Patient Assessment for Respiratory Care Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the principles and techniques of patient assessment specific to respiratory care. Students will learn how to perform thorough patient evaluations, including medical history taking, physical examination, assessment of vital signs, and interpretation of clinical data relevant to respiratory function. Emphasis is placed on identifying signs and symptoms of respiratory disorders, understanding diagnostic test results, and applying assessment findings to the development of effective respiratory care plans. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical application, students will gain the skills necessary to conduct systematic and accurate patient assessments in diverse clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Manifestations and Assessment of Respiratory Disease 7th Edition by Terry Des Jardins
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44 Chapters
673 Verified Questions
673 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Patient Interview
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3919
Sample Questions
Q1) For there to be a successful interview, the respiratory therapist must:
A) provide leading questions to guide the patient.
B) be an active listener.
C) reassure the patient.
D) use medical terminology to show knowledge of the subject matter.
Answer: B
Q2) To have the most productive interviewing session, the respiratory therapist must avoid all of the following types of verbal messages EXCEPT:
A) confrontation.
B) giving advice.
C) using avoidance language.
D) distancing.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following would NOT be found on a history form?
A) Age
B) Chief complaint
C) Present health
D) Family history
E) Health insurance provider
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: The Physical Examination and Its Basis in Physiology
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachypnea may be the result of:
1) hypoxemia.
2) hypothermia.
3) fever.
4) sedation.
A) 2, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Answer: B
Q2) A patient comes into the emergency department with a complaint of centrally located, constant chest pain. What is his most likely problem?
A) Pleurisy
B) Myocardial ischemia
C) Pneumothorax
D) Fractured rib
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pulmonary Function Study Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overall characteristics of pulmonary function testing results on a patient with obstructive lung disease include that the FEV<sub>1</sub>:
A) is reduced and FEV1% is normal.
B) and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both increased.
C) and FEV<sub>1</sub>% are both reduced.
D) is increased and FEV1% is decreased.
Answer: C
Q2) Total lung capacity is composed of all of the following EXCEPT:
A) IRV.
B) IC.
C) ERV.
D) RV.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following forced vital capacity test times should be interpreted as normal?
A) Less than 4 seconds
B) 4 to 6 seconds
C) 6 to 8 seconds
D) 8 to 10 seconds
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Arterial Blood Gas Assessments
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A respiratory therapist is questioning the accuracy of the ABG results obtained on a patient in the ICU. The results show a pH and PaO<sub>2</sub> that seem unreasonably high, while the PaCO<sub>2</sub> seems unreasonably low. Which of the following would most likely cause these erroneous results?
A) A venous sample was obtained.
B) There was excessive heparin in the blood gas syringe.
C) The sample was excessively delayed in analysis.
D) There was an air bubble in the sample.
Q2) A patient has had chronic ventilatory failure for several years. What is the primary factor that determines her breathing pattern?
A) Muscle efficiency
B) Ventilatory efficiency
C) Heart function
D) Work efficiency
Q3) Mechanical ventilation is indicated for which of the following ABG results?
A) pH 7.56; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 27; HCO<sub>3</sub> 23; PaO<sub>2</sub> 63
B) pH 7.23; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 63; HCO<sub>3</sub> 26; PaO<sub>2</sub> 52
C) pH 7.36; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 79; HCO<sub>3</sub> 43; PaO<sub>2</sub> 61
D) pH 7.52; PaCO<sub>2</sub> 51; HCO<sub>3</sub> 40; PaO<sub>2</sub> 46
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Oxygenation Assessments
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13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen consumption:
1) increases with exercise.
2) is the amount of oxygen used by the body.
3) is inversely related to carbon dioxide production.
4) is about 250 mL/min in the resting adult.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) A patient has been exposed to carbon monoxide during a house fire. An ABG result shows a normal PaO<sub>2</sub>. How should the patient's PaO<sub>2</sub> value be interpreted?
A) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely elevated by the carbon monoxide.
B) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is being falsely decreased by the carbon monoxide.
C) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is accurate.
D) The PaO<sub>2</sub> is a false measurement because the presence of carbon monoxide makes the analyzer unable to determine the PaO<sub>2</sub>.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System Assessments
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is called to a patient's room as part of the rapid response team (RRT). The patient is unconscious and pulseless. The EKG monitor displays asystole.
Which of the following actions would NOT be indicated at this time?
A) Call a code.
B) Begin CPR.
C) Defibrillate the patient.
D) Administer ACLS medications.
Q2) A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) can be identified by which of the following?
1) There is no P wave.
2) The QRS is wide.
3) The QRS looks normal.
4) The heart rate is altered.
A) 1
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Radiologic Examination of the Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is reviewing the electronic medical record of a patient in the medical ICU. In reading the most recent chest radiograph interpretation, the therapist notes that the cardiothoracic ratio is stated to be less than 1:2 on the PA view. How should the therapist interpret this information?
A) This is a normal cardiothoracic ratio.
B) This is a decreased cardiothoracic ratio.
C) This ratio shows hyperinflation of the lung fields with subsequent air trapping.
D) This interpretation should be ignored because it is inaccurate in the PA view.
Q2) A patient has a long smoking history and has recently coughed up blood. The physician suspects that there may be lung cancer, but no lesions can be seen on a standard chest radiograph. A CT scan offers all of the following advantages EXCEPT:
A) bronchial tumors can be seen.
B) lung tumors as small as 0.4 cm can be seen.
C) a tumor's metabolism can be identified.
D) a mediastinal mass can be seen.
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Chapter 8: Other Important Tests and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory therapist is reviewing the electronic medical record of a patient recently admitted to the medical floor. The therapist notes that a sputum sample was sent to the lab for an acid-fast smear and culture. How should the therapist interpret this information?
A) Suspect that the patient has Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
B) Suspect that the patient has Rickettsiae pneumonia.
C) Suspect that the patient has Pneumocystis jiroveci (carinii) pneumonia.
D) Suspect that the patient has Mycobacterium tuberculosis pneumonia.
Q2) Therapeutic bronchoscopy is used for all of the following EXCEPT:
A) to remove a foreign body.
B) in selective lavage.
C) in bronchiectasis evaluation.
D) to manage life-threatening hemoptysis.
Q3) For blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine values:
A) serum creatinine is a protein produced in the kidneys.
B) BUN and serum creatinine values that are higher than the normal range indicate renal failure.
C) urea is a waste product of carbohydrate metabolism in the intestines.
D) BUN values that are below normal indicate renal failure.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Therapist-Driven Protocol Program and the
Role of the Respiratory Therapist
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protocols would be indicated when a patient with increased alveolar-capillary membrane thickening has increased opacity on the chest radiograph, bronchial breath sounds, and a dull percussion note?
A) Aerosolized medication protocol
B) Lung expansion protocol
C) Oxygen therapy protocol
D) Bronchopulmonary hygiene protocol
Q2) When a patient has acute MI, which of the following protocols should the respiratory therapist initiate?
A) Hyperinflation therapy protocol
B) Oxygen therapy protocol
C) Bronchopulmonary hygiene therapy protocol
D) Aerosolized medication therapy protocol
Q3) When performing a therapist-driven protocol (TDP), the severity assessment determines:
A) the frequency of performing a treatment modality.
B) the baseline dyspnea index.
C) the number of hospital days covered by the insurance carrier.
D) how urgently the physician wants the patient treated.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Respiratory Failure and the Mechanical
Ventilation Protocol
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are contraindications for noninvasive ventilation (NIV) EXCEPT:
A) facial and head trauma.
B) community-acquired pneumonia.
C) copious, viscous sputum.
D) severe upper GI bleeding.
Q2) Which of the following are clinical indicators of Type I respiratory failure?
1) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>
2) Increased P(A-a)O<sub>2</sub>
3) Decreased PaO<sub>2</sub>/FIO<sub>2</sub>
4) Decreased ÓS/ÓT
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following are causes of hypercapnic respiratory failure EXCEPT: A) impending ventilatory failure.
B) apnea.
C) severe refractory hypoxemia.
D) acute ventilatory failure.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Recording Skills: The Basis for Data Collection,
Organization, Assessment Skill
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Computer-based records are commonly used for which of the following?
1) Retrieving pulmonary function studies
2) Storing treatment information
3) Storing admission data
4) Ordering patient supplies
A) 3, 4
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, all of the following would be found in the O area EXCEPT:
A) hemodynamic data.
B) patient's admission complaint.
C) blood pressure.
D) sputum production.
Q3) When reviewing a SOAPIER progress note, the R stands for:
A) revisions made in the original plan.
B) reimbursement by the insurance carrier.
C) respiratory care notes.
D) resuscitation status of the patient.
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Chapter 12: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
(COPD), Chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are used to confirm the diagnosis of COPD?
1) Presence of a chronic cough
2) Chronic exposure to environmental smoke
3) FEV<sub>1</sub>/FVC ratio greater than 0.70
4) FEV<sub>1</sub> <80%
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Emphysema may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) inhaling asbestos fibers.
B) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C) secondhand cigarette smoke.
D) air pollution.
Q3) A genetically linked cause of panlobular emphysema is:
A) bronchiectasis.
B) a1-antitrypsin deficiency.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) bronchial asthma.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following symptoms are commonly associated with asthma EXCEPT recurrent:
A) cough.
B) chest tightness.
C) fever.
D) wheeze.
Q2) What term is used to describe the situation when an initial asthmatic response occurs within 1 hour of exposure to an allergen followed by a delayed asthmatic response hours later?
A)Deferred dyspneic response
B)Asynchronous activation response
C)Biphasic response
D)Bipolar response
Q3) If a beta?-agonist agent and an anticholinergic agent were administered concurrently to a patient during an acute asthma episode, what result would be expected?
A) Bronchial smooth muscle contraction will occur.
B) Airway edema will increase.
C) The medications oppose each other, resulting in no airway changes.
D) Bronchial smooth muscle relaxation will occur.
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Chapter 14: Bronchiectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pulmonary function testing values would be found in a patient with severe, obstructive bronchiectasis?
A) Decreased RV/TLC ratio
B) Increased PEFR
C) Increased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
D) Decreased FEF<sub>25%-75%</sub>
Q2) For religious reasons, a young couple has not given their 4-year-old daughter the usual childhood immunizations. She has been repeatedly hospitalized with pulmonary infections. What should the respiratory therapist caring for the child tell the parents that the child is at risk of developing?
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Asthma
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Left ventricular hypertrophy
Q3) Congenital causes of bronchiectasis include:
A) influenza.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) COPD.
D) rheumatic disease.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Cystic Fibrosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common nonrespiratory clinical manifestation of cystic fibrosis is:
A) sinusitis.
B) hyperpigmentation.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) glaucoma.
Q2) What complicating pulmonary problem is likely to happen to a patient with cystic fibrosis?
A) Pulmonary edema
B) Pleural effusion
C) Spontaneous pneumothorax
D) Cardiac tamponade
Q3) Which ethnic group has the greatest number of people with cystic fibrosis?
A) African-Americans
B) Asians
C) Hispanics
D) Caucasians
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Chapter 16: Pneumonia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause pneumonia?
1) Bacteria
2) Viruses
3) Prions
4) Fungi
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) A patient has a pleural effusion related to her pneumonia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend to treat the pleural effusion?
A) Hyperinflation therapy
B) Supplemental oxygen
C) Thoracentesis
D) Percussion and postural drainage
Q3) A patient has a bacterial pneumonia. What kills the invading bacteria?
A) Macrophages
B) Red blood cells
C) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) Serum fluid
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Chapter 17: Lung Abscess
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are predisposing factors to aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions and/or gastric contents into the lower respiratory tract?
1) General anesthesia
2) Head trauma
3) Seizure disorder
4) Alcohol abuse
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following can occur when tissue necrosis occurs in a lung abscess?
1) Fluid can rupture into a bronchus.
2) Broncholithiasis can occur.
3) Bronchospasm can close off the affected bronchi.
4) Fluid can rupture into the intrapleural space.
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Tuberculosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is particularly damaging to the lungs because of the:
A) healing of a tubercle.
B) formation of micropulmonary emboli.
C) increased mucus production.
D) irreversible bronchospasm that it causes.
Q2) A first-line agent used to treat a TB infection is:
A) gentamycin.
B) penicillin.
C) streptomycin.
D) isoniazid.
Q3) Nontuberculous mycobacteria such as Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium kansasii are associated with which one of the following diseases?
A) COPD
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Cystic fibrosis
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Chapter 19: Fungal Diseases of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Midwestern part of the United States, what is the most common fungal infection of the lungs?
A) Cryptococcosis
B) Histoplasmosis
C) Blastomycosis
D) Coccidioidomycosis
Q2) Pulmonary function testing results on a patient with advanced fungal pneumonia will display all of the following EXCEPT:
A) increased ERV.
B) decreased IRV.
C) decreased IC.
D) decreased TLC.
Q3) After cleaning out his chicken coop, a farmer has developed a fungal lung infection. What type of infection is it most likely to be?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Blastomycosis
C) Histoplasmosis
D) Cryptococcal infection
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21
Chapter 20: Pulmonary Edema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries?
A) 0 to 5 mm Hg
B) 5 to 10 mm Hg
C) 10 to 15 mm Hg
D) 15 to 20 mm Hg
Q2) All of the following are causes of cardiogenic pulmonary edema EXCEPT:
A) myocardial infarction.
B) mitral valve disease.
C) allergic reaction to drugs.
D) congenital heart defects.
Q3) A patient has noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. What chest radiograph findings would be expected?
1) "Bat's wings" pattern fluffy infiltrates
2) Normal cardiac silhouette
3) Fluffy densities near the hilum
4) Pleural effusion
A) 1
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
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Chapter 21: Pulmonary Vascular Disease: Pulmonary
Embolism and Pulmonary Hypertension
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Sample Questions
Q1) The death of lung tissue that may result from an obstruction of the pulmonary artery is called a:
A) pulmonary embolism.
B) pleural effusion.
C) pulmonary infarction.
D) pulmonary empyema.
Q2) In order to prevent pulmonary emboli, a filter may be placed into which of the following vessels to prevent clots from being carried into the pulmonary circulation?
A) Subclavian vein
B) Pulmonary artery
C) Thoracic duct
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Femoral artery
Q3) The best test for diagnosing a suspected pulmonary embolism is a(n):
A) spiral computerized tomography scan.
B) pulmonary function test.
C) electrocardiogram.
D) chest radiograph.
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Chapter 22: Flail Chest
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a flail chest is experiencing pendelluft. Which of the following would be expected in a patient with a flail chest with pendelluft?
1) Hypoventilation
2) Hypertension
3) Cyclical deeper and then more shallow breathing
4) Rebreathing dead-space gas
A) 1, 4
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following are pathologic changes associated with a flail chest?
1) Pneumothorax
2) Secondary pneumonia
3) Pleural effusion
4) Elevated diaphragms
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 23: Pneumothorax
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a pneumothorax with a sucking chest wound resulting in the movement of gas from one lung to another. This is called:
A) panting.
B) paradoxical movement.
C) bidirectional flow.
D) pendelluft.
Q2) A pneumothorax manifests itself clinically as a primary _____ disorder.
A) restrictive
B) obstructive
C) restrictive disorder with a secondary obstructive
D) obstructive disorder with secondary restrictive
Q3) What is the primary cause of hypotension in a patient with a large pneumothorax?
A) Pain
B) Decreased venous return to the heart
C) Tracheal compression
D) Atelectasis
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25
Chapter 24: Pleural Effusion and Empyema
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common cause of a chylothorax?
A) Thoracic duct trauma
B) Abdominal tumor
C) GERD
D) Pyloric stenosis
Q2) A respiratory therapist is assisting a physician who is performing a thoracentesis. It is suspected that the patient has a chylothorax. How would the pleural effusion be described?
A) Milky white
B) Straw colored
C) Red
D) Green
Q3) Treatment of an empyema usually includes:
A) pleurodesis.
B) thoracostomy tube insertion.
C) lobectomy.
D) pneumonectomy.
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26
Chapter 25: Kyphoscoliosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scoliosis is defined as a spinal curvature of _____ degrees.
A) >10
B) >20
C) >30
D) >40
Q2) A patient with severe kyphoscoliosis and chronic ventilatory failure with hypoxemia will have all of the following laboratory findings, EXCEPT:
A) increased PaCO<sub>2</sub>.
B) increased hematocrit.
C) normal pH.
D) increased pH.
Q3) In which of the following is bracing the primary form of treatment?
A) Adolescents with idiopathic scoliosis (AIS)
B) Patients with congenital scoliosis
C) Patients with neuromuscular scoliosis
D) Infants with idiopathic scoliosis
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Chapter 26: Interstitial Lung Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are interstitial lung diseases EXCEPT:
A) asbestosis.
B) sarcoidosis.
C) Staphylococcus.
D) silicosis.
Q2) A patient has just been diagnosed with Wegener's granulomatosis. Her long-term prognosis is:
A) excellent, with full recovery expected.
B) fair, with recovery expected after proper treatment.
C) guarded; recovery is possible after proper treatment.
D) poor; it is considered a fatal disease.
Q3) Which of the following organs are affected by systemic scleroderma?
1) Skin
2) Reproductive organs
3) Lungs
4) Brain
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Cancer of the Lung
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Sample Questions
Q1) During bronchoscopy, a tumor was found in the right mainstem bronchus. What is the recommended treatment?
A) Pneumonectomy
B) Brachytherapy
C) Cryotherapy
D) Photodynamic therapy
Q2) Which of the following is (are) non-small cell lung cancer(s)?
1) Large cell carcinoma
2) Squamous carcinoma
3) Adenocarcinoma
4) Oat cell carcinoma
A) 1
B) 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q3) The most common cause of lung cancer is:
A) cigarette smoking.
B) air pollution.
C) exposure to asbestos.
D) exposure to radon gas.
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Chapter 28: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are current ventilatory strategies in the treatment of ARDS?
1) Large tidal volume
2) Small tidal volume
3) Rapid respiratory rates
4) Slow respiratory rates
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1, 4
D) 2, 3
Q2) Which of the following are recommended to treat alveolar consolidation and atelectasis associated with ARDS?
1) Aerosolized bronchodilator medications
2) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
3) Chest percussion and postural drainage
4) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 4
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Chapter 29: Guillain-Barré Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typical chest assessment findings in a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome include:
1) diminished breath sounds.
2) crackles.
3) tracheal deviation.
4) depressed diaphragms.
A) 4
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) Which of following has been shown to shorten the course of a severe case of Guillain-Barré syndrome?
A) Renal dialysis
B) Plasmapheresis
C) Blood transfusion
D) NSAIDs
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Chapter 30: Myasthenia Gravis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A physician recommended a thymectomy for a patient with generalized myasthenia gravis. The primary benefit of this procedure is to:
A) eliminate the source of AChR antibodies.
B) block the antigen-antibody reactions.
C) remove the source of cholinesterase.
D) cure the ocular myasthenia gravis.
Q2) What clinical change would be expected following a rest period for a patient with myasthenia gravis?
A) There is no clinical change.
B) Strength decreases.
C) Muscle strength improves.
D) Ascending paralysis descends.
Q3) If a patient with myasthenia gravis is given edrophonium, what response would be expected?
A) Diaphragmatic strength will increase for 12 to 24 hours.
B) Strength will temporarily improve for 10 minutes.
C) Muscle strength will increase for 48 to 72 hours.
D) Muscle strength will decrease for 10 minutes.
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32
Chapter 31: Sleep Apnea
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rationale behind the use of supplemental oxygen in the treatment of sleep apnea is to:
A) preoxygenate the airway prior to the apneic episodes.
B) stimulate the central chemoreceptors and prevent apneic episodes.
C) increase the respiratory drive in the medulla.
D) blow off carbon dioxide in the alveolus.
Q2) First-line treatment for the management of hyperventilation-related central sleep apnea includes:
A) CPAP.
B) adaptive servo-ventilation (VPAP).
C) mechanical ventilation.
D) palatopharyngoplasty.
Q3) All of the following are evaluated during a polysomnographic sleep study EXCEPT:
A) breath sounds.
B) chest and/or abdominal movement.
C) electro-oculogram (EOG).
D) nasal and oral air flow.
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33
Chapter 32: Clinical Manifestations Common with Newborn and
Early Childhood Respiratory Dis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn's 5-minute Apgar score is 7. How should this be interpreted?
A) Normal adjustment to being born
B) Moderate distress; intubate the airway and suction the lungs
C) Moderate distress; administer supplemental oxygen
D) Severe distress; begin bag-mask resuscitation
Q2) Apnea of prematurity can be defined as:
1) respiratory pause causing bradycardia.
2) cycles of short breathing pauses followed by faster breathing.
3) no breathing for >20 seconds.
4) sudden apnea and death (crib death).
A) 4
B) 2
C) 1, 3
D) 3, 4
Q3) A neonatal patient is found to have grunting on expiration. What physiologic effect does this produce?
A) Increased vital capacity
B) Increased PAO<sub>2</sub>
C) Decreased PaCO<sub>2</sub>
D) Closes the ductus arteriosus
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with MAS has had a chest radiograph taken. What findings can be expected?
A) Elevated diaphragms
B) Mediastinal shift
C) Irregular densities throughout the lungs
D) Air bronchograms
Q2) About how many neonatal patients with MAS will require mechanical ventilation?
A) 50%
B) 30%
C) 10% to 15%
D) 4%
Q3) Risk factors for the development of MAS include:
1) being postterm.
2) a mother who is hypertensive.
3) a mother who is toxemic.
4) being the first twin born.
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
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Chapter 34: Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following oxygenation indices would be elevated in TTN?
A) Arterial-venous oxygen content difference
B) Oxygen consumption
C) Mixed venous oxygen saturation
D) Pulmonary shunt fraction
Q2) The major pathologic and structural changes associated with TTN include:
1) decreased removal of fluid by pulmonary lymphatics.
2) air trapping.
3) pleural effusion.
4) atelectasis.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
Q3) All of the following radiologic findings would be expected in a 12-hour-old neonate with TTN EXCEPT:
A) air bronchograms.
B) fluid in the interlobular fissures.
C) elevated diaphragms.
D) prominent perihilar streaking.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) primarily affects infants who are:
A) preterm with insufficient surfactant.
B) full-term.
C) postterm with too much surfactant.
D) preterm with too much surfactant.
Q2) A premature infant with RDS is receiving mechanical ventilation. In managing the patient's oxygenation, the respiratory therapist should strive to keep the PaO<sub>2</sub> at:
A) between 25 and 50.
B) between 40 and 70.
C) between 80 and 100.
D) 95 or greater.
Q3) Which of the following is usually seen in the lungs of a neonate with RDS?
A) Alveolar collapse (atelectasis)
B) Segmental atelectasis
C) Lobar atelectasis
D) Pulmonary fibrosis
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Chapter 36: Pulmonary Air Leak Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following chest radiograph findings would confirm the presence of PIE?
1) Mediastinal shift to the unaffected side
2) Air below the diaphragms
3) Lung hyperinflation
4) Fine, bubbly appearance of the lungs
A) 2, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) A physician is performing transillumination to determine whether a neonate has a pneumothorax. What finding would confirm the presence of a pneumothorax?
A) The trachea will be illuminated.
B) Light will shine through the hole in the lung.
C) There will be increased illumination on the unaffected side.
D) There will be increased illumination on the affected side.
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Chapter 37: Respiratory Syncytial Virus (Bronchiolitis or Pneumonitis)
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patients is least likely to experience a severe RSV infection?
A) A 6-month-old recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis
B) A 3-month-old who was born prematurely
C) A 2-year-old undergoing chemotherapy for leukemia
D) A 3-year-old with no siblings
Q2) Which of the following are major pathologic or structural changes associated with RSV?
1) Dilation and distortion of the airways
2) Inflammation of the peripheral airways
3) Alveolar hyperinflation
4) Pulmonary edema
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 38: Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can increase an infant's likelihood of developing BPD?
A) Birth weight >3000 g
B) Overfeeding
C) Use of beta2-agonists
D) Bacterial sepsis
Q2) An infant is beginning to develop BPD. What can be given to promote pulmonary vasodilation?
A) Furosemide (LasixÒ)
B) Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO)
C) Inhaled albuterol
D) FIO<sub>2</sub> >50%
Q3) A patient with classic Stage 1 BPD will have which of the following chest radiograph findings?
A) Ground-glass granular pattern
B) Emphysematous bullae
C) Honeycomb appearance
D) Mediastinal shift
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Chapter 39: Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following anatomic alterations may be found in a patient with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia EXCEPT:
A) lungs are compressed.
B) atelectasis.
C) hyperinflation.
D) complete lung collapse.
Q2) All of the following chest radiograph findings would be associated with a CDH EXCEPT:
A) steeple point sign.
B) complete lung collapse.
C) lungs do not meet the chest wall.
D) heart is shifted to the unaffected side.
Q3) Which of the following is described as abnormal elevation of an intact diaphragm into the chest cavity?
A) Diaphragmatic eventration
B) Morgagni's hernia
C) Bochdalek's hernia
D) Diaphragmatic altimetry
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Chapter 40: Congenital Heart Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which congenital cardiac abnormality results from "the arrested development of the secundum septum"?
A) Ostium secundum VSD
B) Ostium secundum ASD
C) Ostium secundum TGA
D) Ostium secundum TOF
Q2) What is the most common congenital heart disorder?
A) ASD
B) VSD
C) TGA
D) TOF
Q3) Which of the following is used to confirm the diagnosis of ASD?
A) Electromyogram
B) Electrocardiogram
C) Echocardiogram
D) Electrophoresis
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Chapter 41: Croup Syndrome: Laryngotracheobronchitis and
Acute Epiglottitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most cases of LTB occur during which season(s) of the year?
1) Spring
2) Summer
3) Fall
4) Winter
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3
Q2) When a patient has laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB), which of the following is the primary anatomic alteration that is found?
A) Edema of the mucous membranes
B) Airway smooth muscle contraction
C) Excessive alveolar fluid
D) Epiglottitis
Q3) The diagnosis of LTB is made by all of the following EXCEPT the child:
A) has inspiratory stridor and barking cough.
B) has a normal temperature or low fever.
C) has a significant fever.
D) can drink without difficulty.
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Chapter 42: Near Drowning/Wet Drowning
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States, what percentage of pediatric drowning victims are male?
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
Q2) What water temperature has been shown to be a favorable prognostic factor in near drowning?
A) Higher than 104° F
B) Between 98.6° F and 104° F
C) Between 70° F and 98° F
D) Between 27° F and 70° F
Q3) Favorable prognostic factors in clean water near-drowning include:
1) greater effort to reach the surface.
2) alcohol in the victim.
3) colder water.
4) younger age.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 43: Smoke Inhalation, Thermal Injuries, and Carbon
Monoxide Intoxication
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Sample Questions
Q1) What COHb level is associated with a throbbing headache, nausea, vomiting, and impaired judgment?
A) 1% to 10%
B) 10% to 20%
C) 20% to 30%
D) 30% to 50%
Q2) Which of the following radiographic findings would be associated with the intermediate stage of recovery from a serious smoke inhalation injury?
A) Pulmonary edema/ARDS
B) Patchy or segmental infiltrates
C) Empyema
D) Normal/full recovery
Q3) A patient with carbon monoxide poisoning has a COHb level of 20%. If the patient is given 100% oxygen, what will the approximate COHb level be in 1 hour?
A) 15%
B) 10%
C) 5%
D) 2.5%
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Chapter 44: Atelectasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What definition of atelectasis would best fit that of a premature newborn with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
A) Partial or total collapse of previously expanded lung regions
B) Free pleural air compressed the lungs
C) Enlarged heart causing compression of the lungs
D) The lungs remaining unexpanded since birth
Q2) Which of the following is the least commonly found type of postoperative atelectasis?
A) Primary lobule
B) Lung segment
C) Lung lobe
D) Entire lung
Q3) All of the following conditions can lead to atelectasis EXCEPT:
A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
B) acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
C) pleural effusion.
D) pneumothorax.
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