Patient Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Patient Assessment and Diagnostic Reasoning introduces students to the foundational skills and clinical thinking required to evaluate patient health status and develop differential diagnoses. This course emphasizes comprehensive history taking, physical examination techniques, and the integration of evidence-based practice in clinical decision-making. Through case-based learning, simulations, and hands-on practice, students develop critical reasoning abilities to interpret assessment findings, recognize normal and abnormal presentations, and formulate appropriate diagnostic plans. Ethical considerations, cultural competence, and effective communication strategies are woven throughout, preparing students to provide patient-centered care across diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Laboratory and Diagnostic Testing in Ambulatory Care 3rd Edition by Marti Garrel
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10 Chapters
346 Verified Questions
346 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/980 Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Laboratory and Safety Training
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19324
Sample Questions
Q1) Even though all of the following factors contribute to laboratory safety, the most crucial factor for consistently preventing harm to one's self is:
A) engineering controls.
B) gloving.
C) worker commitment to safety.
D) safety education.
Answer: C
Q2) The abbreviation PPE means ____________________.
Answer: personal protective equipment
Q3) The metric prefix that means one-thousandth,1/1000, or 0.001 is:
A) kilo-.
B) centi-.
C) milli-.
D) micro-.
Answer: C
Q4) A patient's willingness to follow his or her treatment plan and take an active role in his or her health care is ____________________.
Answer: compliance
patient compliance
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Chapter 2: Regulations, Microscope Setup, and Quality
Control
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) To obtain the total magnification, multiply the power of the objective lens by the power of the condenser.
B) When observing a densely stained slide on oil, move the condenser all the way down and close the iris diaphragm.
C) To obtain maximum magnification, immersion oil is added when using the 45´ objective.
D) You should focus a specimen under the 100´ objective with only the fine-focus adjustment knob.
Answer: D
Q2) When an explanation of laboratory test results is requested by the patient, how should lab workers respond?
A) Give the patient the test results.
B) Refer the patient to the physician.
C) Refer the patient to the front desk.
D) Educate the patient about the normal values of the test.
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Urinalysis
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct flow of urine?
A) Glomerular capsule \( \rightarrow \) renal pelvis \( \rightarrow \) collecting ducts \( \rightarrow \) ureters \( \rightarrow \) urinary bladder
B) Renal pelvis \( \rightarrow \) glomerular capsule \( \rightarrow \) collecting ducts \( \rightarrow \) ureters \( \rightarrow \) urinary bladder
C) Glomerular capsule \( \rightarrow \) collecting ducts \( \rightarrow \) renal pelvis \( \rightarrow \) ureters \( \rightarrow \) urinary bladder
D) Glomerular capsule \( \rightarrow \) collecting ducts \( \rightarrow \) ureters \( \rightarrow \) renal pelvis \( \rightarrow \) urinary bladder
Answer: C
Q2) Part of the nephron that contains the glomerulus and glomerular capsule is the ____________________.
Answer: renal corpuscle
Q3) Ketones in the urine is called ____________________.
Answer: ketonuria
Q4) No urine flow is called ____________________.
Answer: anuria
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5
Chapter 4: Blood Collection
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may occur if the needle is inserted at less than a15-degree angle?
A) The needle would go completely through the vein.
B) No blood would be obtained because the needle entered above the vein.
C) The needle may strike a tendon or nerve.
D) The vein would collapse.
Q2) Which of the following are analytes that are affected when hemolyzed blood releases chemicals into the plasma and serum?
A) Potassium and magnesium
B) Iron and lactate dehydrogenase
C) Phosphorus, ammonia, and total protein
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following would cause a specimen to be rejected by the lab?
A) The blood specimen for a coagulation test was drawn in a light blue tube.
B) The blood specimen was hemolyzed.
C) The blood tube was filled to the marked line.
D) The test requiring serum was drawn in a red-top tube.
Q4) ______________ are tiny purple or red skin spots that can be found in patients who have coagulation problems.This condition could lead to excessive bleeding during phlebotomy procedures.
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Chapter 5: Hematology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematology is the study of:
A) blood chemistry.
B) proteins in the blood.
C) blood plasma.
D) formed elements in the blood and bone marrow.
E) infectious diseases in the blood.
Q2) The complete blood count (CBC) generally includes all of the following except:
A) hemoglobin.
B) hematocrit.
C) ESR.
D) RBC count.
E) WBC count.
Q3) The anticoagulant and Vacutainer tube used for most hematology testing in a reference lab is:
A) heparin in a green-top tube.
B) heparin in a lavender-top tube.
C) ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) in a green-top tube.
D) EDTA in a lavender-top tube.
E) none of these; no anticoagulant is needed for hematology tests.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________________ include sugars and starches.
Q2) Which of the following groups are allowed to be eaten2 days before collecting the fecal specimen used for the Hemoccult blood test?
A) Chicken, fish, and eggs
B) Vitamin C, alcohol, and aspirin
C) Cauliflower, broccoli, turnips, parsnips, and melons
D) Red and partially cooked meats
Q3) _______________ is cholesterol manufactured in the liver.
Q4) Which of the following will not cause a liquid control to fall out of range?
A) Reagents stored at wrong temperature or expired
B) Failure of patient to fast before collection of the specimen
C) Poor specimen processing or faulty technique
D) Instrument dirty or faulty
Q5) Man-made hydrogenated fats are called ____________________.
Q6) Elevated blood sugar is called ____________________.
Q7) The hormone produced by the pancreas to raise blood glucose is ___________________.
Q8) Excessively high blood insulin levels is referred to as ____________________.
Page 8
Q9) _______________ is the stored form of glucose especially found in muscles and the liver.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Immunology
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following provides long-term protection against future infections due to the production of antibodies that were formed naturally during an infection or artificially by vaccination?
A) Passive immunity
B) Cell-mediated immunity
C) Active immunity
D) Nonspecific immunity
Q2) Which of the following classes of antibodies is involved in allergic reactions?
A) Immunoglobulin (Ig) E
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgG
Q3) The branch of laboratory medicine that performs antibody/antigen testing with serum is ____________________.
Q4) HCG is produced by the developing placenta during pregnancy, with the levels peaking:
A) between 5 and 8 days after conception.
B) between 10 and 30 days of pregnancy.
C) between 50 and 80 days of pregnancy.
D) on the day of delivery.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Microbiology
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease state that occurs when pathogenic microorganisms invade the body and overcome its natural defense mechanisms is a(n) ____________________.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning influenza is incorrect?
A) The elderly and patients with chronic health problems are at greater risk for complications.
B) Type C influenza is milder than the other types.
C) One type of influenza mutation is called antigenic drift, which refers to an abrupt change in the virus strain.
D) Several influenza pandemics have occurred in the past.
Q3) Which of the following describes a coccus bacterium?
A) An organism that can be a gently curved rod
B) A rod-shaped organism
C) A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, clusters, or chains
D) An organism that looks like a corkscrew or a spring
Q4) Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect?
A) This organism is transported in the Jembec transport system.
B) This organism is a gram-positive bacillus.
C) This organism requires a 10% carbon dioxide atmosphere for growth.
D) This organism causes gonorrhea, which is a sexually transmitted disease.
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Chapter 9: Toxicology
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug tests does not match its proper specimen collection?
A) Alcohol testing for Department of Justice: gray-top Vacutainer tube
B) Drug screening test for DOT: urine cup with temperature indicator
C) Urine drug panel for patient taking buprenorphine: 3-hour room temperature urine specimen
D) Blood test for lead poisoning: royal blue-top Vacutainer tube
Q2) The three-letter abbreviation used for barbiturates is ____________________.
Q3) The three-letter abbreviation used for buprenorphine is ____________________.
Q4) The three-letter abbreviation used for amphetamine is ____________________.
Q5) The three-letter abbreviation used for cocaine is ____________________.
Q6) An abnormal susceptibility to a drug or other agent that is peculiar to the individual is called ____________________.
Q7) The three-letter abbreviation used for benzodiazepines is ____________________.
Q8) Methadone and morphine are ____________________.
Q9) The three-letter abbreviation used for marijuana is ____________________.
Q10) The three-letter abbreviation used for methadone is ____________________.
Q11) ____________ is defined as passage of a substance through the surface of the Page 12
Q12) The three-letter abbreviation used for phencyclidine is ____________________.
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Chapter 10: Electrocardiography and Spirometry
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19333
Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing a patient for an ECG, dry shaving the hair from the chest and/or legs sites is necessary because:
A) the ECG is easier to standardize.
B) it is necessary to clearly see the chest sites.
C) it improves the contact between the skin and the electrodes.
D) it is no longer necessary to shave hair at any of the sites.
Q2) FEV stands for ______________.
Q3) What does the assistant do during Holter monitoring?
A) Prepare and instruct the patient.
B) Check the battery.
C) Apply and remove the monitor.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q4) A patient's spirometer results are compared to the predicted values of a control group of others who share all the following except:
A) blood pressure.
B) weight.
C) gender and age.
D) race.
E) height.
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