Patient Assessment in Allied Health Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Patient Assessment in Allied Health provides students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to conduct comprehensive patient evaluations within various allied health professions. The course covers techniques for gathering patient histories, performing physical examinations, and utilizing both subjective and objective data to inform clinical decision-making. Emphasis is placed on developing effective communication, observation, and documentation skills, as well as understanding the ethical and cultural considerations involved in patient assessment. By integrating theoretical principles with hands-on practice, students learn to assess patients holistically and contribute to high-quality, patient-centered care in their respective allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations Assessment of Respiratory Disease 6th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) When closing the interview, the following should be done:
1) Recheck the patient's vital signs.
2) Thank the patient.
3) Ask if the patient has any questions.
4) Close the door behind you for patient privacy.
A)2
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Q2) The open-ended question format is generally used to: 1) gather information when a patient introduces a new topic. 2) introduce a new subject area.
3) begin the interview process.
4) gather specific information.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) When would induced hypothermia be indicated?
A) During brain surgery
B)During bowel surgery
C)To break a fever
D)To treat carbon monoxide poisoning
Answer: A
Q2) Your patient has come into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located constant pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B)Myocardial ischemia
C)Pneumothorax
D)Fractured rib
Answer: B
Q3) A dull percussion note would be heard in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) atelectasis.
B)pleural thickening.
C)chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
D)consolidation.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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Q1) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) IRV.
B)IC.
C)ERV.
D)RV.
Answer: A
Q2) The FEF 25%-75% is used to evaluate:
A) flow in large airways.
B)restrictive lung disease.
C)maximum breathing effort.
D)flow in medium-size to small airways.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following forced vital capacity test times should be interpreted as normal?
A) Less than 4 seconds
B)4 to 6 seconds
C)6 to 8 seconds
D)8 to 10 seconds
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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Q1) What causes stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptors to increase the ventilator rate?
A) Pain or anxiety
B)PaCO<sub>2</sub> of about 40 mm Hg
C)PaO<sub>2</sub> of about 60 mm Hg
D)Venous pH of 7.30 to 7.40
Q2) All of the following will be seen in the arterial blood gas values of a patient with acute ventilatory failure EXCEPT:
A) an acidic pH.
B)a near-normal bicarbonate level.
C)an alkaline pH.
D)a high carbon dioxide level.
Q3) Your patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?
A) Muscle efficiency
B)Ventilatory efficiency
C)Heart function
D)Work efficiency
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Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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Q1) A person's C(a-v)O<sub>2</sub> increases in all of the following situations EXCEPT: A) seizures.
B)peripheral shunting.
C)hyperthermia.
D)exercise.
Q2) A condition that will cause anemic hypoxia is:
A) cyanide poisoning.
B)decreased cardiac output or heart failure.
C)polycythemia.
D)carbon monoxide poisoning.
Q3) When a sample of arterial blood is analyzed for the pressure of oxygen (PaO<sub>2</sub>) and carbon dioxide (PaCO<sub>2</sub>) the value comes from the: A) blood plasma. B)leukocytes.
C)hemoglobin.
D)erythrocytes.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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Q1) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be caused by:
1) hypokalemia.
2) intrinsic myocardial disease.
3) hypoxemia.
4) acidemia.
A)1
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following will be found in a patient with asystole?
1) Increased ventricular activity
2) Absence of electrical activity
3) No blood pressure
4) Highly variable heart rate
A)2
B)1, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Q1) Which of the following can be identified by pulmonary angiography?
1) Pulmonary emboli
2) Coronary artery occlusions
3) Arteriovenous malformations
4) Cause of hemoptysis
A)4
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The heart shadow on a chest radiograph will show up larger than normal on:
A) an AP film.
B)a PA film.
C)a left lateral film.
D)a computed tomography (CT) scan.
Q3) The chest radiograph shows blunting of the patient's costophrenic angles. What does this suggest?
A) The patient did not take a deep enough breath.
B)Lung cancer
C)Pleural fluid
D)Underpenetrated exposure on the film
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Q1) In response to a viral infection, the following can be expected to be seen in the white blood cell count:
A) Increased lymphocytes
B)Decreased monocytes
C)Increased basophils
D)Decreased platelets
Q2) Diagnostic thoracentesis can be used to:
A) withdraw a secretion sample from the lung for a sputum smear.
B)withdraw a secretion sample from the lung for a Gram stain.
C)determine the etiology of a pleural effusion.
D)remove air from the pleural space.
Q3) Culture and sensitivity tests:
A) stain a microorganism as Gram-positive or Gram-negative.
B)determine the shape of the organisms present.
C)identify the DNA of organisms present in the sputum.
D)determine the antibiotic(s) best suited for combating an infection.
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Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Care Practitioner
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Q1) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment refers to:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B)how sick the patient is.
C)the Department of Homeland Security's threat level.
D)how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
Q2) Which of the following is/are associated with the consolidation clinical scenario?
1) Increased opacity on the chest radiograph
2) Decreased FRC
3) Bronchial breath sounds
4) Hyperresonant percussion note
A)3
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:
A) hemodynamic data.
B)patient's admission complaint.
C)blood pressure.
D)sputum production.
Q2) A patient who had pneumonia, and her family, are suing the hospital, physician, and respiratory therapist. How can the patient's medical care and treatment be proved?
A) Care is documented in the chart.
B)The patient's testimony
C)The physician's testimony
D)The respiratory therapist's testimony
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B)refusal of care by the patient.
C)rejection by the physician.
D)resuscitate the patient.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease Copd:
Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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Q1) Which of the following would indicate a diagnosis of advanced COPD?
1) Arterial blood gases show low O<sub>2</sub> and high CO<sub>2</sub>.
2) Arterial blood gases show high O<sub>2</sub> and low CO<sub>2</sub>.
3) Pulmonary function tests show low flow of air on expiration.
4) Pulmonary function tests show low flow of air on inspiration.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)1, 4
D)2, 3
Q2) Which of the following are anatomic alterations found with chronic bronchitis?
1) Increased size of submucosal bronchial glands
2) Destruction of pulmonary capillaries
3) Chronic bronchial wall inflammation
4) Bronchospasm
A)2, 3
B)3, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
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Chapter 12: Asthma
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Q1) After a patient inhales a bronchodilator medication, what percentage change in peak expiratory flow (PEF) indicates a diagnosis of asthma?
A) -20%
B)-10%
C)+10%
D)>20%
Q2) If an asthmatic patient is given a sympathomimetic and parasympatholytic medication, what can be expected to happen?
A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction will occur.
B)Airway edema will be reduced.
C)Nothing, since the two medications have opposite effects.
D)Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation will occur.
Q3) Pulsus paradoxus would be manifested as:
A) a greater than 40 mm Hg difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
B)inspiratory systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
C)inspiratory diastolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg less than during expiration.
D)systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading being reversed.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) For religious reasons, a young couple has not given their 4-year-old daughter the usual childhood immunizations. She has been repeatedly hospitalized with pulmonary infections. As the respiratory therapist caring for the child, what would you tell the parents that she is a risk of developing?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B)Asthma
C)Bronchiectasis
D)Left ventricular hypertrophy
Q2) A patient with long-standing bronchiectasis also has pneumonia. Which of the following hematology test results would be expected?
1) Decreased red blood cell (RBC) count
2) Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count
3) Elevated WBC count
4) Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit
A)1, 2
B)3, 4
C)2, 4
D)1, 3, 4
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15
Chapter 14: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are commonly cultured from the mucus in the tracheobronchial tree of a patient with cystic fibrosis?
1) Klebsiella
2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3) Haemophilus influenzae
4) Staphylococcus aureus
A)1, 2
B)2, 4
C)1, 2, 3
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) If both the mother and the father are carriers for the cystic fibrosis gene, what are the chances that their child will be a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A) 0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
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Chapter 15: Pneumonia
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Q1) A patient has a pleural effusion related to her pneumonia. What can be used to help treat it?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B)Supplemental oxygen
C)Thoracentesis
D)Percussion and postural drainage
Q2) The following pulmonary infection is most commonly seen in patients with AIDS: A) anaerobic.
B)Pneumocystis carinii.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae (Diplococcus pneumoniae).
D)Legionella pneumophila.
Q3) The most commonly prescribed aerosolized antibiotic used against Pneumocystis carinii is:
A) penicillin (Penicillin G).
B)tobramycin (TOBI).
C)tetracycline (Achromycin).
D)pentamidine isethionate (NebuPent).
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Chapter 16: Lung Abscess
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Q1) A patient with an abscess has coughed out a large volume of brown-colored, putrid sputum. What is the most likely class of microorganism that would cause this?
A) Fungi
B)Viruses
C)Aerobic bacteria
D)Anaerobic bacteria
Q2) While performing an assessment of your female patient, a pleural friction rub is heard. What does this indicate?
A) Her secretions are becoming thinner.
B)She has atelectasis.
C)An abscess is near the pleural surface.
D)She has a pneumothorax.
Q3) What antibiotic agent would be appropriate for treating an anaerobic lung abscess infection?
A) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B)Pentamidine (NebuPent)
C)Fluoroquinolones (Levofloxacin)
D)Monobactam (Aztreonam)
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18
Chapter 17: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following clinical manifestations that are associated with TB?
1) Dull percussion note
2) Bronchospasm
3) Hyperresonant percussion note
4) Crackles
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 2
D)2, 3, 4
Q2) The most effective medication used to treat a TB infection is:
A) rifampin.
B)penicillin.
C)streptomycin.
D)isoniazid.
Q3) The preferred stain that is used to identify the TB organism is called:
A) Gram stain.
B)Fluorescent acid-fast stain.
C)Ziehl-Neelsen.
D)Gentian violet.
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Q1) The drug of choice for the treatment of fungal lung diseases is:
A) penicillin (Penicillin G).
B)tetracycline.
C)amphotericin B (Fungizone).
D)ketoconazole (Nizoral).
Q2) All of the following are identified as opportunistic yeast pathogens EXCEPT:
A) Candida albicans.
B)Cryptococcus neoformans.
C)Aspergillus.
D)Mycoplasma.
Q3) In the midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?
A) Cryptococcosis
B)Histoplasmosis
C)Blastomycosis
D)Coccidioidomycosis
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Chapter 19: Pulmonary Edema
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Q1) All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) myocardial infarction.
B)mitral valve disease.
C)allergic reaction to drugs.
D)congenital heart defects.
Q2) Which of the following is/are considered noncardiogenic cause(s) of increased capillary permeability?
1) Therapeutic lung radiation
2) Cigarette smoke
3) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
4) Inhaled phosgene
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Pulmonary edema manifests itself clinically as a/an:
A) restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B)obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)equally restrictive and obstructive disorder.
D)restrictive cardiac disorder.
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Chapter 20: Pulmonary Embolism
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Q1) A pulmonary embolism causes which of the following major pathologic and structural changes in the lungs?
1) Alveolar consolidation
2) Mucosal edema
3) Alveolar atelectasis
4) Pleural friction rub
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The sudden onset of which of the following signs and symptoms indicate a pulmonary embolism:
1) wheezing.
2) coughing out blood-streaked sputum.
3) cyanosis.
4) sudden shortness of breath.
A)3, 4
B)1, 2
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 21: Flail Chest
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Q1) When a patient has a flail chest, what happens during the ventilatory cycle?
A) The I:E ratio becomes inverse.
B)Air leaks out through the flail area.
C)Air leaks in through the flail area.
D)Air is shunted from one lung to the other.
Q2) While assessing a patient who was involved in a serious car crash and hit his steering wheel, you notice that his left anterior chest wall caves in during inspiration. What could cause this?
A) Singultus
B)Flail chest segment
C)Pneumothorax
D)Cardiac tamponade
Q3) Your patient with a flail chest has paradoxical chest movement. What would be seen with this?
A) With an inspiration, the fractured ribs move outward.
B)The trachea deviates away from the flail side of the chest.
C)During inspiration, the fractured ribs move inward.
D)During exhalation, the flail area moves inward.
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Chapter 22: Pneumothorax
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Q1) What are the anatomic alterations that occur when a person has a pneumothorax?
1. The lung on the affected side collapses.
2. The visceral and parietal pleura separate.
3. The visceral pleura adheres to the parietal pleura.
4. The chest wall moves outward.
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) According to the way gas enters the pleural space, a pneumothorax will be classified as:
1) one-sided.
2) bilateral.
3) open.
4) closed.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Effusion and Empyema
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Q1) Your patient with a large pleural effusion will have a chest tube inserted. Which of the following statements are true of this procedure?
1) Tube placement in the 2nd to 3rd intercostal space
2) Tube placement in the 4th to 5th intercostal space
3) Tube placement in the midclavicular line
4) Tube placement in the midaxillary line
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)1, 3
D)2, 4
Q2) Your patient with pneumonia of the left lung and related empyema has a distinctive breath sound heard over the affected area. What is the name of this characteristic breath sound?
A) Bronchial breath sound
B)Pleural friction rub
C)Empyema rhonchi
D)Pleural crackles
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25
Chapter 24: Kyphoscoliosis
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Q1) Mild to moderate kyphoscoliosis will manifest itself clinically as a/an:
A) restrictive cardiac disorder.
B)obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)equally restrictive and obstructive pulmonary disorder.
D)restrictive pulmonary disorder.
Q2) In a case of severe kyphoscoliosis, which of the following chest radiograph findings would be expected?
1) Enlarged heart
2) Atelectasis
3) Increased lung opacity
4) Thoracic deformity
A)1, 4
B)2, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Braces are most effective with which group of kyphoscoliosis patients?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis
B)Patients with congenital scoliosis
C)Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D)Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
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Chapter 25: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Q1) Your patient has been diagnosed with Wegener's granulomatosis. Her long-term prognosis is:
A) excellent, with full recovery expected.
B)fair, with recovery expected after proper treatment.
C)guarded, recovery is possible after proper treatment.
D)poor, recovery is not expected.
Q2) Your patient has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) of the lungs. What is the most commonly found pulmonary complication of SLE?
A) Bronchospasm
B)Pleurisy
C)Atelectasis
D)Diaphragmatic dysfunction
Q3) Which of the following classes of drugs has the largest group of agents that can cause interstitial lung disease?
A) Anticancer
B)Cardiovascular
C)Antibiotics
D)Antiinflammatory
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Chapter 26: Cancer of the Lung
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Q1) Benign tumors:
1) are metastatic.
2) grow slowly.
3) are usually encapsulated.
4) grow in a disordered manner.
A)1
B)4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) Your patient has metastatic lung cancer that has been identified in several other locations. What is the best way to treat her?
A) Radiation therapy
B)Surgical removal of all known tumors
C)Chemotherapy
D)Needle aspiration of the tumors
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) smoking tobacco.
B)smoking marijuana.
C)inhaling asbestos.
D)inhaling radon gas.
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Chapter 27: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Your adult male patient weighs 68 kg (150 pounds). Because he has developed ARDS, the physician wants to adjust the mechanical ventilator to minimize further lung injury. What tidal volume should be set for the patient?
A) 150 ml
B)400 ml
C)680 ml
D)800 ml
Q2) Commonly heard breath sounds in a patient with ARDS include: 1) vesicular.
2) bronchovesicular.
3) crackles.
4) bronchial.
A)4
B)1, 2
C)3, 4
D)2, 3, 4
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Chapter 28: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Q1) The diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome is based on all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) urinalysis shows elevate blood urea nitrogen.
B)abnormal electromyography results.
C)cerebrospinal fluid shows elevated protein level.
D)clinical history.
Q2) Common noncardiopulmonary manifestations associated with Guillain-Barré is/are:
1) difficulty swallowing.
2) leg pain.
3) distal paresthesia.
4) absent deep tendon reflexes.
A)1
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Guillain-Barré syndrome is most likely to be found in which demographic group?
A) African-American female 20-30 years of age
B)Hispanic male <45 years of age
C)Asian female 20-40 years of age
D)White male = 45 years of age
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Myasthenia Gravis
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Q1) Because of respiratory failure, your patient with myasthenia gravis was placed on mechanical ventilation and is now stable. What will the chest radiograph most likely show?
A) Normal lungs
B)Mediastinal shift
C)Pericardial tamponade
D)Pneumonia
Q2) Which of the following is/are signs and symptoms associated with myasthenia gravis?
1) Double vision
2) Weakness of neck muscles
3) Drooping of eyelids
4) Difficulty speaking
A)2
B)1, 3
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Sleep Apnea
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Q1) During a pulmonary function study, it was found that your patient has a sawtooth pattern on his flow-volume loop. What is this finding associated with?
A) Central sleep apnea
B)COPD
C)Obstructive sleep apnea
D)Laryngeal edema (epiglottitis)
Q2) All of the following are found during rapid eye movement sleep, EXCEPT:
A) the diaphragm functions normally.
B)the person is easy to awaken.
C)dreaming occurs.
D)skeletal muscles are paralyzed.
Q3) Mixed sleep apnea has these traits:
1) Obstructive apnea traits
2) Central apnea traits
3) Usually begins as central apnea
4) Usually ends as central apnea
A)2, 4
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 3
D)1, 2, 4
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Chapter 31: Newborn and Early Childhood Respiratory Disorders
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Q1) The most recent arterial blood gas results on your premature neonatal patient show that the PaO<sub>2</sub> is low. All of the following are possible causes of this, EXCEPT:
A) fatigue.
B)PPHN.
C)hyperventilation.
D)pulmonary shunting.
Q2) A newborn's 5-minute Apgar score is 7. How should this be interpreted?
A) Normal adjustment to being born
B)Moderate distress; intubate the airway and suction the lungs
C)Moderate distress; administer supplemental oxygen
D)Severe distress; begin bag-mask resuscitation
Q3) A neonate in respiratory distress will often dilate his/her nostrils to:
A) facilitate inspiration.
B)nurse more easily.
C)sneeze out amniotic fluid.
D)raise its intrapleural pressure.
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33
Chapter 32: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Q1) Your patient with MAS has had a chest radiograph taken. What findings can be expected?
A) Elevated diaphragms
B)Mediastinal shift
C)Irregular densities throughout the lungs
D)Air bronchograms
Q2) Infants who are older than 42 weeks' gestation are at greater risk for MAS because they have:
1) a full bowel.
2) strong peristalsis.
3) amniotic fluid in their stomach.
4) sphincter tone.
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 4
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Chapter 33: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Q1) An infant with a mild case of TTN will show the following arterial blood gas value(s):
1) increased pH
2) decreased pH
3) low PaO<sub>2</sub>.
4) low PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
A)4
B)3, 4
C)2, 3
D)1, 3, 4
Q2) Initially, TTN will have a clinical presentation similar to:
A) the early stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
B)the late stage of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS).
C)bronchial pneumonia.
D)meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS).
Q3) In the first few hours after birth, TTN manifests itself clinically as:
A) a restrictive pulmonary disorder.
B)an obstructive pulmonary disorder.
C)equally restrictive and obstructive disorder.
D)obstructive initially and restrictive later.
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Chapter 34: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Q1) Which of the following are usually seen in the lungs of a neonate with RDS?
A) Alveolar collapse (atelectasis)
B)Segmental atelectasis
C)Lobar atelectasis
D)Pulmonary fibrosis
Q2) All of the following amniotic fluid lab findings would indicate mature fetal lungs, EXCEPT:
A) S:A ratio is >55
B)PG is present
C)L:S ratio is 2:1
D)L:S ratio is 1:2
Q3) The neonate with RDS would have a phosphatidylglycerol (PG) level that is A) present.
B)absent.
C)above normal.
D)below normal.
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Chapter 35: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Q1) A pulmonary air leak syndrome will usually present itself within what time period?
A) At the time of birth
B)Within the first 4 to 6 hours of life
C)Less than 24 hours after birth
D)Within the first 24 to 48 hours of life
Q2) Your intubated and mechanically ventilated neonatal patient has a pneumothorax of the right lung. What can be done to help the injured lung to heal?
A) Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the left mainstem bronchus.
B)Selectively place the endotracheal tube into the right mainstem bronchus.
C)Replace the endotracheal tube with a tracheostomy tube.
D)Change to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).
Q3) If your patient were to develop a pneumoperitoneum, what clinical presentation would be seen?
A) Mediastinal shift toward affected area
B)Change in point of maximum impulse
C)Abdominal distension
D)Pleural effusion
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Chapter 36: Respiratory Syncytial Virus Infection
Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis
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Q1) Wheezing breath sounds are detected in your patient. What agent(s) would be initially used to help cause smooth muscle relaxation?
1) Inhaled sympathomimetic
2) Systemic corticosteroid
3) Inhaled parasympatholytic
4) Systemic decongestant
A)1
B)2, 4
C)1, 3
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) What can be given to a premature baby in order to prevent an RSV infection?
A) An inhaled corticosteroid agent
B)Ribavirin (Virazole)
C)Palivizumab (Synagis)
D)A sympathomimetic agent
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Chapter 37: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Q1) It is thought that a neonatal patient has Stage IV BPD with emphysematous lung changes. What pulmonary function test findings would confirm this?
1) Normal Vt
2) Increased FRC
3) Decreased VC
4) Increased RV
A)1, 3
B)2, 4
C)2, 3, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following "new" BPD criteria would indicate a severe case of the condition?
1) Needs > 30% oxygen upon discharge
2) Needs nasal CPAP at discharge
3) Breathing room air upon discharge
4) Needed supplemental oxygen for 35 days
A)1, 2
B)2, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)2, 3, 4
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Q1) Your patient has a left-sided CDH. How would this manifest itself clinically?
A) A restrictive pulmonary disorder
B)An obstructive pulmonary disorder
C)Equally restrictive and obstructive disorder
D)A restrictive cardiac disorder
Q2) What happens as an infant with a CDH creates an increased negative inspiratory pressure in order to breathe?
A) Meconium is drawn deeper into the airways.
B)Its lung compliance is improved.
C)More bowel is sucked into the thorax.
D)It fills its lungs more completely.
Q3) A newborn infant shows respiratory distress upon delivery. It is observed to have a scaphoid abdomen. Auscultation reveals diminished breath sounds with heart sounds on the right side of the chest. What is the infant's most likely diagnosis?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B)Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)
C)Pneumoperitoneum
D)Abdominal aortic aneurysm
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Chapter 39: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Q1) Most cases of LTB occur during which season(s) of the year?
1) Spring
2) Summer
3) Fall
4) Winter
A)1
B)4
C)3, 4
D)1, 2, 3
Q2) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) child has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B)child has a normal temperature or low fever.
C)child has a significant fever.
D)child can drink without difficulty.
Q3) All of the following would be expected during the assessment of a young child with LTB, EXCEPT:
A) decreased respiratory rate.
B)diminished breath sounds.
C)use of accessory muscles.
D)hypoxemia.
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Chapter 40: Near Drowning
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Q1) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B)98.6° F
C)Between 98° F and 70° F
D)Less than 70° F
Q2) Many adult drowning victims have been shown to have:
A) used alcohol.
B)had a stroke.
C)eaten just before swimming.
D)had a heart attack.
Q3) A wet drowning victim will have the following pulmonary function test finding:
A) increased Vt.
B)increased DLCO.
C)decreased VC.
D)increased TLC.
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Chapter 41: Smoke Inhalation and Thermal Injuries
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Q1) Your patient has ARDS and is in acute ventilatory failure. As the respiratory therapist, what would you recommend be done?
A) Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
B)Provide 100% oxygen
C)Begin mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
D)Begin extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO)
Q2) A patient who inhaled low water solubility gases (hydrogen chloride and phosgene) will have effects in what area(s)?
A) Distal airways and alveoli
B)Pulmonary vascular bed
C)Upper airway
D)Pulmonary lymphatic system
Q3) A throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and impaired judgment are common clinical manifestations when the blood COHb is at what level?
A) 0% to 10%
B)10% 20%
C)20% to 30%
D)30% to 50%
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43
Chapter 42: Postoperative Atelectasis
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Q1) A patient with atelectasis is being monitored by bedside spirometry. What findings would correspond with atelectasis?
1) Decreased IC
2) Increased PEFR
3) Decreased VC
4) Increased DLCO
A)2
B)1, 3
C)1, 2, 4
D)1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) After surgery, your patient must lie supine in bed. Because of this, atelectasis is thought to have developed. What chest radiograph finding would confirm this?
A) Depression of the hemidiaphragms
B)Pulmonary interstitial emphysema (PIE)
C)Increased density in both upper lobe areas
D)Increased density in both posterior lower lobe areas
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44