrhythmia and the ejection fraction is greater than:
A)0.20.
B)0.30.
C)0.40.
D)0.50.
Q3) Circulation to the vital organs (kidneys, coronary arteries) may be compromised if the MAP falls to below _____ mm Hg.
A)60
B)80
C)100
D)120
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Output Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The periodic, noninvasive measurement of cardiac performance that requires only the use of a sphygmomanometer is called:
A)echocardiography.
B)electrical bioimpedance.
C)pulse contour cardiac output monitoring.
D)pulse pressure.
Q2) The strength of contraction of the myocardial muscle fibers is related directly to the amount of stretch on the fiber before contraction is a definition of:
A)preload.
B)Starling law.
C)cardiac contractility.
D)ventricular compliance.
Q3) Which of the following does not have a direct effect on stroke volume?
A)Preload
B)Heart rate
C)Afterload
D)Contractility
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18
Chapter 17: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary purpose of bronchoscopy in a patient with pneumonia?
A)To obtain biopsy specimens
B)To identify the causative organism
C)To control hemoptysis
D)To remove secretions
Q2) The respiratory therapist (RT) who is assisting the pulmonologist during bronchoscopy should have medication cups of xylocaine, normal saline, and ________ ready before beginning the procedure.
A)acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
B)epinephrine
C)sterile water
D)midazolam (Versed)
Q3) What is the maximum depth that the standard adult bronchoscope can visualize in some patients?
A)Third-level bronchi
B)Fourth-level bronchi
C)Fifth-level bronchi
D)Sixth-level bronchi
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Chapter 18: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the cachectic patient appear physically?
A)Central obesity only
B)Very thin and malnourished
C)Edematous around the face
D)Very short of breath
Q2) What is nitrogen balance useful in determining?
A)The adequacy of protein intake
B)The adequacy of carbohydrate intake
C)The need for vitamin supplementation
D)Fluid and electrolyte balance
Q3) Which of the following is an indicator of the energy requirements of the patient?
A)PaO to PaO ratio
B)Minute ventilation
C)Oxygen uptake per minute
D)Vital capacity
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20
Chapter 19: Sleep and Breathing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What test is used to diagnose sleep disorders?
A)Overnight oximetry
B)Polysomnography
C)Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D)Leg twitch study
Q2) A reduction in air flow of between 4% and 50% of baseline air flow for at least 10 seconds during sleep defines which of the following?
A)Apnea
B)Respiratory effort-related arousal (RERA)
C)Arousal
D)Hypopnea
Q3) In which stage of sleep does the brain show electrical activity similar to wakefulness on EEG tracings?
A)Stage 1 NREM
B)Stage 2 NREM
C)Stage 3 NREM
D)REM
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21
Chapter 20: Home Care Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common respiratory care modality applied in the home care setting?
A)Intermittent positive pressure breathing (IPPB)
B)Oxygen therapy
C)Nebulizer therapy
D)Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement related to reimbursement for RT services in the home care setting?
A)Only oxygen therapy orders allow the RT to be paid.
B)The HME cannot bill for RT hours.
C)All RT time spent in the home can be billed.
D)Only time spent setting up equipment can be reimbursed.
Q3) Which of the following should be identified by an RT during the initial home care interview of the patient and caregivers?
A)Patient smoking history
B)Current list of medications
C)Pulmonary risk factors
D)All of the above
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22
Chapter 21: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following words is not consistent with the definition of the SOAP charting method?
A)Subjective
B)Objective
C)Assessment
D)Physical examination
Q2) Which of the following data do not constitute part of the objective information section in the SOAP charting method?
A)Vital signs
B)Review of systems
C)Review of clinical laboratory data
D)Review of pulmonary function test results
Q3) What does the letter I stand for in the APIE method of documentation?
A)Implementation
B)Impact
C)Inconsistencies
D)Initiative
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