Pathophysiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes and mechanisms underlying human disease and injury. This course bridges the gap between basic biological sciences and clinical practice by examining how normal organ system functions are disrupted in various pathological conditions. Students will gain insight into cellular adaptations, inflammation, immunity, genetic disorders, and alterations in major organ systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding the etiology, progression, and manifestations of diseases, providing a foundation for developing effective strategies for diagnosis, treatment, and prevention in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults And Children 5th Edition by Kathryn
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L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the action of platelet-derived growth factor? It stimulates production of:
A) platelets.
B) epidermal cells.
C) connective tissue cells.
D) fibroblast cells.
Answer: C
Q2) Provides energy to digest proteins into amino acids
A)Endoplasmic reticulum
B)Ribosome
C)Golgi complex
D)Secretory vesicle
E)Lysosomes
Answer: E
Q3) If cells are deprived of communication from extracellular chemical messengers,most cells experience apoptosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertrophy and hyperplasia rarely occur together.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Dysplastic changes may be reversible,but may become malignant.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) What physiologic changes occur during heat exhaustion?
A) Hemoconcentration occurs because of the loss of salt and water.
B) Cramping of voluntary muscles occurs as a result of salt loss.
C) Thermoregulation fails because of high core temperature.
D) Subcutaneous layers are damaged because of high core temperatures.
Answer: A
Q4) The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of:
A) compensatory hyperplasiA.
B) hormonal hyperplasia.
C) hormonal anaplasia.
D) hormonal dysplasia.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) In hyperkalemia,cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of:
A) cardiac cell hypopolarization.
B) cardiac cell hyperexcitability.
C) depression of the sinoatrial (SA)node.
D) cardiac cell repolarization.
Answer: A
Q2) Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?
A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure
B) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
C) Capillary oncotic pressure
D) Interstitial oncotic pressure
Answer: C
Q3) Fatigue,weakness,kidney stones,varying degrees of heart block
A)Hyponatremia
B)Hypernatremia
C)Hypercalcemia
D)Hypokalemia
E)Hypomagnesemia
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with XXXY has the genetic disorder called __________ syndrome.
A) Turner
B) Klinefelter
C) Down
D) Fragile X
Q2) What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or mitosis?
A) Aneuploidy
B) Nondisjunction
C) Polyploidy
D) Translocation
Q3) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q4) All living organisms use the same DNA codes to specify proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does obesity act as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) By reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces
B) By increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
C) By obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas
D) By stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
Q2) Number of persons living with the disease
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenetic
F)Empiric risk
G)Relative risk
Q3) Which diseases are more strongly determined by environmental and lifestyle changes rather than genetics?
A) Autism and spina bifida
B) Diabetes mellitus and heart disease
C) Measles and influenza
D) Epilepsy and cystic fibrosis
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Chapter 6: Innate Immunity Including Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frequently histamine 1 (H1)and histamine 2 (H2)receptors are located on the same cells and act in a/an _____ fashion.
A) synergistic
B) additive
C) antagonistic
D) agonistic
Q2) What process causes heat and redness that occur during the inflammatory process?
A) Vasodilation
B) Platelet aggregation
C) Increased capillary permeability
D) Endothelial cell contraction
Q3) Opsonization is a process that renders bacteria more susceptible to phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Saliva
A)Secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid
B)Attack cell walls of gram positive bacteria
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Chapter 7: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is the function of the B-cell receptor (BCR)complex different from the function of circulating antibodies?
A) The B-cell receptor (BCR)complex communicates information about the antigen to the helper T cell.
B) The B-cell receptor (BCR)complex secretes chemical signals to communicate between cells.
C) The B-cell receptor (BCR)complex recognizes the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte.
D) The B-cell receptor (BCR)complex communicates information about the antigen to the cell nucleus.
Q2) Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)molecules are located on the surface of all body cells except erythrocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Provide help in developing humoral immunity
A)Helper T1 lymphocytes (Th1)
B)Helper T2 lymphocytes (Th2)
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Chapter 8: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
Including Hypersensitivies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atopic individuals tend to produce higher levels of IgM.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the name of the hypersensitivity reaction that occurs after a person who is allergic to bee stings is stung by a bee?
A) Hemolytic shock
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Necrotizing vasculitis
D) Systemic erythematosus
Q3) What is the mechanism in type I hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface and cause lysis.
B) Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.
C) Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.
D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokines-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Infection Including Hivaids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Invade skin,hair and nails
A)Bacteria
B)Viruses
C)Mycoses
D)Dermatophytes
Q2) Once they have penetrated the first line of defense,which microorganisms do natural killer cells actively attack?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Viruses
D) Mycoplasma
Q3) What is the major cause of death worldwide?
A) Starvation
B) Traumatic injury
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Infectious disease
Q4) Viruses have no metabolism and are incapable of independent reproduction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stress and negative emotions have not been associated with the production of increased levels of proinflammatory cytokines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lymphocytes secrete growth hormone,prolactin,adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)and endorphins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The release of which cytokines is triggered by bacterial or viral infections,cancer,and tissue injury that in turn initiate a stress response?
A) Interleukin 1 (Il-1)and interleukin 2 (Il-2)
B) Interleukin 12 (Il-12),tumor necrosis factor,and colony stimulating factor
C) Interferon,tumor necrosis factor ß,and interleukin 6 (Il-6)
D) Interleukin 4 (Il-4)and interleukin 24 (Il-24)
Q4) Which immune cells are suppressed by corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
A) B cells and eosinophils
B) Cytokines and neutrophils
C) Cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells
D) Helper T cells and monocyte-macrophage cells
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Chapter 11: Biology of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14.This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
A) Point mutation
B) Chromosome translocation
C) Gene amplification
D) Chromosome fusion
Q2) In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22.This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?
A) Point mutation
B) Chromosome fusion
C) Gene amplification
D) Chromosome translocation
Q3) Cancer is predominantly a disease of aging.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term "neoplasm" can refer to a benign tumor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Tumor Invasion and Metastasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunomodulating agents
A)Provides cell-derived antiviral and immunomodulating proteins
B)Provides direct cytotoxic effect on cancer cells
C)Forms antibodies specific for tumor antigen
D)Attacks cancerous cells in the cell cycle
E)Provides nonspecific stimulation of the immune system
Q2) Brain
A)Pressure
B)Compression
C)Stretching
D)Obstruction
E)Tissue destruction
Q3) What is the most common route for distant metastasis?
A) Seeding
B) Blood
C) Lymphatics
Q4) Direct invasion may be a part of the mechanism of local tumor spreading.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most childhood cancers arise from the:
A) epithelium.
B) mesodermal germ layer.
C) embryologic ectodermal layer.
D) viscera.
Q2) An example of an embryonic tumor is:
A) osteosarcomA.
B) neuroblastoma.
C) leukemia.
D) adenocarcinoma.
Q3) Embryonic tumors are usually diagnosed after 5 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When are childhood cancers are most often diagnosed?
A) During infancy
B) At peak times of physical growth
C) After early warning signs
D) After an acute illness
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the blood vessels involved in the control of blood pressure are innervated by sympathetic nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Trigeminal nerve
A)Innervates muscles that move the eye downward and inward
B)Has both motor and sensory functions to face,mouth,nose,and eyes
C)Carries motor functions to tongue and sensory impulses from tongue to brain
D)Controls size,shape,and equality of pupils
E)Causes motor functions to pharynx and salivary glands and sensory functions from pharynx and tongue
F)Innervated muscles that move the eye laterally
G)Carries sensory and motor action to the tongue
H)Carries impulse for sense of smell
I)Carries motor and sensory fibers of abdominal organs
J)Transmits impulses for sense of hearing
K)Carries sensory and motor fibers to pharynx and larynx
Q3) Microglia perform phagocytosis in the central nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) As much as _____ L of fluid per hour may be lost by sweating.
A) 2.0
B) 4.0
C) 6.0
D) 8.0
Q2) Which are characteristics of visceral pain?
A) It is sharp and well defined when transmitted by A-delta fibers.
B) It is perceived as poorly localized and is transmitted by the sympathetic nervous system.
C) It arises from connective tissue,muscle,bone,or skin.
D) It is perceived as dull,aching,and poorly localized when transmitted by C fibers.
Q3) Pain described as paroxysmal with paresthesia,burning,shooting,or stabbing sensations
A)Myofascial pain syndrome
B)Neuropathic pain
C)Deafferentation pain
D)Sympathetically maintained pain (SMP)
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Concepts of Neurologic Dysfunction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are characteristics of primary motor neuron amyotrophies?
A) Loss of sensation in distal,proximal,or midline muscles
B) Fasciculations and muscle cramps in distal,proximal,or midline muscles
C) Flaccid paralysis with paresthesia in distal,proximal,or midline muscles
D) Spastic paralysis with increased deep tendon reflexes in distal,proximal,or midline muscles
Q2) In posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA),respirations stop after hyperventilation followed by the return of rhythmic breathing.What stimulus causes the hyperventilation?
A) High arterial carbon dioxide
B) Low arterial carbon dioxide
C) Normal arterial carbon dioxide
D) High arterial oxygen
E) Low arterial oxygen
Q3) What is the best prognostic indicator of recovery of consciousness or functional outcome?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale
B) Glasgow Outcome Score
C) Etiology of injury and time since onset of coma
D) Pupillary reaction and reflective eye movements
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following people,who are at highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident?
A) White women over 65 years of age
B) Black women over 65 years of age
C) Black men over 65 years of age
D) White men over 65 years of age
Q2) What are the initial clinical manifestations associated with acute spinal cord injury?
A) Headache,bradycardia,and elevated blood pressure
B) Confusion,irritability,and retrograde amnesia
C) Loss of deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis
D) Hypotension,neurogenic shock,and tachycardia
Q3) In which disorder are acetylcholine receptors antibodies (IgG antibodies)produced against acetylcholine receptors?
A) Guillain-Barré syndrome
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Myasthenia gravis
D) Parkinson disease
Q4) Bacterial meningitis can develop as a consequence of ear or gum infections.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with panic disorder are effectively treated with cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT).
A)True
B)False
Q2) The dopamine hypothesis suggests a depletion of dopaminergic transmission contributes to the onset of schizophrenia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Approximately 50% of individuals with major depression will experience a manic episode.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Twenty to thirty percent of individuals with depression have dysregulated:
A) sleep cycles.
B) pituitary function.
C) eating patterns.
D) thyroid function.
Q5) Mania is the most common mood disorder.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) After which neural tube defect will an infant have motor and sensory deficits below the level of the lesion?
A) Encephalocele
B) Meningocele
C) Spina bifida
D) Myelomeningocele
Q2) \How does increased lead absorption in children cause anemia?
A) By lysing erythrocytes
B) By impairing the absorption of vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) By impairing the absorption of folic acid
D) By impairing the absorption of iron
Q3) The largest site for HIV infection in infants and children is the __________ system.
A) central nervous
B) gastrointestinal
C) integumentary
D) musculoskeletal
Q4) Meningoceles occur at a greater frequency in the lumbar spine area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A surgical patient just arrived on the unit from the post-anesthesia care unit.This patient's respirations are 4 per minute and shallow.As the nurse calls for assistance,the patient suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens.Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?
A) The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor,which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T<sub>4</sub>)and triiodothyronine (T<sub>3</sub>).
B) The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin,which reduces blood glucose levels.
C) The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor,which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH),stimulating the release of cortisol.
D) The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone,which are secreted by the posterior pituitary,activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.
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22
Chapter 21: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
A) Solute retention and water retention
B) Solute retention and water loss
C) Solute dilution and water retention
D) Solute dilution and water loss
Q2) Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?
A) Cushing syndrome
B) Acromegaly
C) Gigantism
D) Myxedema
Q3) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)is characterized by increased levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why does giantism only occur in children and adolescents?
A) Because they have not reached puberty when the effects of growth hormone are diminished
B) Because their epiphyseal plates have not yet closed
C) Because their skeletal muscles are not fully developed
D) Because their metabolic rates are higher than they are in adulthood
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Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Female fertility test
A)Cytologic exam
B)Antigen-antibody reaction
C)Hormone assay
D)Tissue sampling
E)Microbe identification
Q2) Production of sperm begins during fetal life.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Acts on the Leydig cells to regulate testosterone secretion
A)Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
B)Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C)Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D)Estrogen
E)Progesterone
Q4) During menstrual cycles in which ovulation occurs,basal body temperature:
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) fluctuates around 98°F.
D) shows no change.
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Chapter 23: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
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Q1) What is the pathogenesis of polycystic ovarian syndrome?
A) A decrease in leptin levels reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin releasing hormone,which reduces the number of follicles that mature
B) A disorder in the anterior pituitary increases the follicle-stimulating hormone,which reduces the luteinizing hormone released
C) Hyperinsulinemia affects follicular decline by suppressing apoptosis,enabling follicles,which normally disintegrate to survive
D) Testosterone stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and reduces sex hormone-binding globulin indirectly
Q2) Which cancer is a germ cell tumor arising from the male gamete?
A) Penile cancer
B) Testicular cancer
C) Prostate cancer
D) Epididymal cancer
Q3) Prevention of constipation and treatment of chronic cough may help prevent uterine prolapse.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Human papilloma virus (HPV)
A)The most common serious viral infection among infants
B)Causes condylomata acuminata
C)May contribute to the development of genital cancer
Q2) The most common clinical manifestations of chlamydial infections in newborns are conjunctivitis and pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Uncomplicated local infections by gonococci in men are infections of the:
A) epididymis.
B) lymph nodes.
C) urethra.
D) prostate.
Q4) Which organism causes syphilis?
A) Neisseria syphilis,an anaerobic bacterium
B) Treponema pallidum,a spirochete
C) Haemophilus ducreyi,a bacterium
D) Chlamydia trachomatis,an intracellular parasite
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Q1) Skin
A)Kupffer's cells
B)Alveolar macrophages
C)Microglial cells
D)Mesangial cells
E)Langerhans cells
Q2) Which characteristic of albumin is false?
A) Albumin retains sodium to maintain water balance.
B) Albumin provides colloid osmotic pressure.
C) Albumin is synthesized in the liver.
D) Albumin is a carrier for calcium and some drugs.
Q3) Endomitosis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q4) Aging causes major changes in blood composition.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Q1) What is the pathophysiologic process of aplastic anemia?
A) Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T cells
B) Malignancy of the bone marrow in which unregulated proliferation of erythrocytes crowd out other blood cells
C) Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated immunoglobulins
D) Inherited genetic disorder with recessive x-linked transmission
Q2) Iron deficiency anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q3) Folate deficiency anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q4) The major physiologic manifestation of anemia is:
A) hypotension.
B) hyperesthesia.
C) hypoxia.
D) ischemia.
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Chapter 27: Alterations in Hematologic Function in Children
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Q1) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against:
A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) platelets.
D) basophils.
Q2) How does hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)cause acquired congenital hemolytic anemia?
A) HDN develops when hypoxia or dehydration cause the erythrocytes to change shapes,which are then recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
B) HDN is an alloimmune disease in which the mother's immune system produces antibodies against fetal erythrocytes,which are recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
C) HDN develops when the polycythemia present in fetal life continues after birth causing the excessive number of erythrocytes to be removed from circulation.
D) HDN is an autoimmune disease in which the fetus' immune system produces antibodies against fetal erythrocytes,which are recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the SA node because:
A) of its superior location in the right atrium.
B) it is the only area of the heart capable of spontaneous depolarization.
C) it has rich sympathetic innervation via the vagus nerve.
D) it depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.
Q2) The right lymphatic duct drains into the:
A) right subclavian artery.
B) right atrium.
C) right subclavian vein.
D) superior vena cava.
Q3) Reflects rapid flow of blood from the great veins and right atrium into the right ventricle
A)a wave
B)v wave
C)c wave
D)x descent
E)y descent
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Q1) What are the differences in arterial walls versus vs.walls that promote clot formation?
A) There is inflammation of the endothelium of the artery and roughing of the endothelium of the vein.
B) There is vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery and hypertrophy of the endothelium of the vein.
C) There is excessive clot formation of the endothelium of the artery and lipid accumulation of the endothelium of the vein.
D) There is roughening of the endothelium of the artery and inflammation of the endothelium of the vein.
Q2) Of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease,which is responsible for a twofold to threefold increase in risk?
A) Diabetes mellitus
B) Hypertension
C) Obesity
D) High alcohol consumption
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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42 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Iron deficiency anemia may result from polycythemia that develops from chronic hypoxia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ostium primum
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Communication between the aorta and the pulmonary artery
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
Q3) Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13,trisomy 18,and Down syndrome?
A) Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis
B) Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus
C) Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia
D) Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus
Q4) Conditions in which a patent foramen ovale may continue past the first month of life include pulmonary hypertension,right ventricular failure,and tricuspid atresia.
A)True
B)False
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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38 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately 1000 ml (1 L)of oxygen is transported to cells each minute.How is most of the oxygen is transported?
A) Dissolved in plasma
B) Bound to hemoglobin
C) In the form of carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)
D) Bound to protein
Q2) The sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles are referred to as:
A) accessory muscles.
B) muscles of expiration.
C) intercostal muscles.
D) muscles of inspiration.
Q3) Where do receptors such as stretch and peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation?
A) To the pneumotaxic center in the pons
B) To the apneustic center in the pons
C) To the dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata
D) To the ventral respiratory group in the medulla oblongata
Q4) The trachea bifurcates into two bronchi at the carina.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)_____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma.
A) consolidation
B) cavitation
C) empyema
D) abscess
Q2) Pulmonary fibrosis
A)The passage of fluid and solid particles into the lung
B)Inflammatory obstruction of small airways
C)Excessive amount of connective tissue in the lung
D)Alveolar collapse
E)Abnormal dilation of the bronchi
Q3) Which cause of chest wall restriction is false?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Severe kyphoscoliosis
C) Gross obesity
D) Neuromuscular disease
Q4) A pulmonary artery pressure of 23 mm Hg is normal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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52 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the trigone?
A) It is the smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter.
B) It is the inner mucosal lining of the kidneys.
C) It is a smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra.
D) It is the three divisions of the loop of Henle.
Q2) The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH),which is secreted by the:
A) posterior pituitary.
B) right atrium.
C) left atrium.
D) anterior pituitary.
E) hypothalamus.
Q3) The arcuate arteries branch to form the interlobar arteries at the cortical medullary junction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Normally,99% of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which clinical manifestation of pyelonephritis is different from those of cystitis?
A) Difficulty starting the stream of urine
B) Spasmodic pain that radiates to the groin
C) Dysuria and frequency
D) Flank pain
Q2) Renal vasoconstriction
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
Q3) In glomerulonephritis,how are the glomerular cell walls damaged?
A) By ischemia
B) By lysosomal enzymes
C) By compression from edema
D) By lysis from complement
Q4) Hypovolemia
A)Prerenal
B)Intrarenal
C)Postrenal
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does hypertension occur in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
A) Because of the increase in capillary permeability along the glomerular vascular membrane.
B) Because of the release of endothelin-1 as a result of endothelial injury and platelet activation.
C) Because of the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system stimulated by decreased renal perfusion.
D) Because of the stimulation of a-adrenergic nerves that cause vasoconstriction.
Q2) What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)?
A) Lysosomal enzymes
B) Endotoxins from the streptococcus
C) Immune complexes
D) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)mediated response
Q3) Approximately one third of individuals with horseshoe kidneys are asymptomatic.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the role of the normal intestinal bacterial flora?
A) They metabolize bile salts,estrogens,and lipids.
B) They breakdown proteins into amino acids.
C) They facilitate the motility of the colon.
D) They metabolize aldosterone and insulin.
Q2) Food enters the stomach via the _____ orifice.
A) cardiac
B) esophageal
C) gastric
D) fundal
Q3) Bilirubin is a byproduct of the destruction of aged _____ that are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.
A) platelets
B) protein
C) leukocytes
D) erythrocytes
E) fats
Q4) Potassium concentration in gastric juice is greater than in plasma.
A)True
B)False
Page 38
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone and/or peptide stimulates eating?
A) Agouti-related protein (AGRP)
B) Alpha-melanocyte stimulating hormone (-MSH)
C) Cocaine-and amphetamine-regulated transcript (CART)
D) Peptide YY (PYY)
Q2) Because patterns of bowel evacuation differ greatly among individuals,constipation must be individually defined.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?
A) Osmotic diarrhea
B) Secretory diarrhea
C) Small volume diarrhea
D) Motility diarrhea
Q4) What is the action of antiemetics,such as ondansetron and granisetron?
A) They block the effects of 5-HT serotonin.
B) They block the effects of histamine 2 (H<sub>2</sub>).
C) They stimulate the effects of acetylcholine.
D) They stimulate the effects of dopamine (D<sub>2</sub>).
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Wilson disease is a rare autosomal recessive disease affecting copper metabolism in children and young adults.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Prolonged diarrhea is more severe in children than in adults because:
A) less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
B) fluid reserves are smaller in children.
C) children have a higher fluid volume intake.
D) children have diarrhea more often than adults.
Q3) Failure to thrive is a disorder having both organic (e.g. ,gastrointestinal and endocrine disorders)and nonorganic (e.g. ,psychosocial)deprivation causes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why does an infant with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue)bruise and bleed easily?
A) Because he has a vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption
B) Because his bone marrow function is depressed
C) Because he has iron,folate,and B<sub>12</sub> deficiency anemias
D) Because he is taking Coumadin
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Chapter 39: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which minerals are stored in bones?
A) Sodium,iron,and selenium
B) Phosphate,carbonate,and magnesium
C) Potassium,fluoride,and copper
D) Zinc,sulfur,and chloride
Q2) Fibroblasts,capillary buds,and osteoblasts move into the wound to produce granulation tissue.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
Q3) In _____ contractions,the muscle maintains a constant tension as it moves.
A) isotonic
B) isometric
C) hypertonic
D) hypotonic
Q4) The joint capsule is avascular.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) McArdle disease
A)Caused by sedatives and narcotics,particularly street heroin
B)Caused by viruses,bacteria,and parasites
C)Exercise intolerance with normal production of lactic acid
D)Impairs the breakdown of glycogen and production of lactic acid
E)Autoimmune disease
Q2) Considering the pathophysiology of osteoporosis,which factors increase osteoprotegrin (OPG)production?
A) Transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-ß)and glucocorticoids
B) Interleukin 1 (IL-1),prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>,and leukotrienes
C) Tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-),leptin,and 17 ß-estradiol
D) Interleukin 8 (IL-8)and parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Q3) What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?
A) Lateral epicondylitis
B) Medial epicondylitis
C) Bursitis
D) Lateral tendonitis
E) Medial tendonitis
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal lordotic curve of the lower spine begins to develop when the infant begins sitting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following muscular dystrophy syndromes develops from an X-linked recessive mode of inheritance?
A) Duchenne
B) Facioscapulohumeral
C) Myotonic
D) Limb girdle
Q3) The most common skeletal defect of the upper extremity is:
A) vestigial tabs.
B) Paget disease.
C) rickets.
D) syndactyly.
Q4) The major errors in osteogenesis imperfecta lie in the synthesis of:
A) collagen.
B) cartilage.
C) osteoblasts.
D) bone cell precursors.
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Chapter 42: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scleroderma is more common in women and is associated with:
A) an X-linked recessive gene.
B) an X-linked dominant gene.
C) a virus.
D) several autoantibodies.
Q2) Keloids are sharply elevated,irregularly shaped,progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.
A) elastin
B) collagen
C) stroma
D) reticular fibers
Q3) What clinical manifestations do allergic,atopic,and stasis dermatitis have in common?
A) Petechiae and hyperpigmentation
B) Edema and vesicular lesions
C) Scaling and crusting of lesions
D) Erythema and pruritus
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Chapter 43: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the nurse describe the skin lesions caused by tinea capitis or tinea corporis?
A) Pink to red coalescing maculopapular rash on the scalp or trunk
B) Vesicles that rupture creating a thin,flat,honey-colored crust
C) Circular (round or oval)with erythema and scaling patches
D) Red papules,vesicles,and pustules in clusters
Q2) What is a common source of tinea corporis?
A) Mites
B) Kittens and puppies
C) Fleas
D) Ticks
Q3) Which vascular anomaly is a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries that does not fade with age?
A) Cutaneous hemangioma
B) Port-wine (nevus flammeus)stain
C) Strawberry hemangioma
D) Cavernous hemangioma
Q4) Scalded-skin syndrome is the result of staphylococcal infection of burned skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 44: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cause of organ failure in shock is depletion of protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When proteins are broken down anaerobically,ammonia and urea are produced.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In primary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS),organ injury is directly associated with impaired perfusion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What effect does fatal burn injury have on interleukins?
A) Decreases levels of interleukin 2 (IL-2),which may decrease T helper 1 (Th1)lymphocytes
B) Decreases levels of interleukin 4 (IL-4),which causes a shift in production from Th1 to Th2 lymphocytes
C) Decreases levels of interleukin 6 (IL-6),which produces cytokines
D) Decreases levels of interleukin 12 (IL-12),which stimulates the production of immunoglobulins
Page 46
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Chapter 45: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Children younger than _____ years of age lack the ability to concentrate urine.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Q2) Involve flammable liquids such as gasoline
A)Scald burns
B)Contact burns
C)Flame burns
D)Electrical burns
E)Chemical burns
Q3) Viruses,fungi,or rickettsial microorganisms cause about 40% of nosocomial infections in children.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What causes renal failure after electrical burns in children?
A) Cytokines released after the damaged tissue
B) Immature kidneys unable to compensate for the electrical burn
C) Reduction in cardiac output
D) Myoglobin released from damaged muscles
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Chapter 46: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is heparin induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)described?
A) It is an immunoglobulin G (IgG)immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
B) It is a hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body's needs.
C) It is an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.
D) It is a cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.
Q2) In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC),what are indications of microvascular thrombosis?
A) Reduced amplitude in peripheral pulses
B) Symmetric cyanosis of fingers and toes
C) Patient reports of numbness and tingling in fingers and toes
D) Pallor and edema of fingers and toes bilaterally
Q3) In the leukemias,a single progenitor cell undergoes malignant transformation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 47: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description is indicative of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction,bronchial hyperreactivity,and inflammation.
B) A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia,decreased pulmonary compliance,and diffuse densities on chest x-ray.
C) A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that line the airways,pancreas,sweat ducts,and vas deferens.
D) A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency.
Q2) Surfactant production is being produced by the fourth week of gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nasal problems,foreign body,polyps,or choanal atresia
A)Sonorous snoring
B)Muffled voice
C)High-pitched inspiratory sound,voice change,hoarse
D)Expiratory stridor or central wheeze
E)Expiratory wheezes
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