Pathophysiology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Pathophysiology is the study of the disordered physiological processes that underlie disease and injury in the human body. This course explores the mechanisms by which normal biological functions are altered by genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors, leading to symptoms and signs of illness. Students will examine the progression from health to disease across various organ systems, including cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, neurological, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding the links between anatomical alterations, abnormal laboratory values, and clinical manifestations, preparing students to recognize the fundamental processes that guide diagnosis and therapeutic interventions.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ is located in the ventral cavity,but not in the thoracic cavity?
A) lung
B) heart
C) liver
D) brain
Answer: C
Q2) The thigh is ___________ to the foot.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) inferior
D) deep
Answer: B
Q3) The thoracic cavity is ___________ to the abdominopelvic cavity.
A) deep
B) distal
C) anterior
D) superior
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cation is a(n)
A) positively charged ion.
B) electrolyte.
C) isotope.
D) ion that has an atomic weight of 2.
Answer: A
Q2) The sharing of electrons is referred to as A) covalent bonding.
B) ionic bonding.
C) radioactive decay.
D) isotope formation.
Answer: A
Q3) An atom has 2 protons,2 neutrons,and 2 electrons;it has an atomic A) number of 6.
B) weight of 2.
C) weight of 6.
D) number of 4.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure is described as rough or smooth?
A) ribosome
B) mitochondrion
C) cilia
D) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: D
Q2) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase are phases of
A) active transport.
B) mitosis.
C) differentiation.
D) pinocytosis.
Answer: B
Q3) These hairlike structures are located on the outer surface of the cell membrane.
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) cilia
D) centrioles
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adenine,thymine,cytosine,and guanine are
A) bases of DNA.
B) sugars used to synthesize nucleotides.
C) intermediates of the Krebs cycle.
D) amino acids.
Q2) Starch is classified as a(n)
A) lipid.
B) fatty acid.
C) amino acid.
D) polysaccharide.
Q3) Which of the following carries the individual amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome for assembly into a protein?
A) DNA
B) tRNA
C) mRNA
D) ATP
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following requires another living host for its continued existence?
A) arthropod
B) pathogen
C) parasite
D) bacterium
Q2) Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
A) mycotic infections.
B) caused by salmonella.
C) worm infestations.
D) caused by protozoan parasites.
Q3) A mycotic infection is caused by a(n)
A) parasite.
B) bacterium.
C) fungus.
D) arthropod.
Q4) Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans?
A) causative organism of impetigo
B) fungal infection
C) yeast infection
D) antibiotic-induced superinfection
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor?
A) osseous tissue
B) fascia
C) ligaments
D) squamous epithelium
Q2) Stratified means
A) flat and shiny.
B) layered.
C) striped.
D) hard.
Q3) This type of tissue is found in organs that need to stretch (i.e.,urinary bladder).
A) transitional epithelium
B) loose connective tissue
C) adipose tissue
D) simple squamous epithelium
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?
A) shivering
B) vasoconstriction
C) cyanosis
D) vasodilation
Q2) Which of the following is associated with tanning?
A) sudoriferous glands
B) apocrine glands
C) arrector pili muscles
D) melanocytes
Q3) Which type of gland secretes vernix caseosa in the fetus?
A) sudoriferous
B) apocrine
C) eccrine
D) sebaceous
Q4) Which glands are most responsible for body odor?
A) apocrine
B) arrector pili
C) eccrine
D) sebaceous glands
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Spongy or cancellous refers to a(n)
A) irregular bone.
B) cartilage.
C) soft bone.
D) osteon.
Q2) The lambdoidal suture in the skull is a(n)
A) synovial joint.
B) hinge joint.
C) freely movable joint.
D) immovable joint.
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) sinuses:frontal,maxillary,sphenoidal,ethmoidal
B) spinal curvatures:cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral
C) bones of the lower extremities:femur,tibia,fibula
D) bones of the vertebral column:atlas,axis,coxal bone
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) spinal curvatures:cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral
B) abnormal curvatures of the spine:scoliosis,kyphosis,lordosis
C) types of ribs:true,false,floating
D) types of freely movable joints:hinge,ball-and-socket,and suture
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sarcoplasmic reticulum
A) stores ACh.
B) is located within the neuromuscular junction.
C) envelops the sarcomere-containing myofibrils.
D) is a contractile protein.
Q2) This muscle separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities and is also the chief breathing muscle.
A) serratus anterior
B) intercostal muscle
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) diaphragm
Q3) These muscles are located on the inner (medial)surface of the thigh and move the thigh toward the midline of the body.
A) gastrocnemius
B) quadriceps femoris
C) adductors
D) sartorius
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to "saltatory conduction"?
A) dendrites
B) choroid plexus
C) nodes of Ranvier
D) astrocytes
Q2) Which structure is called the lateral,third,and fourth?
A) meninges
B) ventricles
C) cerebral lobes
D) parts of the brain stem
Q3) The frontal,temporal,occipital,and parietal lobes form the A) brain stem.
B) cerebrum.
C) cerebellum.
D) reticular formation.
Q4) The repolarizing phase of the action potential
A) means that the inside of the cell is becoming more positive.
B) is due to the movement of sodium (Na )into the cell.
C) is due to the movement of potassium (K )out of the cell.
D) is due to the Na / K pump located in the membrane.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral
Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intramuscular injection into the buttocks is given in the upper outer quadrant in an attempt to avoid injuring this nerve.
A) common peroneal
B) phrenic
C) femoral
D) sciatic
Q2) Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity?
A) cauda equina
B) cervical plexus
C) brachial plexus
D) vagus nerve
Q3) What nerve is damaged by an ototoxic drug?
A) cranial nerve II
B) cranial nerve III
C) cranial nerve VIII
D) cranial nerve X
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
A) enzyme that degrades norepinephrine
B) found within all cholinergic nerve terminals
C) associated with sympathetic activity
D) associated with adrenergic fibers
Q2) A patient has vagally induced bradycardia (slow heart rate).Which of the following will relieve the bradycardia?
A) muscarinic antagonist
B) beta1 adrenergic blocker
C) vagomimetic
D) alpha1 adrenergic agonist
Q3) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
A) are somatic motor neurons.
B) supply voluntary skeletal muscles.
C) include the phrenic,sciatic,and brachial nerves.
D) innervate the viscera.
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gustatory sensation is most related to the A) eighth cranial nerve.
B) rods and cones.
C) organ of Corti.
D) taste buds.
Q2) Lysozyme,an enzyme with antimicrobial activity,is found in A) tears.
B) vitreous humor.
C) aqueous humor.
D) endolymph.
Q3) What is the condition caused by unequal tension exerted by the extrinsic eye muscles?
A) "pink eye"
B) strabismus
C) glaucoma
D) cataracts
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This gland secretes melatonin and is concerned with our biologic rhythms.
A) pancreas
B) adenohypophysis
C) pineal gland
D) adrenal gland
Q2) Which of the following is most responsive to treatment with thyroxine?
A) diabetes mellitus
B) hyperglycemia
C) myxedema
D) Graves' disease
Q3) Insulin
A) stimulates the formation of glycogen.
B) increases the transport of glucose into a cell.
C) stimulates the synthesis of proteins and fats.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Which of the following is characterized by low blood volume?
A) Cushing's syndrome
B) tetany
C) diabetes insipidus
D) oversecretion of ACTH
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary for prothrombin synthesis?
A) heparin
B) calcium
C) hemophilic factor
D) vitamin K
Q2) Which of the following can a person with type O blood safely receive?
A) A type
B) B type
C) AB type
D) O type
Q3) Erythroblastosis fetalis is primarily a problem involving A) myelosuppression.
B) lack of intrinsic factor.
C) inability of the kidneys to secrete erythropoietin.
D) agglutination and hemolysis.
Q4) What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?
A) anticoagulant
B) antiplatelet
C) "clot buster" (thrombolytic)
D) antihistamine
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) semilunar valves:pulmonic,aortic
B) structures that carry oxygenated blood:pulmonary veins,left ventricle,aorta
C) layers of the heart:epicardium,myocardium,endocardium
D) abnormal heart rates:tachycardia,bradycardia,normal sinus rhythm
Q2) Which of the following is a function of a valve?
A) regulates the direction of the flow of blood through the heart
B) regulates the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin
C) regulates heart rate
D) directs the movement of the cardiac impulse
Q3) What event causes the pulmonic valve to open?
A) the P wave
B) an increase in the pressure within the right ventricle
C) "lubb-dupp"
D) contraction of the chordae tendineae
Q4) Which of the following "sees" oxygenated blood?
A) vena cava
B) pulmonary veins
C) right atrium
D) pulmonic valve
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to increase ejection fraction?
A) activation of beta1 adrenergic receptors
B) vagal discharge
C) blockade of beta1 adrenergic receptors
D) blockade of the muscarinic receptors
Q2) Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+)inotropic effect,a (+)dromotropic effect,and a (+)chronotropic effect?
A) vagomimetic
B) sympathomimetic
C) antimuscarinic
D) parasympatholytic
Q3) Sympathetic nerve stimulation of the myocardium
A) causes a (+)inotropic effect.
B) decreases cardiac output.
C) decreases heart rate.
D) decreases stroke volume.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic of the arteriole allows it to function as a resistance vessel?
A) its thin membrane.
B) its porous membrane.
C) its valves.
D) its smooth muscle.
Q2) What is the largest vein in the body?
A) circle of Willis
B) vena cava
C) portal vein
D) jugular vein
Q3) The longest vein in the body that is located in the lower extremity.
A) vena cava
B) subclavian
C) jugular
D) saphenous
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20
Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which artery is most often used to measure the blood pressure?
A) carotid artery
B) brachial artery
C) femoral artery
D) circle of Willis
Q2) Which of the following exerts a vasopressor effect?
A) diuretic
B) alpha1 adrenergic agonist
C) beta1 adrenergic antagonist
D) sympatholytic
Q3) What is the term that refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure reading?
A) pulse deficit
B) cardiac output
C) stroke volume
D) pulse pressure
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What structure is concerned with the processing and maturation of T lymphocytes?
A) medulla oblongata
B) thymus gland
C) coronary sinus
D) pericardium
Q2) The inguinal lymph nodes
A) line the entrance of the spleen.
B) are the Kupffer cells within the liver.
C) are located in the groin.
D) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q3) What happens if the lymphatic vessels and nodes are removed from the right axillary region?
A) All lymph will drain directly into the superior vena cava.
B) The right arm will become gangrenous from lack of oxygen.
C) The right arm will become edematous.
D) The patient will experience anginal pain.
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A breastfed infant is initially immune to the same diseases as her mom.Which of the following describes the infant's immunity?
A) naturally acquired passive immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) artificially acquired active immunity
D) artificially acquired passive immunity
Q2) A vaccine
A) is a gamma globulin.
B) conveys active immunity.
C) contains antibodies.
D) is the same as an antitoxin.
Q3) What is the term that refers to the use of dead or attenuated pathogens to stimulate antibody production?
A) immunotolerance
B) autoimmunity
C) immunization
D) inflammation
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following contributes to the wheezing of asthma?
A) constriction of the bronchiolar smooth muscle
B) edema of the vocal cords
C) inflammation of the trachea and pharynx
D) pneumothorax
Q2) Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the
A) bronchioles.
B) trachea.
C) pulmonary capillaries.
D) eustachian tube.
Q3) Most oxygen is transported through the blood
A) attached to hemoglobin.
B) as bicarbonate.
C) as surfactant.
D) as lysozyme.
Q4) Kussmaul respirations
A) cause hypoxemia.
B) increase PCO<sub>2</sub>.
C) are increased respiratory activity due to acidosis.
D) are caused by a decrease in the plasma [H ].
24
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following produces amino acids as its end-product of digestion?
A) bile
B) lipase
C) trypsin
D) amylase
Q2) The word hepatic refers to the
A) pancreas.
B) portal vein.
C) mesentery.
D) liver.
Q3) Sucrase,maltase,and lactase are
A) secreted by the pancreas.
B) gastric enzymes.
C) disaccharidases.
D) emulsifying agents.
Q4) Impaired hepatic function
A) causes a deficiency of intrinsic factor and pernicious anemia.
B) often causes plasma drug levels to increase to toxic concentrations.
C) causes lactose intolerance.
D) causes gastric reflux and pyrosis.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the nephron unit filters 180 L of water per day?
A) peritubular capillaries
B) glomeruli
C) calyces
D) trigone
Q2) What happens at the glomerular membrane?
A) Water and dissolved solute are filtered into Bowman's capsule.
B) The JGA cells release ADH.
C) The JGA cells release aldosterone.
D) Na+ is reabsorbed.
Q3) Aldosterone
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
B) acts on the collecting duct blocking the reabsorption of water.
C) stimulates the reabsorption of water,but has no effect on potassium.
D) is a mineralocorticoid that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium.
Q4) What is the urine-making structure of the kidney?
A) trigone
B) renal pyramid
C) renal capsule
D) nephron unit
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Chapter 25: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is admitted with severe emphysema and a PO? of 85.He also has a blood pH of 7.25 and a serum bicarbonate of 40.Which of the following is the accurate description?
A) metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation
B) metabolic alkalosis with a respiratory compensation
C) respiratory alkalosis with a renal compensation
D) respiratory acidosis with a renal compensation
Q2) Water and chloride usually follow the movement of this cation.
A) bicarbonate
B) sodium
C) potassium
D) albumin
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the lungs?
A) oxygenation of blood
B) excretion of carbon dioxide
C) secretion of aldosterone and the regulation of Na
D) regulation of blood pH
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fundus forms the upper part of this structure.
A) vagina
B) corpus luteum
C) graafian follicle
D) uterus
Q2) Which of the following is not located in or on the ovary?
A) corpus luteum
B) graafian follicle
C) fertilized ovum
D) corpus albicans
Q3) Which of the following can be detected by a rectal exam?
A) an enlarged prostate gland
B) cystitis
C) sterility
D) gonorrhea
Q4) Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female?
A) benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) cystitis
C) repeated bouts of gonorrhea
D) torn hymen
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) This outer extraembryonic membrane forms finger-like projections called villi and helps form the placenta.
A) amnion
B) chorion
C) umbilicus
D) trophoblast
Q2) Which of the following organs involutes following delivery of baby?
A) vagina
B) fallopian tubes
C) ovaries
D) uterus
Q3) Which of the following best describes the amnion,chorion,yolk sac,and allantois?
A) primary germ layers
B) inner cell mass
C) dizygotic twins
D) extraembryonic membranes
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